AAPC CPC Final Exam 2024| 196 QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS

The minimum necessary rule is based on sound current practice that protected health information should NOT be used or disclosed when it is not necessary to satisfy a particular purpose or carry out a function. What doe ...

The minimum necessary rule is based on sound current practice that protected health information should NOT be used or disclosed when it is not necessary to satisfy a particular purpose or carry out a function. What does this mean? a. Staff members are allowed to access any medical record without restriction b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access to protected health information. c. Practices should only provide minimum necessary information to patients. d. All of the above. ✔✔b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access to protected health information. EHR stands for: a. Electronic health record b. Extended health record c. Electronic health response d. Established health record ✔✔a. Electronic health record The AAPC offers over 500 local chapters across the country for the purpose of a. Continuing education and networking b. Membership dues c. Regulations and bylaws d. Financial management ✔✔a. Continuing education and networking What does the abbreviation MAC stand for?a. Medicaid Alert Contractor b. Medicare Advisory Contractor c. Medicare Administrative Contractor d. Medicaid Administrative Contractor ✔✔c. Medicare Administrative Contractor The OIG recommends that provider practices enforce disciplinary actions through well publicized compliance guidelines to ensure actions that are ______. a. Permanent b. Consistent and appropriate c. Frequent d. Swift and enforceable ✔✔b. Consistent and appropriate Through which vessel is oxygenated blood returned to the heart from the lungs? a. Pulmonary vein b. Bronchial vein c. Pulmonary artery d. Bronchial artery ✔✔a. Pulmonary vein Muscle is attached to bone by what method? a. Tendons, ligaments, and directly to bone b. Tendons, aponeurosis, and directly to bone c. Ligaments, aponeurosis, and directly to bone d. Tendons and cartilage ✔✔b. Tendons, aponeurosis, and directly to bone Lacrimal glands are responsible for which of the following? a. Production of tears b. Production of vitreousc. Production of mydriatic agents d. Production of zonules ✔✔a. Production of tears Melasma is defined as: a. Lines where the skin has been stretched b. A discharge of mucus and blood c. A dark vertical line appearing on the abdomen d. Brownish pigmentation appearing on the face ✔✔d. Brownish pigmentation appearing on the face A gonioscopy is an examination of what part of the eye: a. Anterior chamber of the eye b. Lacrimal duct c. Interior surface of the eye d. Posterior segment ✔✔a. Anterior chamber of the eye What type of code is assigned when the provider documents the reason for a patient seeking healthcare services that is not for an injury or disease? a. Non-specific code b. External cause code (V00-Y99) c. Z code (Z00-Z99) d. ICD-10-PCS ✔✔c. Z code (Z00-Z99) What is the ICD-10-CM code for hay fever? ✔✔J30.1 What is the ICD-10-CM code for swine flu?a. J10.1 b. A08.4 c. J11.1 d. J09.X2 ✔✔d. J09.X2 What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported for enlargement of the prostate with a symptom of urinary retention? a. N40.1 b. N40.3, R33.8 c. N40.0 d. N40.1, R33.8 ✔✔d. N40.1, R33.8 What diagnosis code(s) is/are reported for behavioral disturbances in a patient with early onset Alzheimer's? a. G30.8, F02.81 b. F02.81 c. F02.81, G30.0 d. G30.0, F02.81 ✔✔d. G30.0, F02.81 What is the ICD-10-CM code for a patient with postoperative anemia due to acute blood loss during the surgery who needs a blood transfusion? a. D64.9 b. D53.0 c. D50.0 d. D62 ✔✔d. D62 A 54-year-old male goes to his primary care provider with dizziness. On physical exam his blood pressure is 200/130. After a complete work-up, including laboratory tests, theprovider makes a diagnosis of end stage renal disease and hypertension. What are the appropriate diagnosis codes for this encounter? a. I12.0, N18.6 b. I10, N18.6 c. I10, N18.9 d. I12.0 ✔✔a. I12.0, N18.6 A 32-year-old male was seen in the ambulatory surgery center ASC for removal of two lipomas. One was located on his back and the other was located on the right forearm. Both involved subcutaneous tissue. