NUR 372 MED-SURG Practice questions (EXTRA) – Mami Dade College | NUR372 MED-SURG Practice questions (EXTRA) – QUESTIONS ONLY

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NUR 372 MED-SURG Practice questions (EXTRA) – Mami Dade College 500 Practice Questions _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
1. According to Maslow, which of the following categor... ies of needs represents the most basic?
a) Physiologic needs
Physiologic needs must be met before an individual is able to move toward psychological health and well-being.
b) Self-actualization
Self-actualization is the highest level of need
c) Safety and security needs
Safety and security needs, while lower level, are not essential to physiologic survival.
d) Belongingness
Belongingness and affection needs are not essential to physiologic survival.
2. Which of the following statements reflects the World Health Organization’s definition of health?
a) A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity.
Such a definition, however, does not allow for any variations in the degrees of wellness or illness.
b) A condition of homeostatis and adaptation.
The WHO definition addresses physical, mental, and social dimensions of being.
c) An individual’s location along a wellness–illness continuum.
The concept of a health–illness continuum allows for a greater range in describing a person’s health than the definition provided by the WHO.
d) A fluid, ever-changing balance reflected through physical, mental, and social behavior.
The WHO definition does not allow for any variations in the degrees of wellness and illness.
3. Which of the following statements defines culture?
a) The learned patterns of behavior, beliefs, and values that can be attributed to a particular group of people.
Included among characteristics that distinguish cultural groups are manner of dress, values, artifacts, and health beliefs and practices.
b) A group of people distinguished by genetically transmitted material.
A group of people distinguished by genetically transmitted material describes the term race.
c) The status of belonging to a particular region by origin, birth, or naturalization.
The status of belonging to a particular region by origin, birth, or naturalization describes the term nationality.
d) The classification of a group based upon certain distinctive characteristics.
The classification of a group based upon certain distinctive characteristics describes the term ethnicity.
4. The reason that case management has gained such prominence in health care can be traced to
a) decreased cost of care associated with inpatient stay.
The reasons case management has gained such prominence can be traced to the decreased cost of care associated with decreased length of hospital stay, coupled with rapid and frequent inter-unit transfers from specialty to standard care units.
b) increased length of hospital stay.
In general, length of hospital stay has decreased over the past 5 years.
c) discharge from specialty care units to home.
In general, patients are transferred from specialty care units to standard care units at least 24 hours prior to discharge.
d) limited availability for inter-unit hospital transfers.
In general, patients in acute care hospitals undergo frequent inter-unit transfers from specialty to standard care units.
5. A preferred provider organization is described as a
a) business arrangement between hospitals and physicians.
PPO’s usually contract to provide health care to subscribers, usually businesses, for a negotiated fee that often is discounted.
b) prepaid group health practice system.
A prepaid group health practice system is termed a health maintenance organization.
c) limited insurance program.
Insurance is a cost payment system of shared risk, not a health care delivery system.
d) health care savings account program.
A health care savings account program is an incentive program to consumers, not a health care delivery system.
6. Which of the following categories identifies the focus of community/public health nursing practice?
a) Promoting and maintaining the health of populations and preventing and minimizing the progress of disease
Although nursing interventions used by public health nurses might involve individuals, families, or small groups, the central focus remains promoting health and preventing disease in the entire community.
b) Rehabilitation and restorative services
Rehabilitation and restorative services are the focus of extended care facilities and home care nursing.
c) Adaptation of hospital care to the home environment
Adaptation of hospital care to the home environment is the focus of home nursing.
d) Hospice care delivery
Hospice care delivery refers to the delivery of services to the terminally ill.
7. A major goal for home care nurses is
a) restoring maximum health function.
Tertiary preventive nursing care, focusing on rehabilitation and restoring maximum health function, is a goal for home care nurses.
b) promoting the health of populations.
Promoting the health of populations is a focus of community/public health nursing.
c) minimizing the progress of disease.
