ACE Certification Exam. Top Questions with accurate answers. Questions Bank. 600QUESTIONS & ANSWERS. GRATED A+. Updated 2023

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ACE Certification Exam. Top Questions with accurate answers. Questions Bank. 600QUESTIONS & ANSWERS. GRATED A+. Updated 2023 1. The PRIMARY purpose of professional certifications is to_____. A.... Provide the professional with additional education to enhance his or her knowledge, skills, and abilities B. Enhance a professional's resume for employment and/or higher compensation C. Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competence D. Confirm a candidate's understand of key concepts following the completion of a bachelor's degree - ✔✔-C. 2. Which of the following is WITHIN the cope of practice for personal trainers? A. Counseling clients through life experiences that negatively impact program adherence B. Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design C. Evaluating client injuries while designing rehab exercise programs D. Recommending effective supplements for clients who skip meals - ✔✔-B. 3. Which of the following is OUTSIDE the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice? A. Developing exercise programs for clients who have type 2 diabetes and medical clearance for exercise B. Providing guidance/ motivation, and feedback to empower individuals to adhere to their exercise programs C. Implementing post-rehab exercise programs for clients following their physicians' recommendations D. Compiling details nutritional programming and specific meal planning recommended by their physician - ✔✔-D. 4. At what point does a candidate for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification (or any other ACE certification) agree to uphold the ACE Code of Ethics? A. While registering for an ACE certification exam B. Once the candidate earns his or her first ACE certification C. Upon receiving a printed copy of the ACE Code of Ethics with the printed ACE certification D. When accepting his or her first job as an ACE Certified Personal Trainer - ✔✔-A. 5. ACE Certified Personal Trainers must complete a minimum of 20 hours of continuing education every two years to maintain their certifications. The PRIMARY reason ACE has established this minimum continuing-education requirement is to help ACE Certified Personal Trainers _____. A. Earn promotions so they can advance their careers B. Increase their earning potential by adding new speciality certifications to their resumes C. Enhance their resumes to attract more clients D. Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health - ✔✔-D. 6. Which of the following is WITHIN the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice? A. Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices B. Providing clients with recipes and shopping lists for 4 weeks to get them on track with healthful eating C. Conducting 24-hour dietary recalls to help clients learn where they have micronutrient deficienceies D. Educating clients about resting metabolic rate and the need to consume fewer calories to lose weight - ✔✔-A. 7. A personal trainer who wanted to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore muscles can do so ONLY if _____. A. The personal trainer has extensive knowledge about the benefits of massage B. the client gives his or her consent for the massage C. The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist D. The massage therapist is not available and the personal trainer has some training - ✔✔- C. 8. What do most allied health certification programs, such as the credentials for registered dietitians, OTs, and nurse practitioners, have in common with certifications from the American Council on Exercise? A. They require a bachelor's degree as a minimum eligibility requirement B. They are accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies C. They share the same collective scope of practice in allied health D. They meet the competency-based exam requirement for licenser in most states - ✔✔-B. 9. Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding personal trainers recommending supplements to their clients? A. The personal trainer should only recommend those supplements covered under his or her professional liability insurance B. Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an RD or MD, he or she does not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements C. The personal trainer should become educated about the specific supplements before making any recommendations D. Due to potential complications from taking supplements with other medications, personal trainers should recommend only plant-based supplements - ✔✔-B. 10. ACE Certified Personal Trainers looking to advance their knowledge, skills, and abilities beyond their ACE Personal Trainer Certification would be BEST served by completing what type of continuing education? A. A second NCCA-accredited personal-trainer certification B. A workshop that focuses on how to incorporate supplementation into a nutrition plan C. An online person-training certification from an organization that is not NCCA-accredited D. An advanced fitness certification that is NCCA-accredited - ✔✔-D. 11. As a general rule, ACE recommends that candidates allow _____ of study time to adequately prepare for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification Exam. A. 1-2 months B. 3-4 months C. 5-6 months D. 7-8 months - ✔✔-B. 12. Most health benefits occur with at least _____ a week of moderate-intensity physical activity, such as brisk walking. Additional benefits occur with more physical activity. A. 75 minutes B. 150 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 180 minutes - ✔✔-B. 13. Which of the following accounts for the unique position that personal trainers hold in the allied healthcare continuum? A. They are able to provide detailed dietary planning to combat chronic illnesses B. They are at the top of the allied healthcare pyramid due to the extended time they spend with clients C. They are able to show clients how to exercise effectively while following physicians' general recommendations D. They are licensed professionals who can prescribe specific exercise programs - ✔✔-C. 14. What is the primary purpose of a fitness certification? A. Increase one's earning potential B. Protect the public from harm C. Prove mastery of the profession D. Provide hands-on experience - ✔✔-B. 15. Which of the following is NOT part of the definition of "scope of practice"? A. Guidelines or parameters that must be followed B. The legal range of services that professionals in a given field can provide C. The code of ethics that must be adhered to while in the workplace - ✔✔-C. 16. According to the general scope of practice for fitness professionals, personal trainers can rehab clients who are recovering from musculoskeletal injuries. True or False - ✔✔-False 17. Diagnosing the cause of a client's lordosis and prescribing an exercise program to treat it is within a personal trainer's scope of practice. True or False - ✔✔-False 18. To renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE-certified professionals must complete a minimum of _____ hours of continuing education and maintain a current certificate in _____ and, if living in North America, AED. A. 10; CPR B. 20; risk management C. 20; CPR - ✔✔-C. 19. What should a personal trainer do if a client insists on using dietary supplements despite the trainer's assurance that his or her fitness goals can be met without them? A. Refer the client to a registered dietitian or physician B. Refer the client to the health club's sales team C. Check that the facility's insurance policy covers the sale of these products D. Stop training the client until he or she agrees to stop using these products - ✔✔-A. 20. Which of the following is an appropriate response to a client who mentions being sore following a weekend tennis tournament? A. Discussing the proper technique for icing the affected areas B. Providing deep tissue massage to help relieve the soreness C. Recommending the use of over the counter anti inflammatory medications D. Recommending the use of a creatine supplement prior to his or her next tournament - ✔✔-A. 21. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of regular physical activity? A. Improved lipid profile B. Improved glucose control C. Decreased anxiety and depression D. Increased diastolic blood pressure - ✔✔-D. 22. At what stage of an exercise bout are phosphagen stores being replenished, remaining lactate being removed from the blood, and the metabolic rate decreasing? A. Immediately after the commencement of exercise B. After the cessation of exercise C. As the body approaches steady state D. During steady-state training - ✔✔-B. 23. Which of the following is an adaptation specifically seen with regular weight bearing exercise? A. Improved lean body mass B. Improved cardiac output efficiency C. Increase in bone density D. Increase in respiratory capacity - ✔✔-C. 24. The SA node, which is sometimes called the pacemaker of the heart, is located in which chamber of the heart? A. Left ventricle B. Right atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left atrium - ✔✔-B. 25. Which of the following is NOT a method the body uses to preserve blood volume during steadystate exercise? A. Increasing heart rate B. Releasing vasopressin and aldosterone C. Increasing vasoconstriction in non-working muscles D. Increasing stroke volume - ✔✔-D. 26. TRUE OR FALSE: Minute ventilation decreases after an exerciser crosses the second ventilatory threshold (VT2). - ✔✔-False 27. Which is the primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from chronic cardiorespiratory exercise? A. Decreased cardiac stress B. Reduced work environment for the heart C. Improved VO2max D. Enhanced O2 delivery to working muscles - ✔✔-D. 28. After completing 3 weeks of physical therapy, your client needs to continue improving the range of motion of his shoulder join. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client? A. Flexibility B. Body composition C. Muscular strength D. Cardiovascular endurance - ✔✔-A. 29. Your client has just signed up for her first half-marathon. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client? A. Cardiovascular endurace B. Muscular strength C. Muscular endurance D. Flexibility - ✔✔-A. 30. Your client is having hip replacement surgery in two months and she wants to be able to transfer herself in and out of her wheelchair. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client? A. Flexibility B. Body Composition C. Muscular strength D. Cardiovascular endurance - ✔✔-C. 31. Joseph is a 55-year-old CEO of a large company. He has a difficult time managing the stress of his job and is looking for a way to reduce this stress. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client? A. Muscular Strength B. Cardiovascular endurance C. Mind/body vitality D. Flexility - ✔✔-C. 32. Arlene has gained 65 pounds in the past two years as a result of poor nutritional choices. Her doctor has just informed her that she is prediabetic. Which fitness component would MOST likely need to be improved to help this client? A. Muscular endurance B. Body composition C. Flexibility D. Mind/body vitality - ✔✔-B. 33. TRUE OR FALSE: During exercise, there is an increase in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure. - ✔✔-False 34. TRUE OR FALSE: IF there is a decrease in parasympathetic activity, the heart rate will decrease. - ✔✔-False 35. TRUE OR FALSE: Receptors in the brain are the first to initiate changes in breathing. - ✔✔-True 36. TRUE OR FALSE: VT1 is known as the lactate threshold and coincides with the first time that lactate begins to accumulate in the blood. - ✔✔-True 37. TRUE OR FALSE: Exercise can decrease a diabetic's need for medications because it improves insulin sensitivity. - ✔✔-True 38. TRUE OR FALSE: If blood accumulates in the ventricles of the heart the cardiac fibers will stretch, which will lead to an increased amount of blood being ejected during the contraction. - ✔✔- True 39. What hormone dilates the respiratory passages and reduces digestive activity and bladder emptying during physical activity? A. Epinephrine B. Insulin C. Norepinephrine D. Cortisol - ✔✔-A. 40. Which slow-acting hormone stimulates the mobilization of free fatty acids from adipose tissue, mobilizes glucose synthesis in the liver, and decreases the rate of glucose utilization in the cells? A. Cortisol B. Growth hormone C. Insulin D. Glucagon - ✔✔-A. 41. Which mechanism of thermoregulation is the major contributor during exercise? A. Convection B. Evaporation C. Radiation D. Excretion - ✔✔-B. 42. During what phase of general adaptation syndrome will a client see progressive increases in muscle size and strength? A. Alarm phase B. Exhaustion phase C. Shock phase D. Adaptation phase - ✔✔-D. 43. Which hormone promotes triglyceride breakdown to aid in maintaining blood glucose? A. Norepinephrine B. Cortisol C. Vasopressin D. Estrogen - ✔✔-B. 44. Which of the four components of blood carries hormones, food materials, ions, and gases throughout the body? A. Red blood cells B. Plasma C. White blood cells D. Platelets - ✔✔-B. 45. When blood is flowing through the heart, where does it go after passing through the tricuspid valve? A. Right ventricle B. Left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Left atrium - ✔✔-A. 46. TRUE OR FALSE: The average person's breathing rate through the nose is equal to 20-30 liters per minute while at rest. - ✔✔-False 47. TRUE OR FALSE: Cardiac output is defined as the amount of blood pumped during each heart beat. - ✔✔-False 48. Francine practices hot yoga. The room is 103º F (39º C) and she is in class for 60 minutes. The release of _____ will help reduce the excretion of water in her urine, thereby helping prevent any further dehydration. A. Norepinephrine B. Insulin C. Growth Hormone D. Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin) - ✔✔-D. 49. Christopher is an endurance athlete. He often gets low blood sugar during his long workouts. Once the liver recognizes the release of glucagon from the pancreas, _____ is released to help increase his blood sugar levels. A. Glucose B. Carbohydrate C. Insulin D. Triglyceride - ✔✔-A. 50. During an endurance race, cortisol helps maintain blood glucose levels by promoting the breakdown of _____ and _____. A. Growth hormone; testosterone B. Epinephrine; norepinephrine C. Insulin; glucagon D. Protein; triglycerides - ✔✔-D. 51. The increase in heart rate prior to the state of a race is partially due to the release of what hormone? A. Epinephrine B. Estrogen C. Testosterone D. Norepinephrine - ✔✔-A. 52. TRUE OR FALSE: Gas is exchanged in microscopic air sacs known as bronchi? - ✔✔-False 53. TRUE OR FALSE: The diaphragm is the most important muscle of inspiration. - ✔✔-True 54. TRUE OR FALSE: During exercise, expiration is passive. - ✔✔-False 55. TRUE OR FALSE: Respiratory muscles adapt to training and thus can improve the duration and intensity of exercise. - ✔✔-True 56. TRUE OR FALSE: After air enters the nose and mouth, it is warmed and passed through the thorax. - ✔✔-False 57. What is the MOST important factor for an individual who is starting an exercise program? A. Strong support from family and friends B. Convenience of the exercise faciltiy C. Readiness to change behavior related to exercise D. Connecting with the personal trainer - ✔✔-C. 58. Which personal attribute is the MOST reliable predictor of an individual's participation in an exercise program? A. Weight B. Past exercise program participation C. Age D. Perceived time barriers - ✔✔-B. 59. What is the MOST common excuse used by people when dropping out of an exercise program? A. Limited access to the exercise facility B. Lack of support C. Being too old to participate in exercise D. Lack of time - ✔✔-D. 60. Which of the following strategies is BEST for personal trainers to implement to enhance the likelihood that a client will continue working with them? A. Designing the program so that the client can work out without having to think much about the exercises B. Motivating the client through extrinsic motivators to enhance self-efficacy C. Encouraging client ownership of the program to facilitate development of intrinsic motiation D. Creating an exercise coaching style based primarily on direction rather than education - ✔✔-C. 61. A person who is confident that he or she can successfully participate regularly in an exercise program MOST likely _____. A. Has high self-efficacy related to exercise B. Is in contemplation stage of behavioral change C. Has very strong self-esteem D. Is completely intrinsically motivated - ✔✔-A. 62. Which of the following goals is MOST likely to enhance program participation and attainment? A. Setting a series of progressively attainable short term goals B. Helping clients keep a primary goal of never missing a session C. Setting many goals to ensure some type of program success D. Setting only long term goals to develop adherence - ✔✔-A. 63. A strong social support network can provide an individual with all of the following EXCEPT _____. A. Improved program adherence B. Extrinsic motivation C. Relapse-prevention support D. Intrinsic motivation - ✔✔-D. 64. Which type of exercise program has a dropout rate almost twice the rate of a moderateintensity program? A. Small-group personal training B. Vigorous-intensity exercise program C. Home-based personal training D. Low-intensity exercise program - ✔✔-B. 65. Which of the following factors is MOST likely unrelated to adherence levels in supervised exercise settings? A. Education B. Age C. Income D. Gender - ✔✔-B. 66. After one year of regular personal-training sessions, your client wanted to try to continue on her own. During the following six months, you notice your client routinely exercising for one hour, four to five days of the week. Your client says that she "loves coming to the gym and feels great after her workouts." You can MOST likely contribute your client's success to which of the following? A. Extrinsic motivatoin B. Self-esteem C. Intrinsic motivation D. Self-efficacy - ✔✔-C. 67. Which of the following behaviors would MOST likely help a trainer develop rapport with a client during the initial session? A. Looking away from the client frequently to prevent staring; sitting with good posture and a slight forward lean B. Speaking in a soft, friendly voice; learning against the chair armrest with forearms loosely crossed C. Direct, friendly eye contact; maintaining a constant smile and enthusiasm throughout the session D. Speaking with confidence; using fluid hand gestures while speaking and quiet hands when listening - ✔✔-D. 68. During the investigation stage, which of the following statements BEST pertains to effective listening? A. Asking the client close-ended questions to encourage him or her to share relevant information B. Listening carefully to the client while reconstructing the information based on the listener's own beliefs C. Asking the client questions and responding to answers with encouraging words and further open-ended questions D. Recording detailed notes while the client is speaking - ✔✔-C. 69. A client you have been working with for several months tells you that a close relative recently became seriously ill. Which of the following responses is MOST appropriate? A. "I'm so sorry.I can't imagine how difficult that must be for you." B. "Have