Applied Science > QUESTIONS & ANSWERS > CCS Exam Prep Medical Science, Questions with accurate answers, 100% Accurate, rated A+ (All)
CCS Exam Prep Medical Science, Questions with accurate answers, 100% Accurate, rated A+ D - ✔✔-1. The prevention of illness through vaccination occurs due to the formation of A. helper B cell... s. C. mast cells. B. immunosurveillance. D. memory cells. B - ✔✔-2. Many bacterial diseases are transmitted directly from person to person. Which of the diseases listed next is a bacterial disease transmitted by way of a tick vector? A. Legionnaires' disease C. tetanus B. Lyme disease D. tuberculosis A - ✔✔-3. All of the following are examples of direct transmission of a disease EXCEPT A. contaminated foods. C. droplet spread. B. coughing or sneezing. D. physical contact. C - ✔✔-4. The most common rickettsial disease in the United States is A. hantavirus. C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. B. Lyme disease. D. syphilis. C - ✔✔-The most common bloodborne infection in the United States is A. Helicobacter pylori. C. hepatitis C. B. hepatitis A. D. hemophilia. B - ✔✔-6. The causative organism for severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a A. bacterium. C. fungus. B. coronavirus. D. retrovirus. C - ✔✔-7. The childhood viral disease that unvaccinated pregnant women should be prevented from contracting because it may be passed to the fetus, thus causing congenital anomalies such as mental retardation, blindness, and deafness, is A. rickets. C. rubella. B. rubeola. D. tetanus. A - ✔✔-9. Ingrid Anderson presents with a skin infection that began as a raised, itchy bump, resembling an insect bite. Within 1 to 2 days, it developed into a vesicle. Now it is a painless ulcer, about 2 cm in diameter, with a black necrotic area in the center. During the history, her doctor learns that she has recently returned from an overseas vacation and becomes concerned that she may have become infected with anthrax. He will prescribe an A. antibiotic. C. antiparasitic. B. antineoplastic. D. antiviral. D - ✔✔-8. United States health care providers are concerned about a possible pandemic of avian flu because A. there is no vaccine currently available. B. it is caused by a group of viruses that mutate very easily. C. the causative virus is being spread around the world by migratory birds. D. All answers apply. C - ✔✔-10. The organism transmitted by a mosquito bite that causes malaria is a A. bacteria. C. protozoa. B. prion. D. virus. A - ✔✔-11. A pharyngeal culture is taken from a 13-year-old male patient presenting to the ER with fever, painful cervical lymph nodes, purulent tonsillar exudate, and difficulty swallowing. A blood agar culture plate shows complete hemolysis around Streptococcus pyogenes bacterial colonies. The patient is given a prescription for erythromycin. The diagnosis in this case is A. a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection. B. a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus skin infection. C. tuberculosis with drug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis-positive sputum. D. meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis-positive cerebrospinal fluid D - ✔✔-12. A 19-year-old college student, who lives on campus in a dormitory, is brought to the ER by his roommates, complaining of a severe headache, nuchal rigidity, fever, and photophobia. The ER physician performs an LP and orders a CSF analysis with a bacterial culture and sensitivity. The young man is admitted to the ICU with a provisional diagnosis of A. a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection. B. a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus skin infection. C. tuberculosis with drug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis-positive sputum. D. meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidispositive cerebrospinal fluid. D - ✔✔-13. There has been a significant increase in the number of cases and deaths from pertussis. Health care professionals attribute this disease trend to which of the following? A. A decrease in the number of people immunized with TDaP B. An increase in the virulence of the bacteria C. Drug-resistant strains of the bacteria D. All answers apply. D - ✔✔-14. A new