NURS 206 Mental Health Questions and Answers,100% CORRECT

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NURS 206 Mental Health Questions and Answers Chapter 02: Mental Health and Mental Illness 1. An 86-year-old, previously healthy and independent, falls after an episode of vertigo. Which behavior b... y this patient best demonstrates resilience? The patient: a. says, I knew this would happen eventually. b. stops attending her weekly water aerobics class. c. refuses to use a walker and says, I don’t need that silly thing. d. says, Maybe some physical therapy will help me with my balance. ANS: D Resiliency is the ability to recover from or adjust to misfortune and change. The correct response indicates that the patient is hopeful and thinking positively about ways to adapt to the vertigo. Saying I knew this would happen eventually and discontinuing healthy activities suggest a hopeless perspective on the health change. Refusing to use a walker indicates denial. 2. A patient is admitted to the psychiatric hospital. Which assessment finding best indicates that the patient has a mental illness? The patient: a. describes coping and relaxation strategies used when feeling anxious. b. describes mood as consistently sad, discouraged, and hopeless. c. can perform tasks attempted within the limits of own abilities. d. reports occasional problems with insomnia. ANS: B A patient who reports having a consistently negative mood is describing a mood alteration. The incorrect options describe mentally healthy behaviors and common problems that do not indicate mental illness. 3. The goal for a patient is to increase resiliency. Which outcome should a nurse add to the plan of care? Within 3 days, the patient will: a. describe feelings associated with loss and stress. b. meet own needs without considering the rights of others. c. identify healthy coping behaviors in response to stressful events. d. allow others to assume responsibility for major areas of own life. ANS: C The patients ability to identify healthy coping behaviors indicates adaptive, healthy behavior and demonstrates an increased ability to recover from severe stress. Describing feelings associated with loss and stress does not move the patient toward adaptation. The remaining options are maladaptive behaviors. 4. Which organization actively seeks to reduce the stigma associated with mental illness through public presentations such as In Our Own Voice (IOOV)? a. American Psychiatric Association (APA) b. National Alliance on Mental Illness (NAMI) c. United States Department of Health and Human Services (USDHHS) d. North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International (NANDA-I) ANS: B Stigma represents the bias and prejudice commonly held regarding mental illness. NAMI actively seeks to dispel misconceptions about mental illness. NANDA-I defines approved nursing diagnoses. The APA publishes the DSM 5. The USDHHS regulates and administers health policies. 5. A nurse must assess several new patients at a community mental health center. Conclusions concerning current functioning should be made on the basis of: a. the degree of conformity of the individual to society’s norms. b. the degree to which an individual is logical and rational. c. a continuum from mentally healthy to unhealthy. d. the rate of intellectual and emotional growth. ANS: C Because mental health and mental illness are relative concepts, assessment of functioning is made by using a continuum. Mental health is not based on conformity; some mentally healthy individuals do not conform to society’s norms. Most individuals occasionally display illogical or irrational thinking. The rate of intellectual and emotional growth is not the most useful criterion to assess mental health or mental illness. 6. A nurse at a behavioral health clinic sees an unfamiliar psychiatric diagnosis on a patients insurance form. Which resource should the nurse consult to discern the criteria used to establish this diagnosis? a. A psychiatric nursing textbook b. NANDA International (NANDA-I ) c. A behavioral health reference manual d. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) ANS: D The DSM-5 gives the criteria used to diagnose each mental disorder. The NANDA-I focuses on nursing diagnoses. A psychiatric nursing textbook or behavioral health reference manual may not contain diagnostic criteria. 7. A 40-year-old adult living with parents states, Im happy but I dont socialize much. My work is routine. When new things come up, my boss explains them a few times to make sure I understand. At home, my parents make decisions for me, and I go along with them. A nurse should identify interventions to improve this patients: a. self-concept. b. overall happiness. c. appraisal of reality. d. control over behavior. ANS: A The patient feels the need for multiple explanations of new tasks at work and, despite being 40 years of age, allows both parents to make all decisions. These behaviors indicate a poorly developed self-concept. Although the patient reports being happy, the subsequent comments refute that self-appraisal. The patients comments do not indicate that he/she is out of touch with reality. The patients needs are broader than control over own behavior. 