RMA STUDY GUIDE, Questions and answers, 100% Accurate. Verified.

RMA STUDY GUIDE, Questions and answers, 100% Accurate. Verified. Which of the following are emergency situations that require first priority assessments? A. Airway and breathing problems, back injuries, head injuries ...

RMA STUDY GUIDE, Questions and answers, 100% Accurate. Verified. Which of the following are emergency situations that require first priority assessments? A. Airway and breathing problems, back injuries, head injuries B. Poisoning, airway and breathing problems, head injuries C. Fractures, head injuries, poisoning D. Back injuries, head injuries, poisoning E. Head injuries, fractures, poisoning - ✔✔-B. Poisoning, airway and breathing problems, head injuries. What is the first and most critical step in responding to an emergency in an ambulatory care emergency situation? A. Give first aid B. Notify the provider C. Evaluate causes D. Recognize when emergency measures should be taken - ✔✔-D. Recognize when emergency measures should be taken Which of the following statements pertaining to Good Samaritan laws is false? A. They provide legal protection to emergency care providers B. Providers must act in a reasonable and prudent manner C. No matter what level of training, providers must do everything for the patient D. The conditions of the law vary in each state - ✔✔-C. No matter what level of training, providers must do everything for the patient What is the main purpose of the crash cart in the ambulatory care setting? A. Office medications are kept together B. All emergency supplies are together and available C. It is tailored to practice needs D. None of the above - ✔✔-B. All emergency supplies are together and available Which statement is false regarding shock? A. There is inadequate circulation to body parts B. Area around the lips, eyes, and fingernails may turn cyanotic C. Blood pressure increases D. Pulse becomes rapid and weak - ✔✔-C. Blood pressure increases Which of the following body areas would be more suited to a spiral bandage for wounds or injuries? A. Arms or legs B. Wrist or knee C. Neck and shoulder D. Hands, fingers, or toes - ✔✔-A. Arms or legs Which of the following statements is false regarding burns? A. First-degree burns usually heal within a month, and some scarring may occur B. A second-degree burn involves the epidermis and dermis C. Blisters form with second-degree burns D. Third-degree burns affect or destroy all layers of the skin - ✔✔-A. First-degree burns usually heal within a month, and some scarring may occur Which of the following is the most appropriate response when caring for burns? A. Apply ice water B. Clean burned area carefully if burn is severe C. Cover with a sterile dressing D. Remove any clothing that may be sticking to the burn immediately - ✔✔-C. Cover with a sterile dressing Which of the following types of burns should be seen by the provider? A. All burns involving the very young or the elderly B. A burn involving an area larger that a child's hand C. Any burns on face, hands, feet, or genitals D. All of the above - ✔✔-D. All of the above Which of the following is not an important assessment when caring for injuries to the musculoskeletal system? A. Note the extent of swelling and bruising B. Note deformity and pain C. Note use of extremity D. Note blood pressure - ✔✔-D. Note blood pressure Which of the following is most applicable for symptoms of shivering, cool skin, listlessness, confusion, and slowed pulse and respirations? A. Hypothermia B. Local cooling C. Frostbite D. Heat stroke - ✔✔-A. Hypothermia Which of the following is not a characteristic of heat exhaustion? A. Cold, clammy skin B. Pulse full, strong, and bounding C. Profuse sweating D. Headache E. General weakness - ✔✔-B. Pulse full, strong, and bounding Which of the following is most applicable for skin that becomes off color, waxy, and numb? A. Stroke B. Heatstroke C. Heat exhaustion D. Sunburn E. Frostbite - ✔✔-E. Frostbite Which of the following types of poisoning is common with drug abuse? A. Ingestion B. Inhalation C. Absorption D. Injection - ✔✔-D. Injection Which of the following is most appropriate when dealing with poisonings? A. Tell the patient to take ipecac B. Give them something to eat or drink C. Identify the name and amount of poison taken D. Ask whether patient is conscious - ✔✔-C. Identify the name and amount of poison taken Which of the following types of shock might occur if a person who has a hypersensitivity to a sting is not seen immediately? A. Respiratory B. Cardiogenic C. Anaphylactic D. Metabolic - ✔✔-C. Anaphylactic Syncope - ✔✔-Fainting Which of the following is not an appropriate response when caring for a person who is having a seizure? A. Remove objects from the surrounding area to prevent injury B. Hold patient in position and restrain from convulsing C. Do not force anything between teeth D. Cushion