strain of influenza, H1N1, is a highly virulent strain that spread all over the world. This type of epidemiological disease pattern is referred to as a(n) A. cluster. B. outbreak. C. epidemic. D. pandemic. A - ✔✔-15. Dr. Zambrano ordered a CEA test for Mr. Logan, a 67-year-old African American male patient. Dr. Zambrano may be considering a diagnosis of A. cancer. C. cardiomyopathy. B. carpal tunnel syndrome. D. congestive heart failure. B - ✔✔-6. Which disease is a malignancy of the lymphatic system? A. cystic fibrosis C. neutropenia B. Hodgkin's disease D. Von Willebrand's disease B - ✔✔-17. ____________ is the most common type of skin cancer and _________ is the most deadly type of skin cancer. A. Malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinoma B. Basal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma C. Oat cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma D. Squamous cell carcinoma, oat cell carcinoma B - ✔✔-18. Cancer derived from epithelial tissue is classified as a(n) A. adenoma. C. lipoma. B. carcinoma. D. sarcoma. C - ✔✔-19. The most fatal type of lung cancer is A. adenocarcinoma. C. small cell cancer. B. large cell cancer. D. squamous cell cancer. A - ✔✔-20. A pathological diagnosis of transitional cell carcinoma is made. The examined tissue was removed from the A. bladder. C. oral cavity. B. esophagus. D. pleura. A - ✔✔-21. The patient's pathology report revealed the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. This is indicative of A. Hodgkin's disease. C. non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. B. leukemia. D. sarcoma. A - ✔✔-22. Which of the following BEST summarizes the current treatment of cervical cancer? A. A new three-shot vaccination series protects against the types of HPV that cause most cervical cancer cases. B. All stages have extremely high cure rates. C. Early detection and treatment of cervical cancer does not improve patient survival rates. D. Over 99% of cases are linked to long-term HPV infections. A - ✔✔-23. A 63-year-old patient with terminal pancreatic cancer has started palliative chemotherapy. Palliative means A. alleviating or eliminating distressing symptoms of the disease. B. increasing the immune response to fight infections. C. quick destruction of cancerous cells. D. the combining of several medications to cure the cancer B - ✔✔-24. Mary Smith, a 48-year-old patient, is receiving an IV mixture of four different medications to treat stage 2 invasive ductal breast carcinoma. Each of the medications acts upon a different aspect of the cancer cells. This mixture is typically termed a(n) A. amalgamation. B. cocktail. C. blend. D. mash-up. C - ✔✔-25. Mary Mulholland has diabetes. Her physician has told her about some factors that put her more at risk for infections. Which of the following factors would probably NOT be applicable? A. hypoxia C. increased blood supply B. increased glucose in body fluids D. both hypoxia and increased blood supply D - ✔✔-26. Which of the organs listed below has endocrine and exocrine functions? A. kidney C. lung B. liver D. pancreas D - ✔✔-27. Which of the following is an effect of insulin? A. decreases glycogen concentration in liver B. increases blood glucose C. increases the breakdown of fats D. increases glucose metabolism A - ✔✔-28. Diabetic microvascular disease occurs A. as a direct result of elevated serum glucose. B. as a result of elevated fat in blood. C. due to damage to nerve cells. D. only in patients with type 1 diabetes. B - ✔✔-29. Old age, obesity, and a family history of diabetes are all characteristics of A. type 1 diabetes. C. juvenile diabetes. B. type 2 diabetes. D. IDDM. C - ✔✔-30. Clinical manifestations of this disease include polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, weight loss, and hyperglycemia. Which of the following tests would be ordered to confirm the disease? A. fasting blood sugar C. glucose tolerance test B. glucagon D. postprandial blood sugar A - ✔✔-31. Which of the following is characteristic of Graves' disease? A. It is an autoimmune disease. C. It usually cannot be treated. B. It most commonly affects males. D. It usually affects the elderly. D - ✔✔-32. A toxic goiter has what distinguishing characteristic? A. iodine