8. A patient tells a nurse, I have psychiatric problems and am in and out of hospitals all the time. Not one of my friends or relatives has these problems. Select the nurses best response. a. Comparing yourself with others has no real advantages. b. Why do you blame yourself for having a psychiatric illness? c. Mental illness affects 50% of the adult population in any given year. d. It sounds like you are concerned that others dont experience the same challenges as you. ANS: D Mental illness affects many people at various times in their lives. No class, culture, or creed is immune to the challenges of mental illness. The correct response also demonstrates the use of reflection, a therapeutic communication technique. It is not true that mental illness affects 50% of the population in any given year. Asking patients if they blame themselves is an example of probing. 9. A critical care nurse asks a psychiatric nurse about the difference between a diagnosis in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) and a nursing diagnosis. Select the psychiatric nurses best response. a. No functional difference exists between the two diagnoses. Both serve to identify a human deviance. b. The DSM-5 diagnosis disregards culture, whereas the nursing diagnosis includes cultural variables. c. The DSM-5 diagnosis profiles present distress or disability, whereas a nursing diagnosis considers past and present responses to actual mental health problems. d. The DSM-5 diagnosis influences the medical treatment; the nursing diagnosis offers a framework to identify interventions for problems a patient has or may experience. ANS: D The medical diagnosis, defined according to the DSM-5, is concerned with the patients disease state, causes, and cures, whereas the nursing diagnosis focuses on the patients response to stress and possible caring interventions. Both the DSM-5 and a nursing diagnosis consider culture. Nursing diagnoses also consider potential problems. 10. The spouse of a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia says, I dont understand why childhood experiences have anything to do with this disabling illness. Select the nurses response that will best help the spouse understand this condition. a. Psychological stress is actually at the root of most mental disorders. b. We now know that all mental illnesses are the result of genetic factors. c. It must be frustrating for you that your spouse is sick so much of the time. d. Although this disorder more likely has a biological rather than psychological origin, the support and involvement of caregivers is very important. ANS: D Many of the most prevalent and disabling mental disorders have been found to have strong biological influences. Helping the spouse understand the importance of his or her role as a caregiver is also important. Empathy is important but does not increase the spouses level of knowledge about the cause of the patients condition. Not all mental illnesses are the result of genetic factors. Psychological stress is not at the root of most mental disorders. 11. Which belief by a nurse supports the highest degree of patient advocacy during a multidisciplinary patient care planning session? a. All mental illnesses are culturally determined. b. Schizophrenia and bipolar disorder are cross-cultural disorders. c. Symptoms of mental disorders are constant from culture to culture. d. Some symptoms of mental disorders may reflect a persons cultural patterns. ANS: D A nurse who understands that a patients symptoms are influenced by culture will be able to advocate for the patient to a greater degree than a nurse who believes that culture is of little relevance. All mental illnesses are not culturally determined. Schizophrenia and bipolar disorder are cross-cultural disorders, but this understanding has little relevance to patient advocacy. Symptoms of mental disorders change from culture to culture. 12. A patients history shows intense and unstable relationships with others. The patient initially idealizes an individual and then devalues the person when the patients needs are not met. Which aspect of mental health is a problem? a. Effectiveness in work b. Communication skills c. Productive activities d. Fulfilling relationships ANS: D The information provided centers on relationships with others, which are described as intense and unstable. The relationships of mentally healthy individuals are stable, satisfying, and socially integrated. Data are not present to describe work effectiveness, communication skills, or activities. 13. In the majority culture of the United States, which individual is at greatest risk to be incorrectly labeled mentally ill? a. Person who is usually pessimistic but strives to meet personal goals b. Wealthy person who gives $20 bills to needy individuals in the community c. Person with an optimistic viewpoint about life and getting his or her own needs met d. Person who attends a charismatic church and describes hearing Gods voice ANS: D Hearing voices is generally associated with mental illness; however, in charismatic religious groups, hearing the voice of God or a prophet is a desirable event. In this situation, cultural norms vary, making it more difficult to make an accurate DSM-5 diagnosis. The individuals described in the other options are less likely to be labeled as mentally ill. 14. A participant at a community education conference asks, What is the most prevalent type of mental disorder in the United States? Select the nurse’s best response. a. Why do you ask? b. Schizophrenia c. Affective disorders d. anxiety disorders ANS: D The prevalence for schizophrenia is 1.1% per year. The prevalence of all affective disorders (e.g., depression, dysthymic disorder, bipolar) is 9.5%. The prevalence of anxiety disorders is 13.3%. 