the patient's head E. Roll the patient's head to the side in case there are any fluids in the mouth - ✔✔-B. Hold the patient in position and restrain from convulsing Which of the following is a condition that occurs as a result of an inability of the body to properly convert sugar from food into energy? A. Insulin shock B. Hypoglycemia C. Diabetes D. Acidosis - ✔✔-C. Diabetes Which of the following is the condition that occurs as a result of an excess of insulin and an insufficient amount of sugar circulating through the bloodstream? A. Insulin shock B. Hyperglycemia C. Diabetes D. Acidosis - ✔✔-A. Insulin shock Which of the following would be the most appropriate assessment for symptoms of exaggerated, air hungry respirations and "fruity acetone breath"? A. Insulin shock B. Hypoglycemia C. Diabetes D. Acidosis - ✔✔-D. Acidosis Which statement is a true statement regarding bleeding? A. Bright red, spurting blood indicates venous bleeding B. Dark red blood indicates arterial bleeding C. Venous bleeding is more serious D. Serious loss of blood and profound irreversible shock can happen quickly E. Tourniquet application is always necessary - ✔✔-D. Serious loss of blood and profound irreversible shock can happen quickly A patient stumbles through the door just as the office opens, and the provider is not in. He says he experienced a sharp blow to the stomach, is holding his abdomen, and then pitches forward and falls on the floor in the waiting room. As you go to the patient, you see he is not responding but has a rapid and weak pulse as shallow bleeding. What is the next thing you do? A. Take vital signs B. Try to revive the patient to see what happened C. Do a quick exam to see whether there are injuries D. Have a staff member call EMS E. Call the provider on his/her cell phone - ✔✔-C. Do a quick exam to see whether there are injuries A patient calls and states her husband is having some loss of vision, confusion, slurred speech, and nausea. Which of the following might be the possible assessment? A. Seizure B. Heat attack C. Stroke D. Epistaxis - ✔✔-C. Stroke Which of the following is the most appropriate assessment for the symptoms of cold and clammy skin, profuse perspiration, pain radiating into the left shoulder or the jaw, and nausea? A. Epileptic seizure B. Heart attack C. Diabetes D. Stroke - ✔✔-B. Heart attack CPR plus defibrillation (AED) can boost survival if it is begun within how many minutes of collapse? A. 1-2 minutes B. 5-10 minutes C. 35 minutes D. 3-5 minutes - ✔✔-D. 3-5 minutes A few of the common signs and symptoms of a snake bite include which of the following? A. Thirst and diarrhea B. Rapid pulse, nausea, and vomiting C. Weak pulse, nausea, and vomiting D. Thirst and dehydration - ✔✔-B. Rapid pulse, nausea, and vomiting Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the medical assistant if a patient feels faint in the examining room? A. Administer smelling salts B. Lay the patient down or have the patient sit with his/her head down, level with the knees C. Return the patient to the chair D. Sit the patient up and administer oxygen E. Get the provider immediately - ✔✔-B. Lay the patient down or have the patient sit with his/her head down, level with the knees If an adult has burns to the front torso and front of the right arm, what percent of the body surface area is involved? A. 22.5% B. 40.5% C. 27% D. 36% - ✔✔-A. 22.5% In which of the following accredited programs must medical assistants be certified to a provider level in CPR and taught by instructors who are certified to teach CPR? A. CAAHEP and ABHES B. AAMA C. AMA D. none of the above - ✔✔-A. CAAHEP and ABHES Which of the following is most appropriate of the medical assistant in responding to an emergency situation? A. Act when transportation is available B. Act quickly and assess the nature of the situation C. Acts after the provider tells you to do so D. Act only in emergency situations in the medical office - ✔✔-B. Act quickly and assess the nature of the situation John, a patient in the clinic, comes in with a jagged 3 in. open laceration on his hand, which he calmly shows to you. What is your first priority for care? A. Establish the need for sutures B. Take the patient history C. Minimize risk of infection D. Give the tetanus injection E. Calm the patient - ✔✔-C. Minimize the risk of infection In the medical office, a cardiac patient, accompanied by his wife, complains to you of chest pain. In assessing the patient, what would you do first? A. Tell the patient to stay calm B. Obtain information about the symptoms being experienced C. Immediately take the patient to the provider D. Bring the patient and his wife back to the provider - ✔✔-B. Obtain information about the symptoms being experienced Which of the following advise is appropriate for patient education for a patient who has a severe or lifethreatening illness or