2020 NCLEX-RN TEST PREP: PHARMACOLOGY (STUDY MODE PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH: ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS

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PHARMACOLOGY (TEST MODE) 1. A drug form in which medication particles are instilled into a liquid and combined through agitation of the solution is called: a. Suspension b. Elixir c. Syrup ... d. Tincture 2. Following a dose of medication, a client develops inflamed mucous membranes and nasal discharge. What type of minor reaction is this client experiencing? a. Urticaria b. Pruritis c. Hives d. Rhinitis 3. Mr. Y is receiving medication through a catheter that has been placed into the subarachnoid space of his spinal column. What route of medication administration is this called? a. Intrapleural b. Intraosseous c. Intrathecal d. Intraperitoneal 4. A client is having difficulties swallowing a large tablet of medication. Which of the following interventions from the nurse may best assist this client? a. Help the client to lie down while taking the medication b. Obtain an order to give the medication intravenously instead c. Dissolve the tablet in a glass of pineapple juice d. Assist the client to drink a full glass of water when taking the tablet 5. A nurse is attempting to find the ventrogluteal muscle to administer an intramuscular medication. In which method does the nurse find this site? a. The nurse places her palm on the client's hip at the level of the greater trochanter, pointing the thumb toward the client's groin and administering the injection between the first and second fingers b. The nurse measures two finger-widths below the acromion process and administers the injection at this point c. The nurse estimates the upper and outer quadrant of the buttock and gives the injection 3 inches below the iliac crest d. The nurse grasps the muscle of the upper thigh and administers the injection 6 inches above the knee 6. A nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition for a client. The solution contains 12% dextrose and 5% amino acids. Which of the following sites is most appropriate to administer this solution? a. Left radial arterial line b. Right subclavian catheter c. Left peripheral intravenous catheter d. Both a and c 7. Mr. S is complaining of pain following a surgical procedure. The nurse checks his orders and finds that he has an order for meperidine 25 mg prn q 4 hrs for shivering. What is the next action of the nurse? a. Give 25mg of the medication and use it for pain b. Contact the pharmacy to clarify the purpose of the medication c. Check the medication record for other prn pain medications d. Administer 12.5 mg of the medication and document that the client was shivering 8. Which of the following medications is an example of an adjuvant drug? a. Ibuprofen b. Fentanyl c. Hydromorphone d. Hydroxyzine 9. Which of the following is a potential complication of administering a dorsogluteal intramuscular injection? a. Striking the bone of the humerus with the needle b. Inserting the needle into the sciatic nerve c. Causing extravasation of medication into the subcutaneous tissues d. Causing an air embolus in the superior iliac artery 10. A nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository to a client. After applying gloves, checking the client's identification band, and closing the door, what is the next step of the nurse? a. Assist the client to lie in the Trendelenburg position b. Unwrap the suppository and lubricate the end c. Remove gloves and wash hands d. Record the date, time, and amount of suppository to give 11. Mr. F has been prescribed isocarboxazid, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, as part of treatment for depression. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid while taking this drug? a. Wine b. Sweet potatoes c. Spinach d. Apple juice 12. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who suffers from heart failure. What must the nurse consider before administering this medication? a. The presence of pitting edema in the lower extremities b. The sound of rales on lung auscultation c. The rate of the apical pulse d. The presence of jaundiced skin 13. A client has been taking his antianxiety medications for four years, even though he no longer struggles with acute anxiety. Instead, he has a routine of taking the medication each evening and feels better knowing that he has taken it. Which of the following best describes this action? a. Physiologic need b. Physiologic dependence c. Drug abuse d. Drug habituation 14. Which of the following is a disadvantage of taking medication through an oral route? a. The drug may be absorbed too rapidly b. The drug may have a bad taste