Minimizing the progress of disease is a focus of community/public health nursing.
d) maintaining the health of populations.
Maintaining the health of populations is a focus of community/public health nursing.
8. In the United States, nurses performing invasive procedures need to be up-to-date with their immunizations, particularly
a) hepatitis B.
Hepatitis B is transmitted through contact with infected blood or plasma.
b) hepatitis E.
Hepatitis E is found mainly in underdeveloped countries with substandard sanitation and water quality.
c) hepatitis A.
hepatitis A is transmitted through the oral route from the feces and saliva of an infected person.
d) hepatitis C.
At present, immunization against hepatitis C is not available.
9. At what time during a patient’s hospital stay does discharge planning begin?
a) Admission
To prepare for early discharge and the possible need for follow-up in the home, discharge planning begins with the patient’s admission.
b) Twenty-four hours prior to discharge
Discharge planning requires identification of patient needs and anticipatory guidance and is not relegated to a specific time for beginning.
c) The shift prior to discharge
Discharge planning requires communication with and cooperation of the patient, family, and health care team and is not relegated to a specific time for beginning.
d) By the third hospital day
Discharge planning may require involvement of personnel and agencies in the planning process and is not relegated to a specific day of hospital stay.
10. The leading health problems of elementary school children include
a) cancer.
The leading health problems of elementary school children are injuries, infections, malnutrition, dental disease, and cancer.
b) alcohol and drug abuse.
Alcohol and drug abuse are leading health problems for high school students.
c) mental and emotional problems.
Mental and emotional problems are leading health problems for high school students.
d) homicide.
Homicide is a leading health problem for high school children. 11. Which skill needed by the nurse to think critically involves identification of patient problemsindicated by data?
a) Analysis
Analysis is used to identify patient problems indicated by data.
b) Interpretation
Interpretation is used to determine the significance of data that is gathered.
c) Inferencing
Inferences are used by the nurse to draw conclusions.
d) Explanation
Explanation is the justification of actions or interventions used to address patient problemsand to help a patient move toward desired outcomes.
12. The ethics theory that focuses on ends or consequences of actions is the
a) utilitarian theory.
Utilitarian theory is based on the concept of the greatest good for the greatest number.
b) formalist theory.
Formalist theory argues that moral standards exist independently of the ends or consequences.
c) deontological theory.
Deontological theory argues that moral standards exist independently of the ends or consequences.
d) adaptation theory.
Adaptation theory is not an ethics theory.
13. Which of the following ethical principles refers to the duty to do good?
a) Beneficence
Beneficence is the duty to do good and the active promotion of benevolent acts.
b) Fidelity
Fidelity refers to the duty to be faithful to one’s commitments.
c) Veracity
Veracity is the obligation to tell the truth.
d) Nonmaleficence
Nonmaleficence is the duty not to inflict, as well as to prevent and remove, harm; it is more binding than beneficence.
14. During which step of the nursing process does the nurse analyze data related to the patient’s health status?
a) Assessment
Analysis of data is included as part of the assessment.
b) Implementation
Implementation is the actualization of the plan of care through nursing interventions.
c) Diagnosis
Diagnosis is the identification of patient problems.
d) Evaluation
Evaluation is the determination of the patient’s responses to the nursing interventions and the extent to which the outcomes have been achieved.
15. The basic difference between nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems is that
a) nurses manage collaborative problems using physician-prescribed interventions.
Collaborative problems are physiologic complications that nurses monitor to detect onset or changes and manage through the use of physician-prescribed and nursing-prescribedinterventions to minimize the complications of events.
b) collaborative problems can be managed by independent nursing interventions.
Collaborative problems require both nursing and physician-prescribed interventions.
c) nursing diagnoses incorporate physician-prescribed interventions.
Nursing diagnoses can be managed by independent nursing interventions.
d) nursing diagnoses incorporate physiologic complications that nurses monitor to detect change in status.
Nursing diagnoses refer to actual or potential health problems that can be managed by independent nursing interventions.