allergy? A. Tell everyone you know B. Wear an emergency bracelet C. Carry the universal medical identification symbol and it's accompanying identification card D. Try not to go out alone - ✔✔-C. Carry the universal medical identification symbol and it's accompanying card Which of the following is NOT the medical assistant's role in phlebotomy? A. Collect blood as efficiently as possible B. Provide high-quality care to patients C. Perform blood testing using automated equipment only D. Performs tasks that are critical to patient's diagnosis - ✔✔-C. Perform blood testing using automated equipment only Which of the following is the primary factory for the production of blood cells? A. Lymph nodes B. Thymus C. Bone marrow D. Spleen - ✔✔-C. Bone marrow Which of the following is not a function of the blood? A. Assist in food metabolism B. Transport oxygen to tissues C. Transport waste products to organs for elimination D. Transport nutrients to all parts of the body - ✔✔-A. Assist in food metabolism How many liters of blood does the body contain? A. 3 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10 - ✔✔-B. 6 What happens during the clotting process of blood? A. Buffy coat is formed B. Formation of plasma C. Converts fibrinogen to fibrin D. Plasma degradation - ✔✔-C. Converts fibrinogen to fibrin Which of the following blood cells is responsible for the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide? A. Erythrocytes B. Leukocytes C. Thrombocytes D. Lymphocytes - ✔✔-A. Erythrocytes The plasma and red blood cells are separated by what when using anti-coagulated tubes? A. Serum B. Fibrinogen C. Buffy coat D. Platelets - ✔✔-C. Buffy coat Which of the following best describes why OSHA requires safety needles be made available to employees? A. Eliminates the need for biohazard waste containers B. Can only be used with specific guidelines C. Prevent on-the-job needle sticks D. Protects patients completely from accidental sticks - ✔✔-C. Prevent on-the-job needle stick injuries When a blood sample cannot be obtained, which of the following should be done? A. Advance the needle slightly B. Withdraw the needle slightly C. Try another tube D. All the above - ✔✔-D. All the above Which of the following is the appropriate action when palpating for a vein in the upper arm? A. Place the patient's arm in an upward position B. Always select a rolling vein C. Palate the vein with your thumb D. Palpate the vein with the tip of your index finger - ✔✔-D. Palpate the vein with the tip of your index finger Which of the following best describes what additives are used for? A. As an anticoagulant to prevent clotting B. A chemical to help preserve blood C. A substance to accelerate the clotting process D. All of the above - ✔✔-D. All of the above Which of the following beat describes how a tube with anticoagulants is identified? A. Size of tube B. Tube stopper C. Test name on label D. Laboratory use - ✔✔-B. Tube stopper Which of the following best describes an advantage of a soft rubber tourniquet? A. Inexpensive enough to replace often B. Hard and plastic C. Cannot be cleaned easily D. Expensive but long lasting - ✔✔-A. Inexpensive enough to replace often When a blood pressure cuff is used as a tourniquet, the cuff should be maintained at what pressure? A. Slightly below the systolic pressure B. Slightly above the systolic pressure C. Slightly above the diastolic pressure D. Slightly below the diastolic pressure - ✔✔-D. Slightly below the diastolic pressure Which of the following is the most appropriate action when using a phlebotomy tray? A. Use to transport blood specimens only B. Label with an approves biohazard symbol C. Keep covered with a sterile cover D. Keep away from patient exam rooms - ✔✔-B. Label with an approved biohazard symbol Which of the following is the first step in performing a successful venipuncture? A. Position the patient in a sitting position B. Use non-sterile disposable gloves C. Clean the site with alcohol prep pad D. Put the patient at ease - ✔✔-D. Put the patient at ease Which of the following is not included in the necessary information written on the specimen tube label? A. Complete name of patient B. Address of patient C. Date and time of specimen draw D. Patient identification number - ✔✔-B. Address of patient Which of the following is the recommended order for checking the best available vein site? A. Ankle/foot; back of wrist; back of hand; antecubital region of the arm B. Antecubital region of the arm; back of hand; back of wrist; ankle/foot C. Antecubital region of the arm; back of wrist; back of hand; ankle/foot D. Ankle/foot; back of hand; back of wrist; antecubital region of the arm - ✔✔-B. Antecubital region of the arm; back of hand; back of wrist; ankle/foot Which of the following best describes the correct application of a tourniquet? A. Apply 3-4 inches below the puncture site B. Leave on the arm no