15. A nurse wants to find a description of diagnostic criteria for a person diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which resource should the nurse consult? a. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services b. Journal of the American Psychiatric Association c. North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International (NANDA-I) d. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) ANS: D The DSM-5 identifies diagnostic criteria for psychiatric diagnoses. The other sources have useful information but are not the best resources for finding a description of the diagnostic criteria for a psychiatric disorder. Select All That Apply 1. A patient in the emergency department reports, I hear voices saying someone is stalking me. They want to kill me because I found the cure for cancer. I will stab anyone that threatens me. Which aspects of mental health have the greatest immediate concern to a nurse? Select all that apply. a. Happiness b. Appraisal of reality c. Control over behavior d. Effectiveness in work e. Healthy self-concept ANS:B,C,E The aspects of mental health of greatest concern are the patients appraisal of and control over behavior. The patients appraisal of reality is inaccurate, and auditory hallucinations are evident, as well as delusions of persecution and grandeur. In addition, the patients control over behavior is tenuous, as evidenced by the plan to stab anyone who seems threatening. A healthy self-concept is lacking. Data are not present to suggest that the other aspects of mental health (happiness and effectiveness in work) are of immediate concern. 2. Which statements most clearly reflect the stigma of mental illness? Select all that apply. a. Many mental illnesses are hereditary. b. Mental illness can be evidence of a brain disorder. c. People claim mental illness so they can get disability checks. d. If people with mental illness went to church, they would be fine. e. Mental illness is a result of the breakdown of the American family. ANS:C,D,E Stigma is represented by judgmental remarks that discount the reality and validity of mental illness. Many mental illnesses are genetically transmitted. Neuroimaging can show changes associated with some mental illnesses. Chapter 03: Theories and Therapies 1. A 26-month-old child displays negative behaviors. The parent says, My child refuses toilet training and shouts, No! when given direction. What do you think is wrong? Select the nurses best reply. a. This is normal for your childs age. The child is striving for independence. b. The child needs firmer control. Punish the child for disobedience and say, No. c. There may be developmental problems. Most children are toilet trained by age 2 years. d. Some undesirable attitudes are developing. A child psychologist can help you develop a remedial plan. ANS: A These negative behaviors are typical of a child around the age of 2 years whose developmental task is to develop autonomy. The incorrect options indicate the childs behavior is abnormal. 2. A 26-month-old child displays negative behavior, refuses toilet training, and often shouts, No! when given directions. Using Freuds stages of psychosexual development, a nurse would assess the childs behavior is based on which stage? a. Oral b. Anal c. Phallic d. Genital ANS: B In Freuds stages of psychosexual development, the anal stage occurs from age 1 to 3 years and has, as its focus, toilet training and learning to delay immediate gratification. The oral stage occurs between birth and 1 year, the phallic stage occurs between 3 and 5 years, and the genital stage occurs between 13 and 20 years. 3. A 26-month-old child displays negative behavior, refuses toilet training, and often shouts, No! when given direction. The nurses counseling with the parent should be based on the premise that the child is engaged in which of Eriksons psychosocial crises? a. Trust versus Mistrust b. Initiative versus Guilt c. Industry versus Inferiority d. Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt ANS: D The crisis of Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt is related to the developmental task of gaining control of self and environment, as exemplified by toilet training. This psychosocial crisis occurs during the period of early childhood. Trust versus Mistrust is the crisis of the infant, Initiative versus Guilt is the crisis of the preschool and early school-aged child, and Industry versus Inferiority is the crisis of the 6- to 12-year-old child. 4. A 4- year-old child grabs toys from siblings, saying, I want that toy now! The siblings cry, and the childs parent becomes upset with the behavior. Using the Freudian theory, a nurse can interpret the childs behavior as a product of impulses originating in the: a. id. b. ego. c. superego. d. preconscious. ANS: A The id operates on the pleasure principle, seeking immediate gratification of impulses. The ego acts as a mediator of behavior and weighs the consequences of the action, perhaps determining that taking the toy is not worth the parents wrath. The superego would oppose the impulsive behavior as not nice. The preconscious is a level of awareness. 