16. Health education of the patient by the nurse
a) is an independent function of nursing practice.
Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts.
b) requires a physician’s order.
Teaching, as a function of nursing, is included in all state nurse practice acts.
c) must be approved by the physician.
Health education is a primary responsibility of the nursing profession.
d) must focus on wellness issues.
Health education by the nurse focuses on promoting, maintaining, and restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.
17. Nonadherence to therapeutic regimens is a significant problem for which of the following age groups?
a) Adults 65 and over
Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are managed with numerous medications and complicated by periodic acute episodes, making adherence difficult.
b) Teenagers
Problems of teenagers, generally, are time limited and specific, and require promoting adherence to treatment to return to health.
c) Children
In general, the compliance of children depends on the compliance of their parents.
d) Middle-aged adults
Middle-aged adults, in general, have fewer health problems, thus promoting adherence.
18. Experiential readiness to learn refers to the patient’s
a) past history with education and life experience.
Experiential readiness refers to past experiences that influence a person’s ability to learn.
b) emotional status.
Emotional readiness refers to the patient’s acceptance of an existing illness or the threat of an illness and its influence on the ability to learn.
c) acceptance of an existing illness.
Emotional readiness refers to the patient’s acceptance of an existing illness or the threat of an illness and its influence on the ability to learn.
d) ability to focus attention.
Physical readiness refers to the patient’s ability to cope with physical problems and focus attention upon learning.
19. Asking the patient questions to determine if the person understands the health teaching provided would be included during which step of the nursing process?
a) Evaluation
Evaluation includes observing the person, asking questions, and comparing the patient’s behavioral responses with the expected outcomes.
b) Assessment
Assessment includes determining the patient’s readiness regarding learning.
c) Planning and goals
Planning includes identification of teaching strategies and writing the teaching plan.
d) Implementation
Implementation is the step during which the teaching plan is put into action.
20. Which of the following items is considered the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs?
a) History of present illness
The history of the present illness is the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs.
b) Physical examination
The physical examination is helpful but often only validates the information obtained from the history.
c) Diagnostic test results
Diagnostic test results can be helpful, but they often only verify rather than establish the diagnosis.
d) Biographical data
Biographical information puts the health history in context but does not focus the diagnosis. 21. Of the following areas for assessing the patient profile, which should be addressed after the others?
a) Body image
The patient is often less anxious when the interview progresses from information that is less personal to information that is more personal.
b) Education
Educational level is relatively impersonal and readily revealed by the patient.
c) Occupation
Occupation is relatively impersonal and readily revealed by the patient.
d) Environment
Housing, religion, and language are relatively impersonal and readily revealed by the patient.
 - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 480. If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should
a) call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office.
Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision of diagnostic support and eventual release of vaccine if a case is confirmed. Until instructed otherwise by the CDC, healthcare providers should carefully establish isolation with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.
b) immediately vaccinate the patient and anyone in contact with the patient.
The CDC will provide diagnostic support and will release the vaccine if the patient is confirmed to have smallpox.
c) establish isolation with positive pressure.
Isolation with negative pressure should be established.
d) Assess the patient for signs of a rash similar to chickenpox in appearance and progression.
The lesions associated with smallpox may appear similar in appearance, but the progression is very different from that of chickenpox. Smallpox lesions will appear to be at the same stage of development as the rash progresses from macules to papules to pustules to scabs. This progression is very different from that of chickenpox. With chickenpox, lesions appear at different developmental stages. 481. The six elements necessary for infection are a causative organism, a reservoir of available organisms, a portal or mode of exit from the reservoir, a mode of transmission from reservoir to host, a susceptible host, and a
a) mode of entry to host.
The six elements necessary for infection are a causative organism, a reservoir of available organisms, a portal or mode of exit from the reservoir, a mode of transmission from reservoirto host, a susceptible host, and a mode of entry to host.
b) mode of exit from the host.
A mode of entry to the host, not a mode of exit from the host, is necessary for infection.
c) virulent host.