you considered counseling? Some of my clients have had great success with it." C. "I'm sorry! What happened?" D. "That is terrible! Tell me more about what is worrying you." - ✔✔-A. 70. Which of the following statements BEST demonstrates a SMART goal? A. "I will improve my cholesterol and blood pressure through better eating and exercise." B. "I will run 4 days per week, progressing my run time from 10-40 minutes for a 5K in 4 months." C. "I will lose 20lbs for my trip to Hawaii in 2 months by exercising seven days a week." D. "I will try a new group exercise class each week to avoid boredom." - ✔✔-B. 71. Which of the following is MOST effective in helping a client develop program adherence? A. Providing the client with frequent changes in the program to prevent bordem B. Having the client self-monitor by keeping an exercise journal C. Implementing a reward system for each training session D. Conducting fitness assessments every week to measure progress - ✔✔-B. 72. What is the MOST effective way to teach a new exercise to a client? A. Show the client how to do the exercise, then have the client perform the exercise while mirroring to provide an example of good form B. Tell the client what the exercise is, demonstrate the exercise, and have the client perform the exercise while providing feedback C. Use photos of the exercise while explaining it to the client, and then have the client perform the exercise while providing feedback D. Have the client perform the exercise while providing verbal instructions to coach him or her through it with proper form - ✔✔-B. 73. A client who is beginning to perform body-weight squats with fairly decent form is now ready for more specific feedback to help refine her squatting technique. Which of the following stages of learning is BEST represented in this scenario? A. Associative B. Cognitive C. Autonomous D. Independent - ✔✔-A. 74. During the initial client investigation stage, which of the following questions is LEAST important to ask? A. "Can you describe your previous experiences with physical activity?" B. "What forms of activity do you like and dislike?" C. "Why did you stop exercising in the past?" D. "What kind of learner are you?" - ✔✔-D. 75. A client mentions that he prefers tactile feedback and spotting while exercising. This strategy is MOST likely indicative of which learning style? A. Visual B. Associative C. Kinesthetic D. Cognitive - ✔✔-C. 76. Which of the following strategies is NOT a recommended method for practicing motivational interviewing with a client? A. Ask probing questions B. Build dependence between trainer and client C. Keep the conversation friendly. D. Encourage clients to generate ideas - ✔✔-B. 77. During the initial interview with a new client, a trainer learns the client's desire to exercise regularly was based on the results of a recent medical exam revealing prehypertension, and a family history of cardiovascular disease. Based on this information, the client's motivation to exercise is MOST likely associated with which of the following components of behavioral change? A. Decisional balance B. Perceived seriousness C. Operant conditioning D. Stimulus control - ✔✔-B. 78. On a plane, the gentleman sitting next to you asks a number of questions about exercise, nutrition, and health. He says that he does not currently exercise, but he has been thinking about joining a gym and asks you for recommendations. Based on this information, this gentleman is MOST likely in which of the following stages of behavioral change? A. Precontemplation B. Contemplation C. Preparation D. Action - ✔✔-B. 79. What is the MOST influential source of self-efficacy information related to exercise? A. Persuasive verbal feedback B. Emotional state and mood C. Past exercise performance D. Vicarious exercise experiences - ✔✔-C. 80. A new client tells you that she used to participate in local 10K and half-marathon running events before having twins. Although she had wanted to continue running she has not been active since her children were born two years ago. Now that they are in daycare 3x a week she has begun walking a bit and wants to begin running, with an eventual goal of completing her first marathon. Based on this information, your client MOST likely progressed through which of the following stages of behavioral change from pre-pregnancy to meeting with you today? A. Action, precontemplation, action B. Maintenance, contemplation, action C. Action, maintenance, preparation D. Maintenance, contemplation, preparation - ✔✔-D. 81. Which of the following strategies is the MOST effective cognitive behavioral technique that a personal trainer can implement to improve client exercise adherence? A. Revisiting client goals only during reassessments so they reflect greater progress B. Making primary decisions regarding each client's program so that he or she can focus