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? a. D17.30 b. D17.39 c. D17.1, D17.23 d. D17.21, D17.1 ✔✔d. D17.21, D17.1 A 33-year-old patient visits his primary care provider to discuss a lap band procedure for his morbid obesity. His caloric intake is in excess of 4,000 calories per day and his BMI is currently 45. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? a. E66.01, Z68.42 b. E66.3, Z68.45 c. E66.01 d. E66.01, Z68.45 ✔✔a. E66.01, Z68.42 A 58-year-old patient sees the provider for confusion and loss of memory. The provider diagnoses the patient with early onset stages of Alzheimer's disease with dementia. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. F02.80, G30.0, F29, F41.3b. G30.0, F02.80 c. F02.80, G30.0 d. G30.0, F02.80, F29, R41.3 ✔✔b. G30.0, F02.80 What would be considered an adverse effect? a. Shortness of breath when running b. Rash developing when taking penicillin c. Hemorrhaging after a vaginal delivery d. Wound infection after surgery ✔✔b. Rash developing when taking penicillin What is a TRUE statement in reporting pressure ulcers? a. When a pressure ulcer is at on stage and progresses to the higher stage, report the lowest stage for that site. b. Two codes are assigned when a patient is admitted with a pressure ulcer that evolves to another stage during the admission. c. When documentation does not provide the stage of the pressure ulcer, report the unstageable pressure ulcer code(L89.95). d. The site of the ulcer and the stage of the ulcer are reported with two separate codes. ✔✔b. Two codes are assigned when a patient is admitted with a pressure ulcer that evolves to another stage during the admission. A child has a splinter under the right middle fingernail. What ICD-10-CM code is reported? a. S61.222A b. S61.227A c. S61.242A d. S60.452A ✔✔d. S60.452AA 16-year-old male is brought to the ED by his mother. He was riding his bicycle in the park when he fell off the bike. The patient's right arm is painful to touch, discolored, and swollen. The X-ray shows a closed fracture of the ulna. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. S52.201A, V19.9XXA, Y92.830 b. S52.201A, V18.4XXA, Y92.831 c. S52.201A, V18.0XXA, Y92.830 d. S52.209A, V18.4XXA, Y92.830 ✔✔c. S52.201A, V18.0XXA, Y92.830 A 12-month-old receives the following vaccinations: Hepatitis B, Hib, Varicella, and Mumps-measles-rubella. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported for the vaccinations? a. B19.10, B01.9, B26.9, B05.9, B06.9, Z23 b. Z23, B19.10, B01.9, B26.9, B05.9, B06.9 c. Z23 d. B19.10, B01.9, B26.9, B05.9, B06.9 ✔✔c. Z23 The Table of Drugs in the HCPCS Level II book indicates various medication routes of administration. What abbreviation represents the route where a drug is introduced into the subdural space of the spinal cord? a. IT b. SC c. IM d. INH ✔✔a. IT A patient is in the OR for an arthroscopy of the medial compartment of his left knee. A meniscectomy is performed. What is the correct code used to report for the anesthesia services?a. 01400 b. 01402 c. 29880-LT d. 29870-LT ✔✔a. 01400 What is the correct CPT® code for a MRI performed on the brain first without contrast and then with contrast? a. 70554 b. 70553 c. 70552 d. 70551 ✔✔b. 70553 How are ambulance modifiers used? a. They identify the time elements of the ambulance service. b. They identify the mileage traveled during the encounter. c. They identify ambulance place of origin and destination. d. they identify emergency or non-emergency transport types. ✔✔c. They identify ambulance place of origin and destination. What is the correct CPT® code for the wedge excision of a nail fold of an ingrown toenail? ✔✔11765 Rationale: In the CPT® Index, look for Excision/Nail Fold referring you to 11765. A patient is taken to surgery for removal of a squamous cell carcinoma of the right thigh. What is the correct diagnosis code for today's procedure? a. C44.722 b. C44.702 c. D79.89d. C79.2 ✔✔a. C44.722 In ICD-10-CM, what type of