c. The drug is more expensive to use d. Both a and b 15. One tablespoon of medication is equal to how many milliliters of fluid? a. 5 ml b. 15 ml c. 30 ml d. 60 ml 16. Which of the following must the nurse consider before administering medications through a nasogastric tube? a. The nurse must determine whether a tablet can be crushed b. The nurse must use 5 cc of cold water to instill the medication c. The nurse must aspirate from the tube after giving the medication d. The nurse must immediately reconnect low-intermittent suction after the medication 17. What gauge of needle is most appropriate when giving an adult a subcutaneous injection? a. 16 gauge b. 18 gauge c. 24 gauge d. 30 gauge 18. Which is the most appropriate muscle site for an intramuscular injection for a 9-month old child? a. Deltoid b. Ventrogluteal c. Dorsogluteal d. Vastus lateralis 19. A nurse is caring for a client who is breastfeeding her baby. Which of the following medications can the nurse administer to this client? a. Aspirin b. Lipitor c. Prednisone d. Amiodarone 20. A nurse is administering a blood transfusion when the client begins to complain of a headache and difficulty breathing. His blood pressure is 170/110 mmHg. What is the next action of the nurse? a. Administer a sedative and analgesic as directed b. Assist the client to sit upright and slow the transfusion c. Check the client's urinary output d. Assist the client to lie supine in the Trendelenburg position 21. A nurse is caring for a client who has a triple-lumen, peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) in the right arm. Which of the following is a consideration when working with this type of central line? a. The client should be restricted to showers only, no baths b. The nurse should flush one of the ports with saline solution every 8 hours c. The nurse should avoid taking a blood pressure in the right arm d. The client should avoid exercise until the PICC has been removed 22. A nurse is caring for a client who has low blood pressure. The physician has ordered dopamine 2 mcg/kg/min on a continuous infusion. The nurse notes that the client weights 186 pounds. What is the appropriate rate for this infusion? a. 168 mcg/min b. 372 mcg/min c. 168 mg/min d. 372 mg/min 23. A nurse needs to administer 15 units of regular insulin and 20 units of NPH subcutaneously to a client with diabetes. In what order does the nurse draw these medications? a. Draw 20 units of NPH, then 15 units of regular, in the same syringe b. Draw 15 units of regular, then 20 units of NPH, in the same syringe c. Draw 15 units of regular, then 20 units of NPH, in different syringes d. Draw 5 units of regular, then 20 units of NPH, then 10 more units of regular, in different syringes 24. When preparing to give a client a narcotic analgesic, which of the following information should the nurse provide as part of education? a. Take the medication on an empty stomach b. Lie down for one hour after taking the medication c. The medication may cause constipation d. The medication may cause heartburn 25. A nurse is caring for a client who is recovering from surgery. He is complaining of pain rated at a "9" on a 0-10 scale. The nurse administers 2 mg Morphine Sulfate for pain control. After the medication, the client falls asleep, his blood pressure is 95/48, and his heart rate is 62 bpm. After ten minutes, the client awakens and asks for more pain medicine, rating his pain at an "8." What is the most appropriate action of the nurse? a. Administer 2mg of Morphine Sulfate b. Check the medication record for a non-narcotic analgesic c. Tell the client that he cannot have any more medication d. Contact the physician about the client's vital signs 26. After administering a drug, the time when the body first starts to respond to the medication is called: a. Plateau b. Peak plasma level c. Onset of action d. Drug half-life 27. Which of the following abbreviations is acceptable to use as part of medication documentation? a. Q.O.D. b. MS c. IU d. prn 28. How many milliliters are equal to one quart of fluid? a. 250 ml b. 500 ml c. 1000 ml d. 2000 ml 29. A nurse receives an order for Iansoprazole (Prevacid) 15 mg daily. The medication is available in syrup form of 5 mg/ml. How many milliliters must this nurse give? a. 5 ml b. 1 ml c. 3 ml d. 15 ml 30. A nurse asks her coworker to administer Mr. J's 12pm medication because she is running behind. Which of the following information must the nurse verify with Mr. J before giving him his medication? a. His name and address b. His name and hospital identification number c. His name and room number d. His name and diagnosis 31. Which of the following is more likely to occur with aging as a complication of medication