2020 NCLEX-RN TEST PREP: CARING FOR ACUTE OR CHRONIC CONDITIONS (STUDY MODE) PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH: ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS

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CARING FOR ACUTE OR CHRONIC CONDITIONS (TEST MODE) 1. Mrs. J is in the adult ICU on a ventilator. The nurse caring for her recognizes that her endotracheal tube needs suctioning. Based on the nurs... e's understanding of this procedure, what level of pressure should the nurse apply while suctioning? a. 70-80 mmHg b. 100-120 mmHg c. 150-170 mmHg d. 200 mmHg 2. The nurse caring for Mrs. J is prepared to suction her endotracheal tube. Which of the following interventions will reduce hypoxia during this procedure? a. Hyperoxygenate Mrs. J for up to 60 seconds prior to starting b. Administer 15 cc of sterile fluid into the tube prior to suctioning c. Suction for no longer than 30 seconds at a time d. Wait 30 seconds after suctioning before attempting again 3. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage? a. A client who is 9 weeks' pregnant b. A client with a femur fracture c. A morbidly obese client d. A client with hypertension 4. A nurse finds one of her clients unresponsive in his room. He is not breathing and does not have a pulse. After calling for help, what is the next action of the nurse? a. Administer 2 ventilations b. Perform a head-tilt, chin lift to open the airway c. Begin chest compressions d. Perform a jaw thrust to open the airway 5. A nurse is caring for a client with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output. The nurse assesses the client for mental status changes. What is the rationale for this intervention? a. Decreased cardiac output can cause hypoxia to the brain b. Mental status changes may be a side effect of the client's medication c. Mitral regurgitation is a complication associated with some neurological disorders d. The client may be confused about his diagnosis 6. A client is undergoing radiation therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer. Following the radiation, the client develops xerostomia. Which of the following best describes this condition? a. Cracks in the corners of the mouth b. Peeling skin from the tongue and gums c. Increased dental caries d. Dry mouth 7. A nurse is providing information for a woman who is 36 weeks' pregnant and who has hepatitis B. Which of the following statements from the client indicates understanding of this condition? a. Now I know I will need a cesarean section." b. My baby will need two shots soon after his birth." c. I will not be able to breastfeed." d. My baby's father does not need testing; I know I am the one with hepatitis." 8. A nurse is caring for a 2-day old infant who has a bilirubin level of 19 mg/dl. The physician has ordered phototherapy. Which of the following actions indicates correct preparation of the infant for this procedure? a. Undress the baby down to a diaper and hat b. Place the baby in his mother's arms before turning on the light c. Position the phototherapy light approximately 3 inches above the baby's skin d. Secure eye protection for the infant without occluding the nose 9. A nurse is preparing to change a client's dressing for a burn wound on his foot. Which of the following interventions is appropriate for this process? a. Wash the wound with cleanser, rinse, and pat dry b. Bind the wound tightly, secure with tape, and elevate the foot c. Contact the physician after the dressing change is complete d. Provide analgesics for the client after the procedure 10. A nurse is caring for a client who seeks treatment for a sore throat, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, fever, chills, and extreme fatigue. Based on these symptoms, which of the following illnesses could the nurse consider for this client? a. Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) b. Hepatitis B c. Infectious mononucleosis d. Norovirus infection 11. A client in end-stage renal disease is receiving peritoneal dialysis at home. The nurse must educate the client about potential complications associated with this procedure. All of the following are complications associated with peritoneal dialysis EXCEPT: a. Hypotriglyceridemia b. Abdominal hernia c. Anorexia d. Peritonitis 12. A nurse is assisting Mr. L, a client who has a new colostomy after a bowel resection. The nurse is teaching this client how to care for his colostomy bag. Which of the following statements from Mr. L indicates the need for more education? a. I can clean the skin around the ostomy site with soap and water when I change the bag." b. I should irrigate the stoma regularly to avoid buildup of gas and odor." c. I need to wait ½ hour after I irrigate to replace the colostomy bag." d. I should change the bag when it is one-third to one-fourth full." 13. Which of the following interventions must the nurse implement while a client is having a grand mal seizure? a. Open the jaw and place a bite block between the teeth b. Try to place the client on his side c. Restrain the client to prevent injury