5. The parent of a 4-year-old rewards and praises the child for helping a younger sibling, being polite, and using good manners. A nurse supports the use of praise because, according to the Freudian theory, these qualities will likely be internalized and become part of the childs: a. id. b. ego. c. superego. d. preconscious. ANS: C In the Freudian theory, the superego contains thou shalts or moral standards internalized from interactions with significant others. Praise fosters internalization of desirable behaviors. The id is the center of basic instinctual drives, and the ego is the mediator. The ego is the problem-solving and reality-testing portion of the personality that negotiates solutions with the outside world. The preconscious is a level of awareness from which material can be easily retrieved with conscious effort. 6. A nurse supports parental praise of a child who is behaving in a helpful way. When the individual behaves with politeness and helpfulness in adulthood, which feeling will most likely result? a. Guilt b. Anxiety c. Loneliness d. Self-esteem ANS: D The individual will be living up to the ego ideal, which will result in positive feelings about self. The other options are incorrect; each represents a negative feeling. 7. A patient comments, I never know the right answer and My opinion is not important. Using Eriksons theory, which psychosocial crisis did the patient have difficulty resolving? a. Initiative versus Guilt b. Trust versus Mistrust c. Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt d. Generativity versus Self-Absorption ANS: C These statements show severe self-doubt, indicating that the crisis of gaining control over the environment is not being successfully met. Unsuccessful resolution of the crisis of Initiative versus Guilt results in feelings of guilt. Unsuccessful resolution of the crisis of Trust versus Mistrust results in poor interpersonal relationships and suspicion of others. Unsuccessful resolution of the crisis of Generativity versus Self- Absorption results in self- absorption that limits the ability to grow as a person. 8. Which patient statement would lead a nurse to suspect that the developmental task of infancy was not successfully completed? a. I have very warm and close friendships. b. Im afraid to let anyone really get to know me. c. I am always right and confident about my decisions. d. Im ashamed that I didnt do it correctly in the first place. ANS: B According to Erikson, the developmental task of infancy is the development of trust. The patients statement that he or she is afraid of becoming acquainted with others clearly shows a lack of ability to trust other people. Having warm and close friendships suggests the developmental task of infancy was successfully completed. Believing one is always right suggests rigidity rather than mistrust. Feelings of shame suggest failure to resolve the crisis of Initiative versus Guilt. 9. A nurse assesses that a patient is suspicious and frequently manipulates others. Using the Freudian theory, these traits are related to which psychosexual stage? a. Oral b. Anal c. Phallic d. Genital ANS: A According to Freud, each of the behaviors mentioned develops as the result of attitudes formed during the oral stage, when an infant first learns to relate to the environment. Anal stage traits include stinginess, stubbornness, orderliness, or their opposites. Phallic stage traits include flirtatiousness, pride, vanity, difficulty with authority figures, and difficulties with sexual identity. Genital stage traits include the ability to form satisfying sexual and emotional relationships with members of the opposite sex, emancipation from parents, and a strong sense of personal identity. 10. An adult expresses the wish to be taken care of and often behaves in a helpless fashion. This adult has needs related to which of Freuds stages of psychosexual development? a. Latency b. Phallic c. Anal d. Oral ANS: D According to Freud, fixation at the oral stage sometimes produces dependent infantile behaviors in adults. Latency fixations often result in a difficulty identifying with others and developing social skills, resulting in a sense of inadequacy and inferiority. Phallic fixations result in having difficulty with authority figures and poor sexual identity. Anal fixation sometimes results in retentiveness, rigidity, messiness, destructiveness, and cruelty. 11. A nurse listens to a group of recent retirees. One says, I volunteer with Meals on Wheels, coach teen sports, and do church visitation. Another laughs and says, Im too busy taking care of myself to volunteer. I dont have time to help others. These comments contrast which developmental tasks? a. Trust versus Mistrust b. Industry versus Inferiority c. Intimacy versus Isolation d. Generativity versus Self-Absorption ANS: D Both retirees are in middle adulthood, when the developmental crisis to be resolved is Generativity versus Self-Absorption. One exemplifies generativity; the other embodies self- absorption. The developmental crisis of Trust versus Mistrust would show a contrast between relating to others in a trusting fashion and being suspicious and lacking trust. Failure to negotiate the developmental crisis of Industry versus Inferiority would result in a sense of inferiority or difficulty learning and working as opposed to the ability to work competently. Behaviors that would be contrasted in the crisis of Intimacy versus Isolation would be emotional isolation and the ability to love and commit to oneself. 12. Cognitive therapy was provided for a patient who frequently said, I’m stupid. Which statement by the patient indicates the therapy was effective? a. I’m disappointed in my lack of ability. b. I always fail when I try new things. c. Things always go wrong for me. d. Sometimes I do stupid things. ANS: D I’m stupid is a cognitive distortion or irrational thought. A more rational thought is, Sometimes I do stupid things. The latter thinking promotes emotional self-control. The incorrect options reflect irrational thinking. 