on the exercises C. Helping clients move from primarily external feedback to primarily internal feedback D. Recording progress so clients can focus on the exercises without having to monitor their own progress - ✔✔-C. 82. According to the principle of operant conditioning, which of the following consequences would be BEST for a personal trainer to use to ensure that a desired client behavior will reoccur in the future? A. Punishment B. Positive reinforcement C. Extinction of a positive stimulus D. Negative reinforcement - ✔✔-B. 83. Which of the following precesses is the BEST example of using reinforcement to help a client progress from a quarter lung to performing a full lunge and then eventually adding resistance? A. Shaping B. Operant conditioning C. Antecedents D. Observational learning - ✔✔-A. 84. Which of the following processes is BEST exemplified by a client choosing a gym that is in the direct route between home and work? A. Operant conditioning B. Stimulus control C. Imaginal experience D. Shaping - ✔✔-B. 85. Which of the following self-monitoring strategies is MOST effective for improving client's longterm program adherence? A. Journaling thoughts, experiences, and emotions B. Video taping their exercises to see where they can improve C. Setting a reminder on their calendar to workout D. Analyzing the results of a heart rate monitor after every session - ✔✔-A. 86. Which of the following strategies would be MOST likely to enhance a client's willlpower? A. Making important behavior change decisions at the end of the day B. Setting many large goals to overhaul one's lifestyle C. Planning in advance for moments of weak self-control D. Starting a behavior-change plan while applying for new jobs and relocating - ✔✔-C. 87. TRUE OR FALSE: Adherence is defined as the psychological drive that gives behavior direction and purpose. - ✔✔-False 88. More than _____% of people who start a new program will drop out within the first 6 months. A. 50 B. 60 C. 25 D. 75 - ✔✔-A. 89. Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary categories of potential determinants for physical activity? A. Environmental factors B. Personal attributes C. Physical attributes D. Physical activity factors - ✔✔-C. 90. General trends reveal that members of which of the following populations are MOST LIKELY to be performing higher levels of physical activity in unsupervised settings? A. Those in a lower socioeconomic bracket B. Those in fewer years of education C. Men D. Older adults - ✔✔-C. 91. What is arguably the most important and influential personal attribute variable when predicting adherence to physical activity? A. Activity history B. Cardiovascular disease status C. Obesity level D. Social support network - ✔✔-A. 92. ______ is the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise program. A. Lack of improvement B. Lack of social support C. Lack of access to facilities D. Perceived lack of time - ✔✔-D. 93. Which of the following individuals is MOST LIKELY to adhere to a supervised physical-activity program? A. A highly motivated beginner who elects to begin a vigorous-intensity exercise program B. An obese man who is motivated by a fear of adverse health conditions that are common in his family C. An individual who perceives his health to be poor and has been encouraged by his Dr. to exercise D. a middle-aged man who has prehypertension but believes he has personal control over his health - ✔✔-D. 94. Which of the following terms is defined as the belief in one's own capabilities to successfully engage in a behavior? A. Extrinsic motivation B. Self-efficacy C. Locus of control D. Intrinsic motivation - ✔✔-B. 95. When developing SMART goals, which of the following type of goals should be AVOIDED? A. Performance goals B. Long-term goals C. Negative goals D. Outcome goals - ✔✔-C. 96. What is the most important when dealing with a client who is at risk for relapse? A. Planning ahead and being prepared B. Enhancing the client's assertiveness C. Developing a system of social support D. Signing behavioral contracts - ✔✔-A. 97. Which of the following presents the four stages of the client-trainer relationship in their proper order? A. Planning, rapport, investigation, action B. Rapport, planning, investigation, action C. Investigation planning, action, rapport D. Rapport, investigation, planning, action - ✔✔-D. 98. TRUE OR FALSE: A loud, tense voice communicates confidence and professionalism when speaking to a new client. - ✔✔-False 99. Which of the following body positions may be interpreted by a client as aggressiveness on the part of the trainer? A. Standing with hands on hips B. Seated while leaning slightly forward C. Seated behind a desk with legs crossed D. Standing with an open body position - ✔✔-A. 100. Approximately what percent of the U [Show More]

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