d. Place pillows around the client 14. An 85-year old client is diagnosed with hypernatremia due to lack of fluid intake and dehydration. The nurse knows that symptoms of hypernatremia include: a. Lack of thirst b. Pale skin c. Hypertension d. Swollen tongue 15. Which of the following clients is most appropriate for receiving telemetry? a. A client with syncope potentially related to cardiac dysrhythmia b. A client with unstable angina c. A client with sinus rhythm and PVCs d. A client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago 16. A client is brought into the emergency department after finishing a course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. The client is experiencing dyspnea, chest tightness and is agitated. Her blood pressure is 88/58, she has generalized hives over the course of her body and her lips and tongue are swollen. After the nurse calls for help, what is the next appropriate action? a. Start an IV and administer a 1-liter bolus of Lactated Ringer's solution b. Administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine IM c. Administer 15 mg diphenhydramine IM d. Monitor the client until help arrives 17. Mr. B is recovering from a surgical procedure that was performed four days ago. The nurse’s assessment finds this client coughing up rust-colored sputum; his respiratory rate is 28/minute with expiratory grunting, and his lung sounds have coarse crackles on auscultation. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms? a. Tuberculosis b. Pulmonary edema c. Pneumonia d. Histoplasmosis 18. Based on Mr. B's assessment, what is the first action of the nurse after assessing his condition? a. Immediately place the client in a negative-pressure room b. Set the client up to receive a bronchoscopy c. Contact the physician for antifungal medications d. Administer oxygen and assist the client to sit in the semi-Fowler's position 19. A nurse is assessing a client who is post-op day #3 after an abdominal hernia repair. After a bout of harsh coughing, the client states, "it feels like something gave way." The nurse assesses his abdomen and notes an evisceration from the surgical site. What is the next action of the nurse? a. Turn the client on his side b. Push the abdominal contents back inside the wound using sterile gloves c. Ask the client to take a breath and hold it d. Cover the intestine with sterile saline dressings 20. A nurse is performing CPR on a client when a co-worker brings an automated external defibrillator (AED). The nurse prepares to apply the patches to the client's chest when she notes that he has a large amount of thick chest hair. What is the next action of the nurse? a. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock b. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads c. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair d. Do not use the AED 21. A nurse is educating a client who was recently diagnosed with diverticulosis. What types of foods should the nurse recommend for this client? a. Whole grain cereal b. Eggs c. Cottage cheese d. Fish 22. A client is in need of hemodialysis for end-stage renal failure. The physician has inserted an AV fistula. Which of the following nursing interventions are appropriate when caring for this access site? a. Assess for clotting in fistula tubing b. Apply a dressing over the fistula site c. Assess for a bruit or thrill at the site of the fistula d. Assess circulation proximal to the fistula site 23. A client is brought into the emergency room where the physician suspects that he has cardiac tamponade. Based on this diagnosis, the nurse would expect to see which of the following signs or symptoms in this client? a. Fever, fatigue, malaise b. Hypotension and distended neck veins c. Cough and hemoptysis d. Numbness and tingling in the extremities 24. Mr. S has just been diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform to prevent transmission to others? a. Begin drug therapy within 72 hours of diagnosis b. Place the client in a positive-pressure room c. Initiate standard precautions d. Place the client in a negative-pressure room 25. Which of the following descriptions best describes the function of the thyroid gland? a. The thyroid gland converts glucose into glycogen b. The thyroid hormone secretes cortisol during times of stress c. The thyroid gland regulates body metabolism d. The thyroid gland affects skin pigmentation 26. A nurse is instructing a client in the use of his incentive spirometer. Which of the following statements from the nurse indicates correct teaching about using this device? a. Lie back in a reclining position while doing this." b. Take rapid, quick breaths to reach your goal." c. Set a goal of using the spirometer at least 3 times per day." d. Practice coughing after taking 10 breaths." 