burn is considered corrosion? ✔✔Burns due to chemicals Joe has a terrible problem with ingrown toenails. He goes to the podiatrist to have a nail permanently removed along with the nail matrix. What CPT® code is reported? a. 11720 b. 11730 c. 11750 d. 11765 ✔✔c. 11750 The patient is seen for removal of fatty tissue of the posterior iliac crest, abdomen, and the medial and lateral thighs. Suction-assisted lipectomy was undertaken in the left posterior iliac crest area and was continued on the right and the lateral trochanteric and posterior aspect of the medial thighs. The medial right and left thighs were suctioned followed by the abdomen. The total amount infused was 2300 cc and the total amount removed was 2400 cc. The incisions were closed and a compression garment was applied. What CPT® codes are reported? a. 15877, 15878-50-51 b. 15877, 15879-50-51 c. 15830, 15839-50-51, 15847 d. 15830, 15832-50-51 ✔✔b. 15877, 15879-50-51 The patient is seen in follow-up for excision of the basal cell carcinoma of his nose. I examined his nose noting the wound has healed well. His pathology showed the margins were clear. He has a mass on his forehead; he says it is from a fragment of sheet metal from an injury to his forehead. He has an X-ray showing a foreign body, and we have offered to remove it. After obtaining consent we proceeded. The area was infiltrated with local anesthetic. I had drawn for him how I would incise over the foreignbody. He observed this in the mirror so he could understand the surgery and agree on the location. I incised a thin ellipse over the mass to give better access to it; the mass was removed. There was a granuloma capsule around this, containing what appeared to be a black-colored piece of stained metal; I felt it could potentially cause a permanent black mark on his forehead. I offered to excise the metal. He wanted me ✔✔a. 10121, L92.3, Z18.10, Z85.828 In ICD-10-CM, what classification system is used to report open fracture classifications? a. Gustilo classification for open fractures b. PHF classification of fractures c. Danis-Weber classification d. Muller AO classification of fractures ✔✔a. Gustilo classification for open fractures A patient presented with a right ankle fracture. After induction of general anesthesia, the right leg was elevated and draped in the usual manner for surgery. A longitudinal incision was made parallel and posterior to the fibula. It was curved anteriorly to its distal end. The skin flap was developed and retracted anteriorly. The distal fibula fracture was then reduced and held with reduction forceps. A lag screw was inserted from anterior to posterior across the fracture. A 5-hole 1/3 tubular plate was then applied to the lateral contours of the fibula with cortical and cancellous bone screws. Final radiographs showed restoration of the fibula. The wound was irrigated and closed with suture and staples on the skin. Sterile dressing was applied followed by a posterior splint. What CPT® code is reported? a. 27823-RT b. 27792-RT c. 27814-RT d. 27787-RT ✔✔b. 27792-RTA 49-year-old female presented with chronic deQuervain's disease and has been unresponsive to physical therapy, bracing or cortisone injection. She has opted for more definitive treatment. After induction of anesthesia, the patient's left arm was prepared and draped in the normal sterile fashion. Local anesthetic was injected using a combination 2% lidocaine and 0.25% Marcaine. A transverse incision was made over the central area of the first dorsal compartment. The subcutaneous tissues were gently spread to protect the neural and venous structures. The retractors were placed. The fascial sheath of the first dorsal compartment was then incised and opened carefully. The underlying thumb abductor and extensor tendons were identified. The tissues were dissected and the extensor retinaculum of the first extensor compartment was incised. The fibrotic tissue was incised and the tendons gently released. The tendons were fre ✔✔d. 25000-LT Rationale: The report states the extensor retinaculum of the first extensor compartment was incised. Look in CPT index for Incision/Wrist/Tendon Sheath 25000-25001. Code 25000 