NSG5003 Week 4 Study guide

Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is what type of inherited disorder? a. X-linked dominant c. Autosomal dominant b. X-linked recessive d. Autosomal recessive Sickle cell disease is classified as ...

Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is what type of inherited disorder? a. X-linked dominant c. Autosomal dominant b. X-linked recessive d. Autosomal recessive Sickle cell disease is classified as a(an): a. Inherited X-linked recessive disorder b. Inherited autosomal recessive disorder c. Disorder initiated by hypoxemia and acidosis d. Disorder that is diagnosed equally in men and women Hemoglobin S (HbS) is formed in sickle cell disease as a result of which process? a. Deficiency in glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) that changes hemoglobin A (HbA) to HbS. b. Genetic mutation in which two amino acids (histidine and leucine) are missing. c. Genetic mutation in which one amino acid (valine) is replaced by another (glutamic acid). d. Autoimmune response in which one amino acid (proline) is detected as an antigen by abnormal immunoglobulin G (IgG). Sickle cell disease (SCD) is what type of inherited disorder? a. Autosomal dominant c. X-linked dominant b. Autosomal recessive d. X-linked recessive What is the reason most children diagnosed with sickle cell anemia are not candidates for either bone marrow or stem cell transplants? a. Well-matched stem cell donors are difficult to find. b. The child is usually too weak to survive the procedure. c. The child’s immune system will not appropriately respond to the antirejection medications. d. Although effective for adults, neither procedure has been proven effective for children. Which manifestations of vasoocclusive crisis are associated with sickle cell disease (SCD) in infants? a. Atelectasis and pneumonia b. Edema of the hands and feet c. Stasis ulcers of the hands, ankles, and feet d. Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly What is the chance with each pregnancy that a child born to two parents with the sickle trait will have sickle cell disease (SCD)? a. 20% c. 33% b. 25% d. 50% Which type of anemia occurs as a result of thalassemia? a. Microcytic, hypochromic c. Macrocytic, hyperchromic b. Microcytic, normochromic d. Macrocytic, normochromic What is the fundamental defect that results in beta-thalassemia major? a. The spleen prematurely destroys the precipitate-carrying cells. b. A severe uncoupling of - and -chain synthesis occurs. c. All four beta-forming genes are defective. d. Hemoglobin H (HbH) develops when three genes are defective. The alpha- and beta-thalassemias are considered what types of inherited disorder? a. Autosomal recessive c. X-linked recessive b. Autosomal dominant d. X-linked dominant Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor? a. V c. IX b. VIII d. X Hemophilia A is considered to be what type of inherited disorder? a. Autosomal dominant c. X-linked recessive b. Autosomal recessive d. X-linked dominant Which disease is an autosomal dominant inherited hemorrhagic disease? a. Hemophilia A c. Christmas disease b. von Willebrand disease d. Hemophilia B Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune process involving antibodies attacking which type of cells? a. Neutrophils c. Platelets b. Eosinophils d. Basophils Which disorder results in decreased erythrocytes and platelets with changes in leukocytes and has clinical manifestations of pallor, fatigue, petechiae, purpura, bleeding, and fever? a. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) b. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) c. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) d. Iron deficiency anemia (IDA) When does fetal erythrocyte production shift from the liver to the bone marrow? a. Fourth month of gestation c. Eighth month of gestation b. Fifth month of gestation d. At birth Which disease is caused by clotting factor VIII deficiency and is an autosomal dominant traita. Hemophilia A c. Hemophilia C b. Hemophilia B d. von Willebrand disease Which type of hemophilia affects only men? a. Hemophilia A c. Hemophilia C b. Hemophilia B d. von Willebrand disease Which hemophilia occurs equally in both men and women? a. Hemophilia A c. Hemophilia C b. Hemophilia B d. von Willebrand disease During childhood, when is dietary iron deficiency commonly diagnosed? a. Between 2 months and 1 year c. Between 12 months and 3 years b. Between 6 months and 2 years d. Between 18 months and 4 years What is the significance of hyperdiploidy when diagnosing and treating leukemia? a. Hyperdiploidy indicates a good prognosis. b. Hyperdiploidy indicates a poor prognosis. c. Hyperdiploidy indicates poor response to a specific treatment. d. Hyperdiploidy indicates the achievement of remission. Chapter 31: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems Which statement does not accurately describe the pericardium? a. The pericardium is a double-walled membranous sac that encloses the heart. b. It is made up of connective tissue and a surface layer of squamous cells. c. The pericardium protects the heart against infection and inflammation from the lungs and pleural space. d. It contains pain and mechanoreceptors that can elicit reflex changes in blood pressure and heart rate. Which cardiac chamber has the thinnest wall and why? a. The right and left atria; they are low-pressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood. b. The right and left atria; they are not directly involved in the preload, contractility, or afterload of the heart. c. The left ventricle; the mean pressure of blood coming into this ventricle is from the lung, which has a low pressure. d. The right ventricle; it pumps blood into the pulmonary capillaries, which have a lower pressure compared with the systemic circulation. Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures? a. Right atrium c. Left ventricle b. Left atrium d. Right ventricle What is the process that ensures mitral and tricuspid valve closure after the ventricles are filled with blood? a. Chordae tendineae relax, which allows the valves to close. b. Increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the valves to close. c. Trabeculae carneae contract, which pulls the valves closed. d. Reduced pressure in the atria creates a negative pressure that pulls the valves closed. Regarding the heart’s valves, what is a function of the papillary muscles? a. The papillary muscles close the semilunar valve. b. These muscles prevent backward expulsion of the atrioventricular valve. c. They close the atrioventricular valve. d. The papillary muscles open the semilunar valve. During the cardiac cycle, why do the aortic and pulmonic valves close after the ventricles relax? a. Papillary muscles relax, which allows the valves to close. b. Chordae tendineae contract, which pulls the valves closed. c. Reduced pressure in the ventricles creates a negative pressure, which pulls the valves closed. d. Blood fills the cusps of the valves and causes the edges to merge, closing the valves. Oxygenated blood flows through which vessel? a. Superior vena cava c. Pulmonary artery b. Pulmonary veins d. Coronary veins The significance of the atrial kick is that it affects the contraction of the: a. Right atria, which is necessary to open the tricuspid valve. b. Right atria, which is necessary to increase the blood volume from the vena cava. c. Left atria, which increases the blood volume into the ventricle. d. Left atria, that is necessary to open the mitral valve. Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which structures? a. Left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum b. Left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle c. Upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex d. Posterior interventricular sulcus and the smaller branches of both ventricles Occlusion of the circumflex artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which area? a. Left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum b. Posterior interventricular sulcus and the smaller branches of both ventricles c. Upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex d. Left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle The coronary ostia are located in the: a. Left ventricle c. Coronary sinus b. Aortic valve d. Aorta The coronary sinus empties into which cardiac structure? a. Right atrium c. Superior vena cava b. Left atrium d. Aorta What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells? a. 1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell) b. 1:2 (one capillary per two muscle cells) c. 1:4 (one capillary per four muscle cells) d. 1:10 (one capillary per ten muscle cells) During the cardiac cycle, which structure directly delivers action potential to the ventricular myocardium? a. Sinoatrial (SA) node c. Purkinje fibers b. Atrioventricular (AV) node d. Bundle branches What causes depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell to occur? a. Decrease in the permeability of the cell membrane to potassium b. Rapid movement of sodium into the cell c. Decrease in the movement of sodium out of the cell d. Rapid movement of calcium out of the cell Which event occurs during phase 1 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization? a. Repolarization when potassium moves out of the cells b. Repolarization when sodium rapidly enters into the cells c. Early repolarization when sodium slowly enters the cells d. Early repolarization when calcium slowly enters the cells Which phase of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with diastole? a. Phase 1 c. Phase 3 b. Phase 2 d. Phase 4 In the normal electrocardiogram, what does the PR interval represent? a. Atrial depolarization b. Ventricular depolarization c. Atrial activation to onset of ventricular activity d. Electrical systole of the ventricles The cardiac electrical impulse normally begins spontaneously in the sinoatrial (SA) node because it: a. Has a superior location in the right atrium. b. Is the only area of the heart capable of spontaneous depolarization. c. Has rich sympathetic innervation via the vagus nerve. d. Depolarizes more rapidly than other automatic cells of the heart. What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated? a. Refractory c. Threshold b. Hyperpolarization d. Sinoatrial (SA) Which complex (wave) represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarizations? a. PRS c. QT interval b. QRS d. P What can shorten the conduction time of action potential through the atrioventricular (AV) node? a. Parasympathetic nervous system c. Vagal stimulation b. Catecholamines d. Sinoatrial node (SA)