The six elements necessary for infection are a causative organism, a reservoir of available organisms, a portal or mode of exit from the reservoir, a mode of transmission from reservoirto host, a susceptible host, and a mode of entry to host.
d) latent time period.
The six elements necessary for infection are a causative organism, a reservoir of available organisms, a portal or mode of exit from the reservoir, a mode of transmission from reservoirto host, a susceptible host, and a mode of entry to host.
482. Which of the following statements reflect what is known about the Ebola and Marburg viruses?
a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa.
The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa, or who has handled animals or animal carcasses from those parts of the world.
b) Treatment during the acute phase includes administration of acyclovir, and ventilator and dialysis support.
No antivirals have been approved or show promise against the viruses. Treatment must be largely supportive maintenance of the circulatory system and respiratory systems. It is likely that the infected patient would need ventilator and dialysis support through the acute phases of illness.
c) The viruses can be spread only by airborne exposure.
The viruses can be spread by exposure to blood or other body fluid, insect bite, and mucous membrane exposure.
d) Symptoms include severe lower abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and dehydration.
Symptoms include fever, rash, and encephalitis which progress rapidly to profound hemorrhage, organ destruction, and shock.
483. Bubonic plague occurs
a) after the organism enters through the skin.
Bubonic refers to enlarged lymph nodes that develop after the organism enters through the skin. Bubonic plague is the form seen most frequently, as the organism is transferred from rodents or other animals to humans by insect bite.
b) occurs after the organism is inhaled..
Pneumonic plague occurs after the organism is inhaled. Only pneumonic plague can be contagious from person to person by an airborne route.
c) occurs when the organism causes a bloodstream infection.
Septicemic plague occurs when the organism causes a bloodstream infection usually secondary to either pneumonic or bubonic, but sometimes without either entity.
d) after the organism is transferred by human to human contact.
Bubonic plague is the form seen most frequently, as the organism is transferred from rodents or other animals to humans by insect bite.
484. The term given to the category of triage that refers to life-threatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is
a) emergent.
The patient triaged as emergent must be seen immediately.
b) urgent.
The triage category of urgent refers to minor illness or injury needing first-aid-level treatment.
c) immediate.
The triage category of immediate refers to non-acute, non-life-threatening injury or illness.
d) non-acute.
The triage category of immediate refers to non-acute, non-life-threatening injury or illness.
485. When the patient has been field triaged and categorized as blue, the nurse recognizes that the patient requires
a) fast-track or psychological support.
When a patient is categorized as blue, field triage has identified fast-track or psychological support needs.
b) emergent care.
Field triaged patients who require emergent care will be categorized as red.
c) immediate care.
Field triaged patients who require immediate care will be categorized as yellow.
d) urgent care.
Field triaged patients who require urgent care will be categorized as green.
486. Which of the following guidelines is appropriate to helping family members cope with sudden death?
a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch.
The nurse should encourage the family to view and touch the body if they wish, since this action helps the family to integrate the loss.
b) Inform the family that the patient has passed on.
The nurse should avoid using euphemisms such as passed on.
c) Obtain orders for sedation for family members.
The nurse should avoid giving sedation to family members, since this may mask or delay the grieving process.
d) Provide details of the factors attendant to the sudden death.
The nurse should avoid volunteering unnecessary information (e.g., patient was drinking at the time of the accident).
487. Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient?
a) Lactated Ringer’s solution
Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.
b) Type O negative blood
O negative blood is prepared for emergency use in women of childbearing age.
c) Dextrose 5% in water
Dextrose 5% in water should not be used to replace fluids in hypovolemic patients.
d) Hypertonic saline
Hypertonic saline is used only to treat severe symptomatic hyponatremia and should be used only in intensive care units.
488. Induction of vomiting is indicated for the accidental poisoning patient who has ingested
a) aspirin.
Overdose of aspirin should be treated with emesis or lavage, followed by ingestion of activated charcoal to absorb the aspirin.
b) rust remover.