shows deQuervain's disease in the description. Modifier LT is appended to inciate procedure is performed on the left side. A 45-year-old presents to the operating room with a right index trigger finger and left shoulder bursitis. The left shoulder was injected with 1 cc of Xylocaine, 1 cc of Celestone and 1 cc of Marcaine. An approximately 1-inch incision was made over the A1 pulley in the distal transverse palmar crease. This incision was taken through skin and subcutaneous tissue. The A1 pulley was identified and released in its entirety. The wound was irrigated with antibiotic saline solution. The subcutaneous tissue was injected with Marcaine without epinephrine. The skin was closed with 4-0 Ethilon suture. Clean dressing was applied. What CPT® codes are reported? a. 20553-F6, 20610-51-LT b. 20552-F6, 20605-52-LTc. 26055-F6, 20610-76-LT d. 26055-F6, 20610-51-LT ✔✔d. 26055-F6, 20610-51-LT A 3-year-old is brought into the ED crying. He cannot bend his left arm after his older brother twisted it. X-ray is performed and the ED physician diagnoses the patient has a dislocated nursemaid elbow. The ED physician reduces the elbow successfully. The patient is able to move his arm again. The patient is referred to an orthopedist for followup care. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 24640-54-LT, S53.091A, W50.2XXA b. 24600-54-LT, S53.002A, W49.9XXA c. 24640-54-LT, S53.032A, W50.2XXA d.24565-54-LT, S53.194S, Y33.XXXA ✔✔c. 24640-54-LT, S53.032A, W50.2XXA What CPT® code is reported for an emergency endotracheal intubation to save the patient's life? ✔✔31500 Rationale: In the CPT® Index, look for Intubation/Endotracheal Tube. This directs you to code 31500, which is for an emergency endotracheal intubation. An 18-month-old patient is seen in the ED unable to breathe due to a toy he swallowed which had lodged in his throat. Soon brain death will occur if an airway is not established immediately. The ED provider performs an emergency transtracheal tracheostomy. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 31603, T17.220A b. 31603, T17.290A c. 31601, J34.9, T17.298A d. 31601, 31603, T17.228A ✔✔b. 31603, T17.290A What ICD-10-CM code is reported for pyopneumothorax with fistula? ✔✔J86.0A patient with chronic pneumothoraces presents for chemopleurodesis. Under local anesthesia a small incision is made between the ribs. A catheter is inserted into the pleural space between the parietal and pleural viscera. Subsequently, 5g of sterile asbestos free talc was introduced into the pleural space via the catheter. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 32560, J93.81 b. 32650, 32560, J93.11 c. 32650, J95.811 d. 32601, 32560, J95.811 ✔✔a. 32560, J93.81 Response Feedback: Rationale:Chemopleurodesis is represented by codes 32560-32562. In the CPT® Index look for Pleurodesis/Instillation of Agent. Code 32560 is appropriate for the described actions taken to instill the talc used to treat recurrent pneumothorax. Look in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index for Pneumothorax NOS/chronic which directs you to code J93.81. Verification in the Tabular List confirms code selection. A 25-year-old male presents with a deviated nasal septum. The patient undergoes a nasal septum repair and submucous resection. Cartilage from the bony septum was detached and the nasoseptum was realigned and removed in a piecemeal fashion. Thereafter, 4-0 chronic was used to approximate mucous membranes. Next, submucous resection of the turbinates was handled in the usual fashion by removing the anterior third of the bony turbinate and lateral mucosa followed by bipolar cauterization. What CPT® codes are reported? a. 30450, 30999-51 b. 30520, 30140-51c. 30420, 30140-51 d. 30620, 30999-51 ✔✔b. 30520, 30140-51 Which main coronary artery bifurcates into two smaller ones? a. Left b. Right c. Inverted d. Superficial ✔✔a. Left In the cath lab a physician places a catheter in the aortic arch from a right femoral artery puncture to perform an angiography. Fluoroscopic imaging is performed by the physician. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported? a. 36222 b. 36200, 75605-26 c. 36215, 75605-26 d. 36221 ✔✔d. 36211 Rationale: The aorta is the trunk of the system, so this is a non-selective catheterization. Look in CPT Index for Angiography/Cervicocerebral Arch. Only one code is reported for the catheterization and fluoroscopic imaging which is code 36221 Which statement is TRUE regarding codes for hypertension and heart disease in ICD- 10-CM? A) Only one code is required to report hypertension and heart failure. B) Hypertension and heart disease have an assumed causal relationship. C) Hypertension and heart disease without a stated causal relationship must be coded separately.D) Hypertension with heart disease is always coded to heart failure. ✔✔B) Hypertension and heart disease have an assumed causal relationship. Rationale: ICD-10-CM Coding Guidelines I.C.9.a states a causal relationship is presumed between hypertension and heart involvement. Only if the documentation specifically states they are unrelated, are they to be coded separately. ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.9.a.1 indicates two codes are required to report hypertension and heart failure. A patient presents for extremity venous study. Complete noninvasive physiologic studies of both lower extremities were performed. Which CPT® code is reported? ✔✔93970 Rationale: Code 93970 reports a complete bilateral noninvasive physiologic study of extremity veins. This study is found in the CPT® Index by looking for Vascular Studies/Venous Studies/Extremity which directs you to 93970-93971. Modifier 50 is not appended because the term bilateral is included in the code description for 93970. When reporting an encounter for screening of malignant neoplasms of the intestinal tract, what does the 5th character indicate? A) History of malignancy in the intestinal tract B) Laterality of the intestinal tract C) Anatomic location being screened in the intestinal tract D) Screening codes for malignant neoplasms of the intestinal tract are only reported with four characters. ✔✔C) Anatomic location being screened in the intestinal tract Bile empties into the duodenum through what structure? A) Pyloric sphincter B) Biliary arteryC) Common bile duct D) Common hepatic duct ✔✔C) Common Bile Duct What ICD-10-CM code is reported for non-erosive duodenitis? a. K29.80 b. K29.90 c. K29.81 d. K29.91 ✔✔a. K29.80 A 57-year-old patient with chronic pancreatitis presents to the operating room for a pancreatic duct-jejunum anastomosis by the Puestow-type operation. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported for the encounter? a. 48548, K85.90 b. 48520, K86.1 c. 48520, K85.80 d. 48548, K86.1 ✔✔d. 48548, K86.1 The urologist is called to the operating room to repair a kidney laceration status post MVA. The urologist examines the kidney and repairs a small 2 cm laceration of the kidney. What CPT® code is reported for this service? a. 50525 b. 50520 c. 50500 d. 50526 ✔✔c. 50500 Transurethral resection of bladder neck and nodular prostatic regrowth. What CPT® code is reported for this service?a. 55801 b. 52630 c. 52500 d. 52640 ✔✔b. 52630 Rationale: CPT 52630 is reported for a transurethral resection of residual or regrowth of the prostatic tissue. In the the CPT index look for Transurethral Procedure/Prostate/Resection. CPT 52500 is a separate procedure and considered an integral part of the prostate resection. CPT 52640 is used for the transurethral resection of a postoperative bladder neck contracture. A 63-year-old male presents for the insertion of an artificial inflatable urinary sphincter for urinary incontinence. A 4.5 cm cuff, 22 ml balloon, 61-70 mmHg artificial inflatable urinary sphincter was inserted. What CPT® code is reported for this service? ✔✔53445 Rationale: In the CPT® Index look for Insertion/Prosthesis/Urethral Sphincter. You're directed to 53444-53445. Codes 53446-53448 are for the removal or removal/replacement of the inflatable sphincter. CPT® 53445 describes the insertion of an inflatable urethra/bladder neck sphincter, including placement of pump, reservoir and cuff. The patient has significant morbid obesity and her pannus has been retracted to help with dissection. The planned procedure is to place a catheter/tube to