27. A client in the ICU has been intubated and placed on a ventilator. The physician orders synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). Which statement best describes the work of this mode of ventilation? a. The ventilator delivers a set rate and tidal volume regardless of whether the client is attempting to breathe b. The ventilator coordinates delivered breaths with the client's respiratory efforts c. The ventilator provides a supplemental breath for every third breath of the client d. The ventilator provides breaths during the expiratory phase of the client's respirations 28. A nurse is caring for a client in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU). Upon admission, the client is shivering despite having several layers of blankets. What is the next action of the nurse? a. Turn the client to the prone position b. Assist the client to breathe deeply c. Administer meperidine as ordered d. None of the above 29. Mrs. D is a pregnant client who is 33 weeks' gestation and is admitted for bright red vaginal bleeding. Her physician suspects placenta previa. All of the following nursing interventions are appropriate for this client except: a. Institute complete bed rest for the client b. Assess uterine tone to determine condition c. Perform a vaginal exam to assess cervical dilation d. Measure and record blood loss each shift 30. Which of the following interventions should the nurse use when working with a Jackson-Pratt drain? a. Strip the tubing to remove clots by milking the tubing back toward the client b. Empty the drain when the amount of fluid reaches 25 cc c. Strip the tubing to remove clots by milking the tubing away from the client d. Maintain the level of the drain above the client's incision 31. Which of the following techniques can help to prevent skin irritation or breakdown around a tracheostomy site? a. Manage secretions by providing suction on a regular basis b. Cleanse the site daily with a mixture of povidone-iodine and water c. Avoid using tube ties to secure the tube d. None of the above 32. A client is seen for testing to rule out Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition? a. Fever and rash b. Circumoral cyanosis c. Elevated glucose levels d. All of the above e. Both a and d only 33. A nurse is assisting with a physical exam for a client who presents with possible meningitis. The nurse bends the client's leg at the hip to a 90-degree angle. When she extends the leg at the knee, the client experiences severe pain. Which type of test is this nurse performing? a. Brudzinski's sign b. Romberg's sign c. Kernig's sign d. Babinski's sign 34. Which of the following types of dressing changes works as a form of wound debridement? a. Dry dressing b. Transparent dressing c. Composite dressing d. Wet to dry dressing 35. A nurse is caring for a newborn infant in the nursery who has developed vomiting, poor feeding, lethargy and respiratory distress. The physician has diagnosed this infant with necrotizing enterocolitis. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate for this infant? a. Feed the infant 30 cc of sterile water b. Position the infant on his back c. Administer antibiotics as ordered d. Allow the infant to breastfeed 36. Mr. C is brought to the hospital with severe burns over 45% of his body. His heart rate is 124 bpm and thready, BP 84/46, respirations 24/minute and shallow. He is apprehensive and restless. Which of the following types of shock is Mr. C at highest risk for? a. Septic shock b. Hypovolemic shock c. Neurogenic shock d. Cardiogenic shock 37. Based on Mr. C's assessment, which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate? a. Elevate the lower extremities to 45 degrees to promote venous return b. Place Mr. C in the Trendelenburg position c. Administer total parenteral nutrition d. Monitor urine output 38. Mr. L was working in his garage at home and had an accident with a power saw. He is brought into the emergency department by a neighbor with a traumatic hand amputation. What is the first action of the nurse? a. Place a tourniquet at the level of the elbow b. Apply direct pressure to the injury c. Administer a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline d. Elevate the injured extremity on a pillow 39. A nurse is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. The oncologist uses the TNM staging system to classify this case as T2, N2, M0. The nurse understands that TNM stands for: a. Tumor, Necrosis, Metastasis b. Tumor, Node Involvement, Mastectomy c. Tumor, Node Involvement, Metastasis d. Therapy, Necrosis, Metastasis 40. A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone radiation therapy. The skin on her chest and abdomen itches and is red. The client complains of burning pain and the skin is beginning to slough. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client? a. Apply ointment to the skin to avoid moisture b. Wash the area gently with water and pat dry c. Use a mild antiseptic soap to wash the area and pat dry d. Apply talcum powder to keep the skin dry 41. A client is admitted for a head injury. His body is lying in an abnormal position and the physician states he is exhibiting decorticate posturing. Based on this assessment, the nurse can expect to find the client with: a. The legs extended and rotated internally; the elbow, wrists, and fingers flexed b. The legs pulled toward the chest; the head bent back at a 30-degree angle c. The back arched; the arms and legs extended and rigid d. The legs extended and rotated externally; the head turned to the right or the left 42. All of the following signs are indicative of increased intracranial pressure EXCEPT: a. Decreased level of consciousness b. Projectile vomiting c. Sluggish pupil dilation d. Increased heart rate 43. Mr. V is receiving treatment for a spinal cord injury after falling off of his deck at home. He has undergone spinal surgery, and has been placed in a halo traction device. Which of the following nursing interventions are most appropriate for a client with a spinal cord injury? a. Turn the client and use incentive spirometry each shift b. Administer stool softeners as ordered c. Turn the head slowly to avoid further damage to the spine d. Change NPO status 44. Based on assessment and testing, the physician has diagnosed Mr. V with a cord transection at the level of C8 of the spine. Which of the following types of paralysis is Mr. V most likely to suffer? a. Hemiplegia b. Quadriplegia c. Paraplegia d. None 45. A client is diagnosed with Meniere's disease after suffering from a viral infection. The nurse recognizes that this condition causes: a. Chronic rash, inflamed skin, and encrusted lesions b. Orthostatic hypotension and swelling of the extremities c. Altered potassium levels and increased risk of cardiac dysrhythmias d. Vertigo, tinnitus, vomiting, and hearing loss 46. Mrs. P is being admitted for complications of coronary artery disease. The nurse places her on a cardiac monitor and notes that her heart rate is 210 bpm and occasionally irregular. She is unable to measure the P-R interval because the rate is too fast; the QRS complexes are wide. Which of the following conditions does this client most likely have? a. Premature ventricular contractions b. Atrial fibrillation c. Ventricular tachycardia d. Sinus tachycardia 47. A nurse is reading a rhythm strip from a cardiac monitor. She counts 6 QRS complexes within a 6-second strip. What is the heart rate? a. 36 bpm b. 60 bpm c. 100 bpm d. 120 bpm 48. A nurse is caring for Mr. W, who has been HIV-positive for seven years. Mr. W was recently diagnosed with mycobacterium avium complex (MAC). Based on this diagnosis, the nurse can expect which of the following symptoms from this client? a. Cardiac dysrhythmias b. Swelling of the lips and face c. Headache and a ruddy complexion d. Lethargy and diarrhea 49. Based on Mr. W's diagnosis of MAC, which of the following information should be provided to this client? a. He should be started on antiretroviral therapy as ordered b. He is no longer just HIV-positive, he most likely has AIDS c. He should be tested for other illnesses, such as anemia d. Both b and c 50. All of the following are complications associated with hypothermia during the perioperative period EXCEPT: a. Decreased blood urea nitrogen levels b. Cardiac arrhythmias c. Decreased immunity d. Increased oxygen needs 51. A nurse is caring for a client who had a bone marrow transplant two weeks ago. Which of the following is most likely to cause an infection during this time period? a. Cytomegalovirus b. Varicella zoster virus c. Herpes simplex virus d. Hepatitis B virus 52. A nurse is caring for Mrs. L, a pregnant client who is 35 weeks' gestation. The client complains of abdominal pain; her abdomen is rigid and she has little vaginal bleeding. The nurse notes few fetal accelerations on the fetal monitor. Which of the following conditions most likely describes these symptoms? a. Placenta previa b. Prolapsed cord c. Preeclampsia d. Abruptio placentae 53. Mrs. L's blood pressure has dropped to 86/58 and her heart rate is 112 bpm. Based on her assessment, what is the most appropriate action of the nurse? a. Insert two large-bore IVs b. Elevate the head of the bed c. Insert an indwelling catheter d. Both a and c 54. A client begins to choke on food while eating in her room and a nurse is attempting to perform the Heimlich maneuver. After several seconds, the client becomes unconscious. What is the next action of the nurse? a. Continue to support the client's body weight by standing behind her and performing abdominal thrusts b. Ask a co-worker to hold the client while continuing to perform abdominal thrusts c. Ease the client to the ground and expose the chest d. Perform a blind finger sweep to remove any objects and begin rescue breathing 55. Which of the following actions is part of suture removal for a client following surgery? a. Cut the suture and pull the wire through the wound b. Avoid removing further sutures if wound dehiscence occurs c. Do not remove sutures that are embedded in the skin d. All of the above 56. Mrs. H has been diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Based on the risk factors associated with this condition, which of the following background information is most likely true for Mrs. H? a. Mrs. H is younger than 30 years old b. Mrs. H has a BMI of 31 c. Mrs. H is Caucasian d. Mrs. H has four children 57. Based on Mrs. H's