Rust remover is an alkaline product, which is corrosive, and induced vomiting is contraindicated.
c) gasoline.
Gasoline is a petroleum distillate, and induced vomiting is contraindicated.
d) toilet bowl cleaner.
Toilet bowl cleaners are corrosive, and induced vomiting is contraindicated.
489. Which of the following phases of psychological reaction to rape is characterized by fear and flashbacks?
a) Heightening anxiety phase
During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, hyperalertness, and psychosomatic reactions, in addition to fear and flashbacks.
b) Acute disorganization phase
The acute disorganization phase is characterized by shock, disbelief, guilt, humiliation, and anger.
c) Denial phase
The denial phase is characterized by an unwillingness to talk.
d) Reorganization phase
The reorganization phase occurs when the incident is put into perspective. Some patients never fully recover from rape trauma.
490. When preparing for an emergency bioterroism drill, the nurse instructs the drill volunteers that each biological agents requires specific patient management and medications to combat the virus, bacteria, or toxin. Which of the following statements reflect the patient management of variola virus (small pox)?
a) Small pox spreads rapidly and requires immediate isolation.
Small pox is spread by droplet or direct contact. There are no antiviral agents effective against small pox, however vaccination within two to three days of exposure is protective.
b) Acyclovir is effective against smallpox.
There are no antiviral agents effective against small pox; however, vaccination within two to three days of exposure is protective.
c) Small pox is spread by inhalation of spores.
Small pox is spread by droplet or direct contact. It spreads rapidly and requires immediate isolation. Even in death, the disease can be transmitted.
d) Vaccination is effective only if administered within 12 to 24 hours of exposure.
Vaccination within two to three days of exposure of the small pox virus is protective. In four to five days, it may prevent death and should be administered with vaccinia immune globulin. 491. Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of pulmonary anthrax (B. anthracis)?
a) Prophylaxis with fluoroquinone is suggested after exposure.
Treatment is with ciprofloxacin or doxycycline.
b) Airborne person-to-person transmission occurs.
Anthracis is a spore forming bacteria resulting in gastrointestinal, pulmonary, and skin symptoms. Symptoms are dependent upon contact, ingestion, or inhalation of the spores. Routine universal precautions are effective. Anthrax survives in the spore form for long periods making the body a potential source of infection for morticians.
c) Diagnosis is by pulmonary function testing and chest x-ray.
Blood cultures are required to confirm the bacteria’s presence and diagnosis.
d) Pulmonary effects include respiratory failure, shock, and death within five to seven days after exposure.
The pulmonary effects include respiratory failure, shock, and death within 24-36 hours after exposure.
492. Which of the following terms refers to injuries that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery?
a) Crush injuries
Crush injuries are those that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery.
b) Blunt trauma
Blunt trauma is commonly associated with extra-abdominal injuries to the chest, head, or extremities.
c) Penetrating abdominal injuries
Penetrating abdominal injuries include those such as gunshot wounds and stab wounds.
d) Intra-abdominal injuries
Intra-abdominal injuries are categorized as penetrating and blunt trauma.
493. A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning
a) appears intoxicated.
A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning appears intoxicated (from cerebral hypoxia). Other signs and symptoms include headache, muscular weakness, palpitation, dizziness, and mental confusion.
b) presents with severe hypertension. 494. Treatment of an acetaminophen overdose includes the administration of
a) N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
Treatment of acetaminophen overdose includes administration of N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
b) flumazenil (Romazicon).
Flumazenil is administered in the treatment of nonbarbituate sedative overdoses.
c) naloxone (Narcan).
Naloxone (Narcan) is administered in the treatment of narcotic overdoses.
d) diazepam (Valium).
Diazepam (Valium) may be administered to treat uncontrolled hyperactivity in the patient with a hallucinogen overdose.
495. Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of the patient with a white phosphorus chemical burn?
a) Do not apply water to the burn.