longer than 3 minutes C. Apply 3-4 inches above the puncture site D. Apply to the upper arm at the level of the deltoid - ✔✔-C. Apply 3-4 inches above the puncture site What is the gauge of needles most commonly used in venipuncture? A. 20, 21, & 16 B. 18, 20, & 21 C. 20, 21, & 22 D. 21, 22, & 23 - ✔✔-C. 20, 21, & 22 Which of the following best describes when a syringe is most often used for venipuncture? A. When large blood samples are needed B. When collecting small amounts of blood from fragile veins C. When a patient has a good vein in the antecubital area D. When multiple tubes are needed - ✔✔-B. When collecting small amounts of blood from fragile veins Which of the following is a combination system and can be used with the syringe or the vacuum tube? A. Capillary puncture system B. Butterfly collection system C. Hematology system D. Blood culture system - ✔✔-B. Butterfly collection system Which using the after plastic vacuum tubes, which of the following is the correct order of draw? A. Cultures, blue top (citrate), red top and/or SST B. Blue top (citrate), red top and/or SST, cultures C. Cultures, red top and/or SST, blue top (citrate) - ✔✔-A. Cultures, blue top (citrate), red top and/or SST Which of the following is not a quality assurance control? A. Each specimen must have its own label attached to the specimen's primary container B. Specimen much be in correct anticoagulant C. Patient label must have complete information D. Specimens are in syringes with a needle still attached - ✔✔-D. Specimens are in syringes with a needle still attached Which of the following is not a factor that can affect laboratory values? A. Fasting B. Heparin C. Tourniquet on 1 minute or less D. Exercise - ✔✔-C. Tourniquet on 1 minute or less Which of the following is in a mixture of blood obtained from capillary puncture specimens? A. Blood from arterioles B. Blood from venules C. Interstitial fluid D. All of the above - ✔✔-D. All of the above Which of the following is the usual site for capillary puncture in adults? A. Fingertip B. Earlobe C. Heel D. Toe - ✔✔-A. Fingertip Which of the following is the usual site for capillary puncture in infants? A. Fingertip B. Earlobe C. Heel D. Toe - ✔✔-C. Heel Which of the following best describes the cause of hemolysis? A. Inverting evacuation tubes gently B. Using a needle that is too short C. Separating serum at the wrong time D. Puncturing the skin before allowing the alcohol to dry completely - ✔✔-D. Puncturing the skin before allowing the alcohol to dry completely Which of the following is not an appropriate action when collecting a capillary blood sample? A. Avoid squeezing the fingertip B. Use the first drop of blood C. Use capillary tubes for collecting D. Massage the finger gently - ✔✔-B. Use the first drop of blood Place the steps of blood clotting in correct sequence. 1. Calcium utilized 2. Clot forms 3. Uncoagulated blood 4. Fibrinogen converts to fibrin 5. Prothrombin converts to thrombin A. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2 B. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 C. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 D. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 - ✔✔-A. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2 Which of the following is the most appropriate next step when a medical assistant attempts a venipuncture on an adult patient and cannot obtain a sample, and second medical assistant is also unsuccessful? A. Explain the problem to the the patient and try the other arm B. Get another medical assistant to attempt a draw C. Inform the physician of unsuccessful attempts D. Schedule the patient to come back the next day - ✔✔-C. Inform the physician of unsuccessful attempts Pressure on the site must be held longer than 2-3 minutes after a venipuncture is performed, if the patient is taking which of the following? A. Coumadin B. Aspirin C. Ginkgo biloba D. All of the above - ✔✔-D. All of the above When performing a venipuncture, which vein is used majority of the time? A. Basilic B. Median cubital C. Cephalic D. Radial - ✔✔-B. Median cubital Which of the following is not one of the arteries of the arm? A. Radial B. Brachial C. Femoral D. Ulnar - ✔✔-C. Femoral Which of the following method(s) is used to perform a venipuncture? A. Syringe method B. Vacuum tube method C. Butterfly method D. All of the above E. None of the above - ✔✔-D. All of the above Pregnancy testing is based upon the detection of which hormone? A. FSH B. LH C. hCG D. TEH - ✔✔-C. hCG What is the preferred urine sample for pregnancy testing? A. Random sample B. First-voided morning sample C. 24-hour sample D. Catheterized specimen - ✔✔-B. First-voided morning sample When the agglutination inhibition test is used for pregnancy, which of the following is true about reading the results? A. No agglutination = - B. Agglutination = + C. No agglutination = + D. None