13. A student nurse tells the instructor, I don’t need to interact with my patients. I learn what I need to know by observation. The instructor can best interpret the nursing implications of Sullivan’s theory to the student by responding: a. Nurses cannot be isolated. We must interact to provide patients with opportunities to practice interpersonal skills. b. Observing patient interactions can help you formulate priority nursing diagnoses and appropriate interventions. c. I wonder how accurate your assessment of the patients needs can be if you do not interact with the patient. d. Noting patient behavioral changes is important because these signify changes in personality. ANS: A Sullivan believed that the nurses role includes educating patients and assisting them in developing effective interpersonal relationships. Mutuality, respect for the patient, unconditional acceptance, and empathy are cornerstones of Sullivans theory. The nurse who does not interact with the patient cannot demonstrate these cornerstones. Observations provide only objective data. Priority nursing diagnoses usually cannot be accurately established without subjective data from the patient. The third response pertains to Maslows theory. The fourth response pertains to behavioral theory. 14. A psychiatric technician says, Little of what takes place on the behavioral health unit seems to be theory based. A nurse educates the technician by identifying which common use of Sullivans theory? a. Structure of the therapeutic milieu of most behavioral health units b. Frequent use of restraint and seclusion for behavior modification c. Assessment tools based on age- appropriate versus arrested behaviors d. Use of the nursing process to determine the best sequence for nursing actions ANS: A The structure of the therapeutic environment has, as its foci, an accepting atmosphere and provision of opportunities for practicing interpersonal skills. Both constructs are directly attributable to Sullivans theory of interpersonal relationships. Sullivans interpersonal theory did not specifically consider the use of restraint or seclusion. Assessment based on the developmental level is associated with Eriksons theories. The nursing process applies concepts from multiple theories. 15. A nurse uses Maslows hierarchy of needs to plan care for a psychotic patient. Which problem will receive priority? The patient: a. refuses to eat or bathe. b. reports feelings of alienation from family. c. is reluctant to participate in unit social activities. d. needs to be taught about medication action and side effects. ANS: A The need for food and hygiene is physiological and therefore takes priority over psychological or meta- needs in care planning. 16. Operant conditioning will be used to encourage speech in a child who is nearly mute. Which technique would a nurse include in the treatment plan? a. Ignore the child for using silence. b. Have the child observe others talking. c. Give the child a small treat for speaking. d. Teach the child relaxation techniques, then coax speech. ANS: C Operant conditioning involves giving positive reinforcement for a desired behavior. Treats are rewards to reinforce speech. Ignoring the child will not change the behavior. Having the child observe others describes modeling. Teaching relaxation techniques and then coaxing speech is an example of systematic desensitization. 17. The parent of a child diagnosed with schizophrenia tearfully asks a nurse, What could I have done differently to prevent this illness? Select the nurses most caring response. a. Although schizophrenia is caused by impaired family relationships, try not to feel guilty. No one can predict how a child will respond to parental guidance. b. Most of the damage is done, but there is still hope. Changing your parenting style can help your child learn to cope more effectively with the environment. c. Schizophrenia is a biological illness with similarities to diabetes and heart disease. You are not to blame for your child’s illness. d. Most mental illnesses result from genetic inheritance. Your genes are more at fault than your parenting. ANS: C Patients and families need reassurance that the major mental disorders are biological in origin and are not the fault of parents. Knowing the biological nature of the disorder relieves feelings of guilt over being responsible for the illness. The incorrect responses are neither wholly accurate nor reassuring; they fall short of being reassuring and place the burden of having faulty genes on the shoulders of the parents. 18. A nurse uses Peplaus interpersonal therapy while working with an anxious, withdrawn patient. Interventions should focus on: a. changing the patients perceptions about self. b. improving the patients interactional skills. c. using medications to relieve anxiety. d. reinforcing specific behaviors. ANS: B The nurse-patient relationship is structured to provide a model for adaptive interpersonal relationships that can be generalized to others. Changing the patients perceptions about his- or herself would be appropriate for cognitive therapy. Reinforcing specific behaviors would be used in behavioral therapy. Using medications is the focus of biological therapy. 