Water should not be applied to burns from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.
b) Immediately drench the skin with running water from a shower, hose or faucet.
Water should not be applied to burns from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.
c) Alternate applications of water and ice to the burn.
Water should not be applied to burns from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.
d) Wash off the chemical using warm water, then flush the skin with cool water.
Water should not be applied to burns from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.
496. During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has
a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.
A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.
b) injuries that are life-threatening but survivable with minimal intervention.
A red triage tag (priority 1 or immediate) indicates injuries that are life-threatening but survivable with minimal intervention.
c) injuries that are significant and require medical care, but can wait hours without threat to life or limb.
A yellow triage tag (priority 2 or delayed) indicates injuries that are significant and require medical care, but can wait hours without threat to life or limb.
d) indicates injuries that are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely even with definitive care.
A black triage tag (priority 4 or expectant) indicates injuries that are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely even with definitive care.
497. If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure?
a) 48 to 72
The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.
b) 6 to 12
The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.
c) 12 to 24
The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.
d) 24 to 48
The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.
498. Which of the following refers to a management tool for organizing personnel, facilities, equipment, and communication for any emergency situation?
a) The Incident Command System
The Incident Command System (ICS) is a management tool for organizing personnel, facilities, equipment and communication for any emergency situation. The federal government mandates that the ICS be used during emergencies. Under this structure, one person is designated as incident commander. This person must be continuously informed of all activities and informed about any deviation from the established plan. While the ICS is primarily a field structure and process, aspects of it are used at the level of an individual hospital’s emergency response plan as well.
b) Office of Emergency Management
Office of Emergency Management (OEM) coordinates the disaster relief efforts at the state and local levels. The OEM is responsible for providing interagency coordination during an emergency. It maintains a corps of emergency management personnel, including responders, planners, and administrative and support staff.
c) National Disaster Medical System
National Disaster Medical System (NDMS). The NDMS has many medical support teams such as Disaster Medical Assistance Teams (DMATs) that provide medical personnel to set up and staff a field hospital.
d) The Hospital Emergency Preparedness Plan
The Hospital Emergency Preparedness Plan is a facility-specific plan for emergency preparedness required by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO).
499. Which of the following terms refers to a process by which an individual receives education about recognition of stress reactions and management strategies for handling stress?
a) Defusing
Defusing is a process by which the individual receives education about recognition of stress reactions and management strategies for handling stress. It is a component of critical incident stress management (CISM).
b) Debriefing
Debriefing is a more complicated intervention of critical incident stress management (CISM); it involves 2- to 3- hour process during which participants are asked about their emotional reactions to the incident, what symptoms they may be experiencing (e.g., flashbacks, difficulty sleeping, intrusive thoughts) and other psychological ramifications.
c) Follow-up
In follow-up, members of the critical incident stress management (CISM) team contact the participants of a debriefing and schedule a follow-up meeting if necessary. People with ongoing stress reactions are referred to mental health specialists.
d) Critical incident stress management
Critical incident stress management (CISM) is an approach to preventing and treating the emotional trauma that can affect emergency responders as a consequence of their jobs but that can also occur to anyone involved in a disaster or mass casualty incident.
500. The first step in decontamination is
a) removal of the patient’s clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water.
To be effective, decontamination must include a minimum of two steps. The first step is removal of the patient’s clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. The second step consists of a thorough soap and water wash and rinse.
b) a thorough soap and water wash and rinse of the patient.
A thorough soap and water wash and rinse of the patient is the second step in the decontamination process. The first is to remove the patient’s clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water.
c) to immediately apply personal protective equipment.
To be effective, decontamination must include a minimum of two steps. The first step is removal of the patient’s clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. The second step consists of a thorough soap and water wash and rinse.
d) to immediately apply a chemical decontamination foam to the area of contamination.
To be effective, decontamination must include a minimum of two steps. The first step is removal of the patient’s clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. The second step consists of a thorough soap and water wash and rinse. Answers [Show More]

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