diagnosis, which of the following complications is she most likely to develop? a. Anemia b. Hyperlipidemia c. Cirrhosis d. Stroke 58. Which of the following statements best describes postural drainage as part of chest physiotherapy? a. Tapping on the chest wall to loosen secretions b. Squeezing the abdomen to increase expansion of the upper chest c. Using gravity to move secretions in the lung tissue d. Dilating the trachea to facilitate better release of secretions 59. Mr. R has come into the emergency room after an injury at work in which his upper body was pinned between two pieces of equipment. The nurse notes bruising in the upper abdomen and chest. He is complaining of sharp chest pain, he has difficulty with breathing, and his trachea is deviated to the left side. Which of the following conditions are these symptoms most closely associated with? a. Left-sided pneumothorax b. Pleural effusion c. Atelectasis d. Right-sided pneumothorax 60. The physician has decided to perform a thoracentesis based on Mr. R's assessment. Which of the following actions from the nurse is most appropriate? a. Instruct the client not to talk during the procedure b. Assist the client to lie face-down on the bed c. Insert a 20-gauge needle just above the 4th intercostal space d. Connect the needle to suction to remove air that has collected in the pleural space 61. An 80-year old patient is admitted with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales and distended neck veins. As the nurse monitors the patient, he becomes increasingly short of breath and begins to have cardiac dysrhythmias. The most critical intervention for this patient is to: a. Ensure his airway is open and unobstructed. b. Apply oxygen to keep his oxygen saturation over 94%. c. Administer Dobutamine to increase cardiac output. d. Start an IV for monitoring of intake. 62. You are caring for a 20-year old patient with pericarditis. What is the likely cause of pericarditis in a young patient? a. Heart failure b. Acute MI c. Hypertension d. Infectious processes 63. A systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg is classified as: a. Normotensive b. Prehypertension c. Stage I hypertension d. Stage II hypertension 64. Your patient has been diagnosed with acute bronchitis. You should expect that all of the following will be ordered EXCEPT: a. Increased fluid intake b. Cough medications c. Antibiotics d. Use of a vaporizer. 65. You are caring for an asthmatic patient with an early-phase reaction. Which of the following is indicative of an early phase reaction? a. Rapid bronchospasms b. Inflammatory epithelial lesions c. Increased secretions d. Increased mucosal edema 66. Clinical manifestations of asthma include: a. Decreased expiratory time b. Increased peak expiratory flow c. Increased use of accessory muscles d. Increased oxygen saturation 67. What drives respiration in a patient with advanced chronic respiratory failure? a. Hypoxemia b. Hypocapnia c. Hypercapnia d. None of the above 68. Which of the following is NOT a warning sign that compensatory mechanisms in a patient in shock are failing? a. Increasing heart rate above normal for the patient's age. b. Absent peripheral pulses. c. Decreasing level of consciousness. d. Increasing blood pressure. 69. How does shock usually progress? a. Compensated to hypotensive shock in hours and hypotensive shock to cardiac arrest in minutes b. Compensated to hypotensive shock in minutes and hypotensive shock to cardiac arrest in hours c. Hypotensive to compensated shock in hours and compensated shock to cardiac arrest in minutes d. Hypotensive to compensated shock in minutes and compensated shock to cardiac arrest in hours 70. Septic, anaphylactic and neurogenic shock are all categorized as: a. Hypovolemic shock b. Cardiogenic shock c. Distributive shock d. Obstructive shock 71. Which of the following is TRUE about shock? a. A patient with severe shock always has an abnormally low blood pressure b. Confusion and deteriorating mentation are indicative of hypotensive shock. c. Patients with compensated shock may be unable to maintain a normal blood pressure. d. A normal blood pressure implies that the patient is stable. 72. Signs and symptoms of stroke may include all of following EXCEPT: a. Sudden weakness or numbness of the face, arm or leg. b. Sudden confusion. c. Sudden headache with no known cause. d. Hypotension. 