19. A patient underwent psychotherapy weekly for 3 years. The therapist used free association, dream analysis, and facilitated transference to help the patient understand unconscious processes and foster personality changes. Which type of therapy was used? a. Short-term dynamic psychotherapy b. Transactional analysis c. Cognitive therapy d. Psychoanalysis ANS: D The therapy described is traditional psychoanalysis. Short-term dynamic psychotherapy would last less than 1 year. Neither transactional analysis nor cognitive therapy makes use of the techniques described. 20. An advanced practice nurse determines a group of patients would benefit from therapy in which peers and interdisciplinary staff all have a voice in determining the level of the patients privileges. The nurse would arrange for: a. milieu therapy b. cognitive therapy c. short-term dynamic therapy d. systematic desensitization ANS: A Milieu therapy is based on the idea that all members of the environment contribute to the planning and functioning of the setting. The other therapies are all individual therapies that do not fit the description. 21. A nurse psychotherapist works with an anxious, dependent patient. The therapeutic strategy most consistent with the framework of psychoanalytic psychotherapy is: a. emphasizing medication compliance. b. identifying the patients strengths and assets. c. offering psychoeducational materials and groups. d. focusing on feelings developed by the patient toward the nurse. ANS: D Positive or negative feelings of the patient toward the nurse or therapist represent transference. Transference is a psychoanalytic concept that can be used to explore previously unresolved conflicts. Emphasizing medication compliance is more related to biological therapy. Identifying patient strengths and assets would be consistent with supportive psychotherapy. The use of psychoeducational materials is a common homework assignment used in cognitive therapy. 22. A person tells a nurse, I was the only survivor in a small plane crash, but three business associates died. I got anxious and depressed and saw a counselor three times a week for a month. We talked about my feelings related to being a survivor, and now Im fine, back to my old self. Which type of therapy was used? a. Milieu therapy b. Psychoanalysis c. Behavior modification d. Interpersonal therapy ANS: D Interpersonal therapy returns the patient to the former level of functioning by helping the patient come to terms with the loss of friends and guilt over being a survivor. Milieu therapy refers to environmental therapy. Psychoanalysis calls for a long period of exploration of unconscious material. Behavior modification focuses on changing a behavior rather than helping the patient understand what is going on in his or her life. 23. A cognitive strategy a nurse could use to assist a very dependent patient would be to help the patient: a. reveal dream content. b. take prescribed medications. c. examine thoughts about being autonomous. d. role model ways to ask for help from others. ANS: C Cognitive theory suggests that ones thought processes are the basis of emotions and behavior. Changing faulty learning makes the development of new adaptive behaviors possible. Revealing dream content would be used in psychoanalytical therapy. Taking prescribed medications is an intervention associated with biological therapy. A dependent patient needs to develop independence. 24. A single parent is experiencing feelings of inadequacy related to work and family since one teenaged child ran away several weeks ago. The parent seeks the help of a therapist specializing in cognitive therapy. The psychotherapist who uses cognitive therapy will treat the patient by: a. discussing ego states. b. focusing on unconscious mental processes. c. negatively reinforcing an undesirable behavior. d. helping the patient identify and change faulty thinking. ANS: D Cognitive therapy emphasizes the importance of changing erroneous ways people think about themselves. Once faulty thinking changes, the individuals behavior changes. Focusing on unconscious mental processes is a psychoanalytic approach. Negatively reinforcing undesirable behaviors is behavior modification, and discussing ego states relates to transactional analysis. 25. A person received an invitation to be in the wedding of a friend who lives across the country. The individual is afraid of flying. What type of therapy should the nurse recommend? a. Psychoanalysis b. Milieu therapy c. Systematic desensitization d. Short-term dynamic therapy ANS: C Systematic desensitization is a type of therapy aimed at extinguishing a specific behavior, such as the fear of flying. Psychoanalysis and short-term dynamic therapy are aimed at uncovering conflicts. Milieu therapy involves environmental factors. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY 1. A basic level registered nurse works with patients in a community setting. Which groups should this nurse expect to lead? Select all that apply. a. Symptom management b. Medication education c. Family therapy d. Psychotherapy e. Self-care ANS:A,B,E Symptom management, medication education, and self-care groups represent psychoeducation, a service provided by the basic level registered nurse. Advanced practice registered nurses provide family therapy and psychotherapy. 