of the above - ✔✔-C. No agglutination = + How is the Epstein-Barr virus causing infectious mononucleosis primarily transmitted? A. Saliva B. Injection C. Aspiration D. Vector - ✔✔-A. Saliva What is the age group in which symptoms of IM are most often observed? A. 10-15 B. 12-20 C. 15-25 D. 15-40 - ✔✔-C. 15-25 Which of the following is true when performing the hCG pregnancy test? A. Use one reagent B. Apply urine after putting reagent on the test unit C. Use 2 drops of reagent D. Use a stopwatch to time the test - ✔✔-D. Use a stopwatch to time the test Which of the following is not included in the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis? A. Hematology tests B. Serology tests C. Patient symptoms D. Chemistry tests - ✔✔-D. Chemistry tests A small sample of which of the following specimens is required for CLIA Waived IM test? A. Serum B. Capillary blood C. Plasma D. All of the above - ✔✔-D. All of the above Which of the following does not refer to Prothrombin time? A. INR B. Protime C. PT D. PTT - ✔✔-D. PTT What is themselves of RBC agglutination called? A. Antigen reaction B. Antibody reaction C. Hemagglutination D. Blood typing - ✔✔-C. Hemagglutination Which of the following blood types is the universal donor? A. O B. A C. B D. AB - ✔✔-A. O During which week of pregnancy is the RhoGam injection administered and within 72 hours after delivery of an Rh-positive baby, miscarriage, or termination of pregnancy? A. 24th B. 26th C. 30th D. 28th - ✔✔-D. 28th When is semen analysis not performed? A. Complete PE B. Evaluate vasectomy effectiveness C. Determine paternity D. Substantiate rape cases - ✔✔-A. Complete PE Which of the following can affect the results of semen analysis, by a decrease in the volume of semen? A. Age B. Intelligence C. Marital status D. Smoking - ✔✔-D. Smoking Which of the following does not affect sperm function as measured by sperm analysis? A. Cytoxan B. Orchitis C. Testicular atrophy D. Alcohol - ✔✔-D. Alcohol Why is a phenylalanine-restricted diet important? A. It will cure the underlying condition B. It will prevent the need for special dieting C. It will prevent mental retardation D. It is a high protein diet - ✔✔-C. It will prevent mental retardation Which of the following is not a factor that may influence the Guthrie test? A. Ingesting insufficient phenylalanines B. Prematurity C. Breast feeding mother taking aspirin D. Testing after 3-4 hours of the beginning of a milk diet - ✔✔-D. Testing after 3-4 hours of the beginning of a milk diet Which of the following is an incorrect step in obtaining a blood sample for PKU testing? A. Make a puncture approximately 2-3 mm deep in the lateral heel B. Soak blood completely through the paper C. Use as many blood drops as necessary to fill each circle D. Allow PKU test card to completely dry - ✔✔-C. Use as many blood drops as necessary to fill each circle Which of the following is true regarding tuberculosis? A. Caused by mycobacterium avium B. Is a very motile bacterium C. Is on the decrease in the USA D. Has a high content of lipids in the cell wall - ✔✔-D. Has a high content of lipids in the cell wall Which of the following tests is not used in the screening for and diagnosis of tuberculosis? A. Tine B. Mantoux C. Chest x-ray D. BCG - ✔✔-D. BCG Which of the following is important while injecting the PPD to administer the mantoux test? A. Locate a site approximately 6-8 inches from the antecubital space B. Administer subcutaneously C. Inject 0.2 mL of PPD D. Make sure a wheel forms at the injection site - ✔✔-... After excess glucose is converted into glycogen, where is it stored long term? A. Bloodstream B. Liver C. Adipose tissues D. Muscle cells - ✔✔-C. Adipose tissues Which of the following is true regarding a 7-mm reaction to the Mantoux test? A. Positive B. Doubtful C. Negative - ✔✔-B. Doubtful Insulin is secreted by pancreatic cells in response to ____ glucose levels, and glycogen is secreted in response to ____ glucose levels. A. Increased, decreased B. Increased, increased C. Decreased, increased D. Decreased, decreased - ✔✔-A. Increased, decreased Which of the following drugs will not affect fasting blood sugars? A. Diuretics B. Steroids C. Oral contraceptives D. Antibiotics - ✔✔-D. Antibiotics What is the reference range for normal serum values for a fasting blood sugar? A. 110-170 mg/dL B. 70-110 mg/dL C. 50-90 mg/dL D. 100-150 mg/dL - ✔✔-B. 70-110 mg/dL Which of the following is an indication for notifying the physician and stopping the glucose tolerance test? A. Hypoglycemia B. Patient develops nausea C. Extreme hyperglycemia on the fasting specimen D. Patient develops weakness, faintness, or perspiration - ✔✔-C. Extreme hyperglycemia on the fasting specimen What does an elevated finding of glycosylated hemoglobin indicate? A. Excessive glucose intake over the last 24 hours B. Poor glucose control C. Not enough oxygen in the hemoglob