NUR 3065 | Chapter 19. Emergency Problems; Attempt Score; 100%

NUR 3065 - Chapter 19. Emergency Problems Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature ...

NUR 3065 - Chapter 19. Emergency Problems Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status changes, absent sweat, and tachypnea? a. Heat cramps b. Heat syncope c. Heat exhaustion d. Heat stroke ____ 2. What percentage of burns is involved using the rule of nines if both front legs are burned? a. 9% b. 18% c. 24% d. 36% ____ 3. Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries? a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimin) b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) c. Silver nitrate d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) ____ 4. A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet radiation? a. 4 b. 8 c. 10 d. 15 ____ 5. Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure? a. Decrease in level of consciousness b. Headache c. Nausea d. Widening pulse pressure ____ 6. What is the normal number for the Glasgow Coma Scale? a. 7 b. 9 c. 10 d. 15 ____ 7. Which diagnostic test is the best to diagnose a subdural hematoma? a. History b. Positron emission tomography c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) d. Computed tomography (CT) scan ____ 8. Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point? a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 50% ____ 9. Most adult poisonings are: a. Intentional and self-inflicted b. Accidental c. Caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person d. Not attributed to any reason ____ 10. Which method is used to remove heavy metals, such as lead, that are ingested as poisons? a. Chelation b. Dialysis c. Gastric lavage d. Bowel irrigation ____ 11. If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur? a. Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part. b. The area will be super sensitive. c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite. d. The area is as susceptible as any other area. ____ 12. What percentage of all visits to the emergency department (ED) are related to wounds? a. 5% b. 12% c. 18% d. 24% ____ 13. Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm? a. Dilute povidone-iodine solution b. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) c. Saline solution infused with an antibiotic d. Saline irrigation or soapy water ____ 14. Which type of burn injury results in destruction of the epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact? a. Superficial burns b. Superficial partial-thickness burns c. Deep partial-thickness burns d. Full-thickness burns ____ 15. Which carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) level correlates with the clinical symptoms of confusion, lethargy, and ST-segment depression on the electrocardiogram? a. Less than 10% b. 20% COHb c. 30% COHb d. 40% to 60% COHb ____ 16. Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites? a. Dogs b. Cats c. Humans d. Rodents ____ 17. Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and hemolytic toxins that may destroy tissue? a. Tick b. Brown recluse spider c. Wasp d. Stinging caterpillar ____ 18. Which of the following characteristics separates anaphylaxis from a vasovagal reaction? a. Bradycardia b. Extreme diaphoresis c. Severe bronchoconstriction d. Hypotension ____ 19. Delayed serum sickness–type reactions in response to multiple bee, wasp, or fire ant stings can be managed with which of the following? a. A corticosteroid such as prednisone (Deltasone), 60 to 100 mg, tapered over 2 weeks b. An oral antihistamine, such as hydroxyzine, for 2 weeks c. An H2 blocker such as cimetidine for 1 week d. 0.1 mg (1 mL of 1:10,000 solution epinephrine) in 10 mL of normal saline and administer as a slow intravenous push over 10 minutes ____ 20. After a head injury, what is it called when air enters into the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)–filled spaces within the head? a. Pneumocephalus b. Hemotympanum c. Battle’s sign d. Raccoon sign ____ 21. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) may leak through the cribriform plate region of the skull following a head injury and cause which of the following? a. Ear CSF otorrhea b. Leakage of CSF from the eye c. Nasal CSF rhinorrhea d. Leakage of CSF from the mouth ____ 22. Which classic feature of an epidural hematoma may distinguish it from other skull hematomas? a. Unilateral hemiparesis b. Loss of speech c. Temporary hearing loss d. A brief loss of consciousness, then a brief “lucid” moment, followed by momentary unconsciousness minutes after the injury ____ 23. A patient with a basilar skull fracture may experience an impaired downward gaze or diplopia from which affected cranial nerve? a. CN II b. CN III c. CN IV d. CN V ____ 24. A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or the twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury? a. A sprain b. A strain c. A partial fracture d. A fracture ____ 25. In a healthy adult, the process of remodeling after a fracture of the humerus takes how long? a. Approximately 4 weeks b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 4 months ____ 26. A patient who sustains blunt chest trauma and/or penetrating chest trauma must have which of the following imaging examinations? a. Upright chest x-ray film b. Supine chest x-ray c. Lateral chest x-ray d. MRI ____ 27. Josie, age 30, has a pneumothorax. It may be treated conservatively without a chest tube if it is deflated by what percentage? a. 30% b. 45% c. 60% d. All pneumothoraxes require a chest tube. ____ 28. Hepatic necrosis with jaundice may occur after ingesting massive doses of which medication? a. Phenobarbital b. Diazepam c. Ritalin d. Acetaminophen ____ 29. Pink, cherry red tissues and skin may result from which type of poisoning? a. Arsenic b. Lead c. Carbon monoxide d. Strychnine ____ 30. In which type of burn is the injury more extensive than it appears, and the cardiac conduction system may be affected, leading to sudden death or arrhythmias? a. Chemical burns b. Electrical burns c. Radiation burns d. Thermal burns ____ 31. Eddie, age 4, presents to the ED with a live insect trapped in his ear canal causing a lot of distress. What should be your first step? a. Remove the insect with tweezers. b. Immobilize the insect with 2% lidocaine. c. Sedate Eddie with diazepam. d. Shine a light in the ear for the insect to “find its way out.” ____ 32. When giving discharge instructions to a patient with a laceration injury to his lower leg, which is the most important one? a. Recommend isometric exercises to prevent a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). b. Recommend cleansing the wound every 4 hours to prevent an infection. c. Keep the leg elevated at waist level to prevent any edema. d. Keep the leg completely immobile to prevent extension of the laceration. ____ 33. Cerebellar function may be assessed by performing which examination/test? a. Gag reflex b. Pupillary response c. Romberg’s test d. Apley’s test ____ 34. In the epithelialization phase of wound healing, the wound will have only what percent of its normal tensile strength at 3 weeks? a. Less than 15% b. 15% to 20% c. 25% to 40% d. Greater than 50% ____ 35. Which of the following statements is true about antibiotic prophylaxis for most wounds? a. It is not indicated for most wounds and does not affect the infection rate. b. Antibiotics should always be ordered for a wound. c. Antibiotics need to be ordered for at least 2 weeks. d. Antibiotics should be ordered only if sutures are in place.