deficiency C. presence of muscle spasm B. parathyroid involvement D. thyroid hyperfunction D - ✔✔-33. How can Graves' disease be treated? A. antithyroid drugs C. surgery B. radioactive iodine therapy D. All answers apply. B - ✔✔-34. The etiology of aplastic anemia is A. acute blood loss. C. chronic blood loss. B. bone marrow failure. D. inadequate iron intake. C - ✔✔-35. A 75-year-old patient has a sore tongue with tingling and numbness of the hands and feet. She has headaches and is fatigued. Following diagnostic workup, the doctor orders monthly injections of vitamin B12. This patient most likely has which of the following conditions? A. aplastic anemia C. pernicious anemia B. autoimmune hemolytic anemia D. sickle cell anemia D - ✔✔-36. Which one of the following is NOT a pathophysiological factor in anemia? A. excessive RBC breakdown C. loss of bone marrow function B. lack of RBC maturation D. loss of spleen function D - ✔✔-37. In systemic circulation, which of the following vessels carries oxygenated blood? A. right vena cava B. renal arteries C. pulmonary veins D. left ventricle A - ✔✔-38. O2 is carried in the blood A. bound to hemoglobin. C. plasma. B. in the form of carbonic acid. D. serum. C - ✔✔-39. In general, excessive RBC breakdown could result in A. Crohn's disease. C. high bilirubin levels. B. elevated BUN. D. peptic ulcers. C - ✔✔-40. In ______________ anemia, the red blood cells become shaped like elongated crescents in the presence of low oxygen concentration. A. aplastic C. sickle cell B. folic acid D. vitamin B12 D - ✔✔-41. A 72-year-old white male patient is on Coumadin therapy. Which of the following tests is commonly ordered to monitor the patient's Coumadin levels? A. bleeding time C. partial thromboplastin time B. blood smear D. prothrombin time C - ✔✔-42. An African American couple are undergoing genetic counseling to determine the likelihood of producing children with a recessively genetic blood condition. The genetic tests reveal that the father carries the trait to produce abnormal hemoglobin, HbS, which causes crystallization in RBCs and deforms their shape when O2 is low. This condition causes painful crises and multiple infarcts and is termed A. hemophilia. C. sickle cell anemia. B. thalassemia. D. iron-deficiency anemia. B - ✔✔-43. The most common etiology of dementia in the United States is A. autism. C. alcohol abuse. B. Alzheimer's disease. D. anxiety disorder. D - ✔✔-44. Contributing factors of mental disorders include A. heredity. C. trauma. B. stress. D. heredity, stress, and trauma. A - ✔✔-45. Why are there "black box warnings" on antidepressant medications regarding children and adolescents? A. Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in some children and adolescents. B. Dosage requirements must be significantly higher in children and adolescents compared to adults. C. There is no established medical need for treatment of depression in children and adolescents. D. Antidepressants interfere with physiological growth patterns in children and adolescents C - ✔✔-46. The leading cause of blindness in the United States is a vision-related pathology caused by diabetes. It is called A. retinal detachment. C. retinopathy. B. retinoblastoma. D. rhabdomyosarcoma A - ✔✔-47. Which of the following is a hereditary disease of the cerebral cortex that includes progressive muscle spasticity and mental impairment leading to dementia? A. Huntington's disease C. Bell's palsy B. Lou Gehrig's disease D. Guillain-Barré syndrome D - ✔✔-48. A disease of the inner ear with fluid disruption in the semicircular canal that causes vertigo is A. labyrinthitis. C. Meniere's disease. B. mastoiditis. D. both labyrinthitis and Meniere's disease. A - ✔✔-49. A treatment for sensorineural hearing loss is A. cochlear implants. C. removal of impacted cerumen. B. myringotomy. D. stapedectomy. C - ✔✔-50. A condition that involves the fifth cranial nerve, also known as "tic douloureux," causes intense pain in the eye and forehead; lower lip, the section of the cheek closest to the ear and the outer segment of the tongue; or the upper lip, nose, and cheek. A. Bell's palsy C. trigeminal neuralgia B. thrush D. Tourette's disorder D - ✔✔-51. 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