administration? a. Increased renal function b. Increased gastrointestinal absorption c. Increased visual acuity d. Increased ratio of fat compared to lean body mass 32. Which of the following interventions should the nurse consider when giving an oral medication to a child? a. Mix the medication with milk to mask the taste b. Dilute the medication in a glass of water c. Refeed the medication if the child pushes it out with his tongue d. Mix the medication in a food the child enjoys 33. Which of the following methods best describes administration of an intradermal injection? a. Pull the skin taut and insert the needle bevel-up just slightly under the skin; inject medication to create a wheal b. Pull the skin taut and insert the needle bevel-down just slightly under the skin; inject medication to create a wheal c. Pinch the skin and insert the needle bevel-down into the skin fold to create a wheal d. Pinch the skin and insert the needle bevel-up at a 45-degree angle into the skin 34. Which of the following is a disadvantage of administering intravenous medications through the IV-push method? a. It is impossible to determine the full effect of the drug on the client b. The drug may be irritating to the client's veins c. The peak onset of action is slower when a drug is given IV-push d. None of the above 35. A nurse is preparing to administer an ophthalmic medication to Mrs. W. Which of the following statements demonstrates that the nurse is performing this procedure correctly? a. Open your eyes wide and look toward the floor." b. I will hold your eyelashes to keep your eye open." c. I'm going to give this drop in the lower part of your eye." d. Try to keep your eyes open after I give this medicine." 36. Which of the following effects does obesity have on drug distribution? a. Drugs are distributed more quickly in obese persons because blood flow is increased through fat tissue b. Drugs are distributed more slowly in obese persons because blood flow is decreased through fat tissue c. Obesity has a paradoxical effect on drug distribution in that blood flow is decreased but distribution is increased d. Obesity has no effect on drug distribution 37. Which of the following is a potential side effect of ibuprofen? a. Headache b. Urinary retention c. Hematuria d. Low blood pressure 38. Mr. B is recovering from anesthesia after surgery. During the case, he was given opioid analgesics, but now his respiratory rate is only 8 respirations per minute. Which of the following medications may be most appropriate at this time? a. Amobarbital b. Flurazepam c. Phenytoin d. Naloxone hydrochloride 39. Which of the following is an adverse effect of diuretics? a. Hypokalemia b. High blood pressure c. Decreased BUN d. Anxiety 40. Mr. R is being seen in his physician's office for swollen and painful joints. The most obvious joint affected is his great toe, which has become large, red, and painful. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for this condition? a. Docusate sodium b. Bismuth subsalicylate c. Allopurinal d. Cromolyn sodium 41. Which of the following interventions reduces the risk of infection when administering an intramuscular injection? a. Draw up the solution approximately 5 minutes before administration b. Keep the tip of the needle covered until administration c. Clean the skin with an antiseptic swab in a ½-inch radius d. Check the client's temperature immediately after administering the injection 42. A nurse is attempting to start an IV in a client's arm and is having difficulty with finding a vein to use. The client's skin is cold. Which intervention of the nurse may improve this situation? a. Raise the client's hand so that it remains at a level above the heart b. Place a warm pack on the clients arm for 5 minutes before looking for a vein c. Instruct the client to drink a quart of warm water d. Apply a tourniquet 12 inches above the IV site 43. A client is being admitted on a routine basis for fluids to correct an electrolyte balance. Which of the following sites is most appropriate for starting an IV in this client? a. A vein in the antecubital fossa b. A vein in the dominant hand c. A vein in the foot d. A vein in the non-dominant hand 44. Which of the following interventions best helps to facilitate insertion of an intravenous catheter? a. Ask the client to look away during the procedure b. Puncture the skin at a 5 to 10-degree angle c. Advance the catheter until resistance is met d. Secure the device at a 45-degree angle to the skin 45. All of the following actions are components of a peripherally inserted IV dressing change EXCEPT: a. Remove the current dressing b. Cleanse the areas under the dressing c. Pat the area dry with a towel d. Apply the new dressing and label it with the date 46. A client with an IV is complaining of pain at the insertion site. There is a bruise at the site, the skin is tender, and the IV fluid will not flow. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms? a. Hematoma b. Phlebitis c. Extravasation d. Venous spasm 47. Which of the following solutions is compatible with administration of packed red blood cells? a. Lactated Ringer's b. 0.9% Normal Saline c. D5 ½ Normal Saline d. Normosol-R 48. Which of the following is an example of a colloid solution? a. 5% Dextrose in water (D5W) b. Albumin c. Lactated Ringer's d. Normal Saline 49. A nurse is preparing to administer packed red cells for Mr. H when she realizes that he does not have an IV. What is the minimum size of catheter the nurse must use in this situation? a. 30 gauge b. 28 gauge c. 24 gauge d. 20 gauge 50. A nurse is caring for a client who has been ordered to receive a rapid infusion of packed cells to support his intravascular blood volume. She starts to administer the blood at a fast drip rate and realizes that the blood is not infusing. Which of the following actions may the nurse perform to correct this situation? a. Raise the client's arm above his head b. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position c. Place a pressure bag around the blood container d. Start a new IV and simultaneously administer a second unit of blood 51. Which of the following actions is part of preparation of a medication from an ampule? a. Snap the neck of the ampule toward the body b. Hold the ampule upside down when drawing up the medication c. Expel excess air bubbles back into the ampule d. Always use the same needle for drawing as the one used for the injection 52. A nurse is preparing to add a medication to an IV that is already infusing for a client. Which of the following practices is most appropriate for this process? a. Draw the medication to be added from a vial using sterile technique b. Inject the solution through the air vent port of the IV bag c. Shake the bag vigorously after the medication has been added d. Clamp the IV tubing for 30 minutes after adding the medication 53. Which of the following information should the nurse tell a client who needs to use a metered-dose inhaler? a. Shake the inhaler after using b. Place the mouthpiece in the mouth before compressing the inhaler c. Take a breath and hold it before compressing the inhaler d. Immediately repeat the next compression if more than one puff is ordered 54. Which of these clients is the best candidate for using patient-controlled analgesia? a. An 86-year old man in the memory disorders unit b. A 6-year old boy with a tibia-fibula fracture c. A 56-year old man post-op day #1 after a hernia repair d. A 70-year old woman with end-stage brain cancer 55. Which of the following clients is most likely to benefit from receiving a peripheral nerve block? a. A client undergoing a cesarean section b. A client undergoing an appendectomy c. A client undergoing a cervical discectomy d. A client undergoing a total knee replacement 56. Mrs. V is a pregnant client who is receiving fluid and electrolyte therapy after being diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. The nurse enters Mrs. V's room to find that she has a decreased level of consciousness, fever, and is sweating profusely. Her urine specific gravity is 1.026 and her hematocrit level is 55%. Which of the following conditions most likely explains this situation? a. Third-space syndrome b. Fluid volume excess c. Fluid volume deficit d. Hyperosmolar imbalance 57. Which of the following clients is most likely in need of fluid restriction? a. A 67-year man with cor pulmonale b. An 86-year old man with recent vomiting c. A 24-year old pregnant woman d. A 47-year old woman with severe burns 58. A nurse has been given an order for a 20 cc bolus to a client with a central line. The only syringes she has available are 5 or 10 cc in size. What is the most appropriate action of the nurse? a. Give 4 boluses of 5 cc each b. Give 2 boluses of 10 cc each c. Find a 20 cc syringe d. Either b or c 59. Mr. L is in the emergency room with a traumatic amputation. The physician determines that he needs a rapid infusion of packed red cells. Mr. L is unconscious and the nurse does not know his blood type. Which of the following blood types might be the safest to use in this situation? a. Type A- b. Type AB+ c. Type B- d. Type O- 60. Which of the following describes a benefit of using a Groshong® tunneled catheter? a. It does not require regular heparin flushes b. It is less prone to kinks in the line when compared with other central catheters c. It can easily be placed at the bedside by a certified nurse d. It does not require an x-ray to confirm placement 61. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform when changing a cap on a central line catheter? a. Open the supplies just before starting b. Unclamp the catheter c. Cleanse the catheter cap with povidone-iodine d. Change each lumen on different days of the week 62. A nurse is caring for a 5-year old child who just had an appendectomy. The physician wrote orders regarding pain control, diet, and fluid administration. The nurse reads the order that says "Maintain IV D5W at a rate of 500 cc/hr." What is the most appropriate action of the nurse in this situation? a. Administer the fluid at the prescribed rate b. Take the client's blood pressure before changing the IV rate c. Administer the fluid at 50 cc/hr instead d. Contact the physician for clarification of orders 63. A nurse is teaching a client to care for a Broviac® catheter at home. Which statement from the client indicates understanding of the teaching? a. I don't need to wash my hands unless they are visibly soiled." b. If there is drainage at the insertion site, I should notify my physician." c. I should wash my hands after I take off the old dressing." d. I should use either rubbing alcohol or water to clean the end of the catheter." 64. Which of the following actions should the nurse consider when working with a multi-dose medication vial? a. Discard the vial after two uses b. Clean the stopper with 70% alcohol before each use c. Puncture the vial with only one needle and connect multiple syringes d. All of the above 65. What common drug can be administered to treat wheezing in a patient with infectious pneumonitis? a. Dexamethasone b. ibuprofen c. albuterol d. None of the above. 66. A doctor writes out a prescription for medication to be taken as needed for pain. Which of the following abbreviations could the nurse expect to see on the prescription form? a. CHF b. ATB c. Ac d. Prn 67. A patient has been diagnosed with a mycotic condition. Which of the following drug types would be used to treat this condition? a. Antifungal b. Antiarrhythmic c. Diuretic d. Antiemetic 68. Which of the following abbreviations means, "before meals"? a. Ac b. Prn c. Qid d. Qh 69. Which of the following anticoagulants would be found in a light blue vacutainer tube? a. EDTA b. Sodium Oxalate c. Lithium Heparin d. Sodium Citrate 70. If a doctor's order calls for the administration of 500 mg of medication, how many grams should be given? a. 500 b. 50 c. 0.5 d. 5 71. Which of the following medications would be given to treat vomiting? a. Simvistatin b. Acetaminophen c. Lisinopril d. Promethazine 72. A patient has been diagnosed with an irregular heartbeat. Which of the following medications would be prescribed to treat this condition? a. Antiarrhythmic b. Antipsychotic c. Cathartic d. Antiseptic 73. Which of the following drugs would be used to treat GERD? a. Claritin b. Nexium c. Nuprin d. Celebrex 74. Of the following medications, which is not used to treat depression? a. sertraline hydrochloride b. paroxetine hydrochloride c. Citalopram d. Nifedipine 75. A doctor's order is written to give a patient a medication using a non- parenteral route. Which of the following is a non-parenteral route of medication administration? a. Rectal Suppository b. Intracardiac c. IV drip d. IM injection 76. A patient is morbidly obese. Which of the following needles would be best to give an IM injection in the deltoid? a. 25 gauge 5/8 inch b. 27 gauge 1/2 inch c. 21 gauge needle 1 1/2 inches d. 16 gauge needle 3 inch 77. When giving an injection of insulin, which of the following is TRUE? a. The deltoid muscle is the preferred injection site for insulin. b. The angle of the needle should be 90 degrees. c. The site should not be massaged after medication administration. d. All of the above are true. 78. Buccal administration of medications: a. should be done under the tongue. b. are done to allow controlled dosing through the mucosa. c. are best to use in small children. d. All of the above. 79. If a medication order states that 300 mg of medication are to be given q.i.d. for 10 days, how many total milligrams of medication will be given over those 10 days? a. 3000 mg b. 9000 mg c. 12000 mg d. None of the above. 