73. Which of the following may cause coup-contrecoup injuries? a. Rotational forces b. Deformation forces c. Deceleration forces d. Acceleration forces 74. Meningitis that is fatal in half of the infected patients is caused by a: a. Virus b. Bacteria c. Fungus d. Noninfectious agent 75. Which of the following may alter the level of consciousness in a patient? a. Alcohol b. Electrolytes c. Infection d. All of the above may cause altered level of consciousness e. Both a and c only 76. The term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation in a 24-year-old woman is: a. Oligomenorrhea b. Amenorrhea c. Menorrhagia d. Metrorrhagia 77. Which of the following diseases, or disorders, is acute? a. Pneumonia b. Paralysis c. Alzheimer's disease d. Diabetes 78. You are caring for Thomas N. Thomas is 77 years old. He has edema, or swelling, in his legs and he has a fluid restriction in terms of his fluid intake. You have been assigned to weigh him daily. Based on these symptoms and the care that he is being given, what disorder is he most likely affected with? a. Diabetes b. Dementia c. Congestive heart failure d. Continguous heart disease 79. The major difference between a grand mal and petit mal seizure is that a person with a grand mal seizure will have and the person with a petit mal seizure will not. a. convulsive movements b. sleep apnea c. atonic movement d. flaccidity 80. Your patient has shown the following signs and symptoms : Feeling very thirsty Large amount of water intake Dryness of the mouth Urinary frequency What physical disorder does this patient most likely have? a. Diabetes b. Angina c. Hypertension d. Hypotension 81. Which fact about diabetes is true? a. Only children get type 1 diabetes. b. Only adults get type 2 diabetes. c. Children and adults can have type 1 diabetes. d. Both a and b 82. Diabetic patients are more prone to than other people without this chronic disorder. a. infection b. increased oxygen saturation c. low fibrinogen d. constipation 83. A common childhood illness is caused by the Bordatella pertussis bacterium. Which of the following diseases is caused by this bacteria? a. German Measles b. RSV c. Meningitis d. Whooping Cough 84. Which of the following glands found in the skin secretes a liquid called, "Sebum?" a. Apocrine Glands b. Sebaceous Glands c. Lacrimal Glands d. Sweat Glands 85. A patient that has been diagnosed with alopecia would be described as having: a. body lice b. lack of ear lopes c. Indigestion d. hair loss 86. A patient presents with vesicles covering the upper torso. Which of the following situations could cause this condition? a. Knife fight b. Auto accident c. Sun burn d. Fungal infection 87. A child is diagnosed with a Greenstick Fracture. Which of the following most accurately describes the broken bone? a. compound fracture of the fibula b. a partial break in a long bone c. fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist d. Colles fracture of the tibia 88. When reading a lab report, you notice that a patient's sample is described as having anisocytosis. Which of the following most accurately describes the patient's condition? a. The patient has an abnormal condition of skin cells. b. The patient's red blood cells vary in size. c. The patient has a high level of fat cells and is obese. d. The patient's cells are indicative of necrosis. 89. A patient with Bell's Palsy would have which of the following complaints? a. Paralysis of the right or left arm b. Malfunction of a certain cranial nerve c. A sub-condition of Cerebral Palsy d. A side effect of a stroke 90. A pathologic condition described as, "Increased intraocular pressure of the eye," is: a. Detached Retina b. Fovea Centralis c. Presbyopia d. Glaucoma 91. A physician believes that a patient may be experiencing pancreatitis. Which of the following tests would be best to diagnose this condition? a. CK and Troponin b. BUN and Creatinine c. Amylase and Lipase d. HDL and LDL Cholesterol Levels 92. A patient presents to the office with a pencil that has completely penetrated the palm of her hand. Which of the following treatments would be BEST in this situation? a. Assist the doctor while she sedates the patient and removes the pencil from her hand. b. Have the patient gently pull the pencil out of her hand and assist the physician with stitches. c. Wrap a gauze wrap around the pencil, securing it as much as possible until the patient can get to a local emergency room. d. Tell the patient to go the local emergency room. With a doctor's order, give the patient some aspirin for the pain. 93. What is the most common complication of chest wall injury? a. Hemothorax b. Atelectasis c. Pneumonia d. Pneumothorax 94. Of the following, which best describes why subdural hemorrhages are more common in the elderly? a. Increased anticoagulant use b. Increased risk of falls c. Brain atrophy d. Inconsistent care giving 95. Of the following, which is the most common type of malignant brain tumor in the United States? a. Meningioma b. Glioblastoma multiforme c. Acoustic neuroma d. Pituitary adenoma 96. Renal failure is broadly divided into specific categories. Which type is the type II diabetic patient most likely to experience secondary to the diabetes? a. Acute renal failure (ARF) b. Intermittent renal failure (IRF) c. Chronic renal failure (CRF) d. Reversable renal failure (RRF) 97. Many nurses are not comfortable dealing with the topic of suicide with a patient who may be at risk. Of the following, what would be an appropriate action if a patient uses language indicative of suicidal intentions? a. Ask if the patient has a plan b. Ask the patient to describe details of the plan c. Ask the patient to agree to a no-harm contract d. All of the above [Show More]

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