drain the bladder. It is apparent she has quite a bit of scarring from her previous surgeries and appears to have an old sinus tract just above the symphysis. A midline incision is made following her old scar from just above the symphysis for a length of about 4-6cm. The sinus tract was excised, as this was also in the midline, and carefully dissected down to the level of the fascia. It does not appear to be an actual hernia, as there are no ventral contents within it. Again, there is quite a bit of distortion from previous scarring because of the obesity, but staying in the midline, the fascia is incised just above the symphysis of alength of about 2cm. The fat and scar are incised above the fascia more superiorly and with palpation, mesh from a previous hernia r ✔✔a. 51040-53 What does the abbreviation VBAC mean? ✔✔Vaginal Birth After Cesarean A patient is seen for three extra visits during the third trimester of her 30-week pregnancy because of her history of pre-eclampsia during her previous pregnancy which puts her at risk for a recurrence of the problem during this pregnancy. No problems develop. What diagnosis code(s) is/are reported for these three extra visits? a. O09.893, Z3A.30 b. O14.03, Z3A.30 c. Z34.83 d. Z34.83, O09.893, Z3A.30 ✔✔a. O09.893, Z3A.30 A pregnant patient presents to the ED with bleeding, cramping, and concerns of loss of tissue and material per vagina. On examination, the physician discovers an open cervical os with no products of conception seen. He tells the patient she has had an abortion. What type of abortion has she had? a. Missed b. Induced c. Spontaneous d. None of the above ✔✔c. Spontaneous Mrs. Smith is visiting her mother and is 150 miles away from home. She is in the 26th week of pregnancy. In the late afternoon she suddenly feels a gush of fluids followed by strong uterine contractions. She is rushed to the hospital but the baby is born before they arrive. In the ED she and the baby are examined and the retained placenta is delivered. The baby is in the neonatal nursery doing okay. Mrs. Smith has a 2nd degree perineal laceration secondary to precipitous delivery which was repaired by the EDphysician. She will return home for her postpartum care. What ICD-10-CM and CPT® codes are reported by the ED physician? a. 59409, O80, Z3A.26, Z37.0 b. 59409, 59414-51, 59300-51, O62.3, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37.0 c. 59414, 59300-51, O62.3, O70.9, Z3A.26, Z37.0 d. 59414, 59300-51, O73.0, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37.0 ✔✔d. 59414, 59300-51, O73.0, O70.1, Z3A.26, Z37.0 Migraines are reported from what category in ICD-10-CM? a) F02 b) G00 c) G30 d) G43 ✔✔d) G43 A patient with a status post (after or following) lumbar puncture headache receives an epidural blood patch. The patient's venous blood is injected into the lumbar epidural space; this blood forms a clot sealing the leak of CSF from the lumbar puncture. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 62273, G97.1 b. 62281, G44.1 c. 62282, G97.1 d. 62273, G44.1 ✔✔a. 62273, G97.1 What ICD-10-CM code is used for spinal meningitis? a. G03.9 b. A87.9 c. G04.90d. A39.9 ✔✔a. G03.9 A 47-year-old male presents with chronic back pain and lower left leg radiculitis. A laminectomy is performed on the inferior end of L5. The microscope is used to perform microdissection. There was a large extradural cystic structure on the right side underneath the nerve root as well as the left. The entire intraspinal lesion was evacuated. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this procedure? a. 63252, 69990 b. 63267, 69990 c. 63277 d. 63272 ✔✔b. 63267, 69990 What ICD-10-CM code is reported for mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy with macular edema? a. E11.3599 b. E11.3399 c. E11.3219 d. E11.3199 ✔✔c. E11.3219 The provider makes an incision in the patient's left tympanic membrane in order to inflate eustachian tubes and aspirate fluid in a patient with acute eustachian salpingitis. The procedure is completed without anesthesia. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 69421, H68.012 b. 69420, H68.012 c. 69421, H68.022 d. 69420, H68.022 ✔✔b. 69420, H68.012