2. A patient states, I’m starting cognitive behavioral therapy. What can I expect from the sessions? Which responses by the nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply. a. The therapist will be active and questioning. b. You may be given homework assignments. c. The therapist will ask you to describe your dreams. d. The therapist will help you look at ideas and beliefs you have about yourself. e. The goal is to increase your subjectivity about thoughts that govern your behavior. ANS:A,B,D Cognitive therapists are active rather than passive during therapy sessions because they help patients to reality test their thinking. Homework assignments are given and completed outside the therapy sessions. Homework is usually discussed at the next therapy session. The goals of cognitive therapy are to assist the patient to identify inaccurate cognitions, to reality test their thinking, and to formulate new, accurate cognitions. Dream describing applies to psychoanalysis, not cognitive behavioral therapy. The desired outcome of cognitive therapy is to assist patients in increasing their objectivity, not subjectivity, about the cognitions that influence behavior. Chapter 04: Biological Basis for Understanding Psychopharmacology 1. A patient asks a nurse, What are neurotransmitters? My doctor says mine are out of balance. The best reply would be: a. You must feel relieved to know that your problem has a physical basis. b. Neurotransmitters are chemicals that pass messages between brain cells. c. It is a high-level concept to explain. You should ask the doctor to tell you more. d. Neurotransmitters are substances we eat daily that influence memory and mood. ANS: B Stating that neurotransmitters are chemicals that pass messages between brain cells gives the most accurate information. Neurotransmitters are messengers in the central nervous system. They are released from the axon terminal, diffuse across the synapse, and attach to specialized receptors on the postsynaptic neuron. The incorrect responses do not answer the patients question, are demeaning, and provide untrue and misleading information. 2. The parent of an adolescent diagnosed with schizophrenia asks a nurse, My childs doctor ordered a positron- emission tomography (PET) scan. What is that? Select the nurses best reply. a. PET uses a magnetic field and gamma waves to identify problems areas in the brain. Does your teenager have any metal implants? b. Its a special type of x-ray image that shows structures of the brain and whether a brain injury has ever occurred. c. PET is a scan that passes an electrical current through the brain and shows brain wave activity. PET can help diagnose seizures. d. PET is a special scan that shows blood flow and activity in the brain. ANS: D The parent is seeking information about PET scans. It is important to use terms the parent can understand. The correct option is the only reply that provides factual information relevant to PET scans. The incorrect responses describe magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), computed tomographic (CT) scans, and electroencephalography (EEG). 3. A patient has dementia. The health care provider wants to make a differential diagnosis between Alzheimer disease and multiple infarctions. Which diagnostic procedure should a nurse expect to prepare the patient for first? a. Computed tomography (CT) scan b. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan c. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) d. Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) scan ANS: A A CT scan shows the presence or absence of structural changes, including cortical atrophy, ventricular enlargement, and areas of infarction information that will be helpful to the health care provider. The other tests focus on brain activity and are more expensive; they may be ordered later. 4. A patient has delusions and hallucinations. Before beginning treatment with a psychotropic medication, the health care provider wants to rule out the presence of a brain tumor. For which test will a nurse need to prepare the patient? 21 a. Cerebral arteriogram b. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) c. Computed tomography (CT) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) d. Positron emission tomography (PET) or single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) ANS: C A CT scan and an MRI visualize neoplasms and other structural abnormalities. A PET scan, SPECT scan, and fMRI, which give information about brain function, are not indicated. An arteriogram would not be appropriate. 5. The nurse wants to assess for disturbances in circadian rhythms in a patient admitted for major depressive disorder. Which question best implements this assessment? a. Do you ever see or hear things that others do not? b. Do you have problems with short-term memory? c. What are your worst and best times of day? d. How would you describe your thinking? ANS: C Mood changes throughout the day are related to circadian rhythms. Questions about sleep pattern would also be relevant to circadian rhythms. The question about seeing or hearing things is relevant to the assessment for illusions and hallucinations. The question about thinking is relevant to the assessment of thought processes. The other question is relevant to assessment of memory. 6. A nurse administers a medication that potentiates the action of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA). Which finding would be expected? a. Reduced anxiety b. Improved memory c. More organized thinking d. Fewer sensory perceptual alterations ANS: A Increased levels of GABA reduce anxiety; thus any potentiation of GABA action should result in anxiety reduction. Memory enhancement is associated with acetylcholine and substance P. Thought disorganization is associated with dopamine. GABA is not associated with sensory perceptual alterations. 