80. A doctor orders 500 mg of medication. Available in stock are one gram tablets. How many tablets should be given to the patient? a. One b. Two c. One half d. Three quarters 81. Which class of medications is foundational to treating the patient with delirium tremens (DTs)? a. Phenothiazines b. Butyrophenones c. Benzodiazepines d. Anticonvulsants 82. Monica is a new nurse and has gone home for the day after giving her report. When your patient asks for prn pain medication, which has been ordered as a dosage range, you note that Monica has entries for administration almost every two hours in the morning, but nothing since then. You cannot be sure when the patient last received his medication or what the dosage was. What is the most appropriate next action? a. Complete an incident report b. Contact the nurse manager c. Contact Monica and confirm administration d. Give the medication anyway 83. The route of administration that allows medication the quickest onset of action is . a. IM b. PO c. PR d. IV 84. Hospitalized patients who are allowed to administer pain medications to themselves are connected to a PCA or . a. Patient Connected Anesthetic b. Patient Communicated Analgesic c. Patient Controlled Analgesic d. Patient Communicated Anesthetic 85. Which of the following would be an acceptable route for the delivery of parental nutrition for an NPO patient? a. Pills b. intravenous c. Liquids only d. Aspirate 86. IV push and IV piggy back are different nicknames for the same method of administering medication. a. True b. False 87. After administering a drug, the time when the body first starts to respond to the medication is called: a. Plateau b. Peak plasma level c. Onset of action d. Drug half-life 88. The Controlled Substance Act categorizes substances into groups based on varying qualifications such as currently accepted medical use and potential for abuse. a. three b. four c. five d. six 89. If a patient received a prescription for Ventolin HFA with the instructions 2 puffs TID, how many puffs per day is the patient instructed to take? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 10 90. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation for electrocardiogram? a. EKG b. EEG c. ECG d. Both a and c 91. A PRN order is an order for a medication that is used on a(n) basis in a hospital. a. regular b. everyday c. as-needed d. nightly 92. Systemic action pertains to action throughout the body and not at the of administration. a. site b. time c. source d. method 93. The duration of a drug's action is commonly referred to as its . a. half-life b. response time c. efficacy d. action potential 94. What do palliative drugs do? a. Prevent symptoms b. Cure symptoms c. Relieve symptoms d. Trigger symptoms 95. A physician order for a 120 mg dose of Gentamycin 40mg/mL should be filled with of Gentamycin. a. 80 mL b. 5 mL c. 3 mL d. 60 mL 96. A physician order for a 75 mg dose of Ancef 2mg/mL should be filled with mL. a. 20.5 mL b. 32.5 mL c. 37.5 mL d. 40.5 mL 97. How many units are in 1 mL of insulin? a. 100 b. 10 c. 50 d. 5 98. A prescription for Amoxicillin 250 mg capsules, 1 cap po tid x 10 days should be filled with . a. 15 capsules b. 20 capsules c. 30 capsules d. 35 capsules 99. How many ounces make up one cup? a. 8 b. 16 c. 32 d. 60 100. There are ounces (oz.) in a pound (lb). a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 16 101. Milli- is equal to . a. One billionth of the basic unit b. One millionth of the basic unit c. One thousandth of the basic unit d. One hundredth of the basic unit 102. A fluid ounce is made up of how many mL? a. 30 b. 65 c. 454 d. 2 103. Kilo- is equal to . a. One billionth of a basic unit b. One millionth of a basic unit c. 100 times the basic unit d. 1,000 times the basic unit 104. How many cc's make up one pint? a. 280 b. 380 c. 480 d. 580 105. How many quarts make up a gallon? a. 10 b. 3 c. 5 d. 4 106. How many micrograms (mcg) make up 1 milligram (mg)? a. 10 b. 100 c. 1,000 d. 10,000 107. There are milligrams (mg) in a gram (g). a. 10 b. 100 c. 1,000 d. 10,000 108. A teaspoonful is the same measurement as . a. 1 mL b. 2 mL c. 3 mL d. 5 mL 109. If a patient is receiving 7 liters of IV fluids over 10 hours, how many ml will the patient receive per minute? a. 12.8 b. 11.5 c. 11.7 d. 13.2 110. If a patient is receiving 3.5 liters of IV fluids at a rate of 7 ml per minute how many hours will the IV fluid last? a. 6.4 b. 7.3 c. 8.3 d. 9.2 111. A patient is receiving 1.8 liters of fluid over 5 hours from an infusion set that delivers 5 gtt/ml. How many drops per minute will be administered to the patient? a. 6 gtt/min b. 20 gtt/min c. 24 gtt/min d. 30 gtt/min 112. A patient is receiving a 4 liter IV infusion that contains 750 mg of heparin. If the patient is receiving 5 mg/minute of heparin, how many hours will the infusion last? a. 1 hour b. 1.5 hours c. 2 hours d. 2.5 hours 113. A 150 pound man is receiving a 1 liter IV containing 500 mg of Zofran over 8 hours. If the patient is receiving 2 ml/minute of IV fluid, how many mg of Zofran per minute is the patient receiving? a. 1 mg b. 2 mg c. 3 mg d. 4 mg 114. How many ounces are in one pint? a. 10 b. 12 c. 14 [Show More]

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