7. On the basis of current knowledge of neurotransmitter effects, a nurse anticipates that the treatment plan for a patient with memory difficulties may include medications designed to: a. inhibit GABA production. b. increase dopamine sensitivity. c. decrease dopamine at receptor sites. d. prevent destruction of acetylcholine. ANS: D Increased acetylcholine plays a role in learning and memory. Preventing the destruction of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase results in higher levels of acetylcholine, with the potential for improved memory. GABA is known to affect anxiety level rather than memory. Increased dopamine causes symptoms associated with schizophrenia or mania rather than improves memory. Decreasing dopamine at receptor sites is associated with Parkinson disease rather than improving memory. 8. A patient has disorganized thinking associated with schizophrenia. Neuroimaging would most likely show dysfunction in which part of the brain? a. Brainstem b. Cerebellum c. Temporal lobe d. Prefrontal cortex ANS: D The prefrontal cortex is responsible for intellectual functioning. The temporal lobe is responsible for the sensation of hearing. The cerebellum regulates skeletal muscle coordination and equilibrium. The brainstem regulates internal organs. 9. A nurse should assess a patient taking a medication with anticholinergic properties for inhibited function of the: a. parasympathetic nervous system. b. sympathetic nervous system. c. reticular activating system. d. medulla oblongata. ANS: A Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter found in high concentration in the parasympathetic nervous system. When acetylcholine action is inhibited by anticholinergic drugs, parasympathetic symptoms such as blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention appear. The functions of the sympathetic nervous system, the reticular activating system, and the medulla oblongata are not affected by anticholinergic medications. 10. The therapeutic action of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) blocks neurotransmitter reuptake, causing: a. increased concentration of neurotransmitters in the synaptic gap. b. decreased concentration of neurotransmitters in serum. c. destruction of receptor sites. d. limbic system stimulation. ANS: A If the reuptake of a substance is inhibited, then it accumulates in the synaptic gap and its concentration increases, permitting the ease of the transmission of impulses across the synaptic gap. Normal transmission of impulses across synaptic gaps is consistent with a normal rather than a depressed mood. The other options are not associated with blocking neurotransmitter reuptake. 11. A patient taking medication for mental illness develops restlessness and an uncontrollable need to be in motion. A nurse can correctly analyze that these symptoms are related to which drug action? a. Anticholinergic effects b. Dopamine-blocking effects c. Endocrine-stimulating effects d. Ability to stimulate spinal nerves ANS: B Medications that block dopamine often produce disturbances of movement such as akathisia because dopamine affects neurons involved in both the thought processes and movement regulation. Anticholinergic effects include dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation. Akathisia is not caused by endocrine stimulation or spinal nerve stimulation. 12. A patient has anxiety, increased heart rate, and fear. The nurse would suspect the presence of a high concentration of which neurotransmitter? a. GABA b. Histamine c. Acetylcholine d. Norepinephrine ANS: D Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter associated with sympathetic nervous system stimulation, preparing the individual for the fight or flight response. GABA is a mediator of anxiety level. A high concentration of histamine is associated with an inflammatory response. A high concentration of acetylcholine is associated with parasympathetic nervous system stimulation. 13. A patient has symptoms of acute anxiety related to the death of a parent in an automobile accident 2 hours earlier. The nurse should anticipate administering a medication from which group? a. Tricyclic antidepressants b. Atypical antipsychotics c. Anticonvulsants d. Benzodiazepines ANS: D Benzodiazepines provide anxiety relief. Tricyclic antidepressants are used to treat symptoms of depression. Anticonvulsants are used to treat bipolar disorder or seizures. Antipsychotic drugs are used to treat psychosis. 14. A patient is hospitalized for major depressive disorder. Of the medications listed, a nurse can expect to provide the patient with teaching about: a. chlordiazepoxide (Librium). b. fluoxetine (Prozac). c. clozapine (Clozaril). d. tacrine (Cognex). ANS: B Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), an antidepressant that blocks the reuptake of serotonin with few anticholinergic and sedating side effects; clozapine (Clozaril) is an antipsychotic medication; chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is an anxiolytic drug; and tacrine (Cognex) is used to treat Alzheimer disease. 15. A patient hospitalized with a mood disorder has aggression, agitation, talkativeness, and irritability. A nurse begins the care plan based on the expectation that the health care provider is most likely to prescribe a medication classified as a(n): a. anticholinergic. b. mood stabilizer. c. psychostimulant. d. tricyclic antidepressant. ANS: B The symptoms describe a manic attack. Mania is effectively treated by the antimanic drug lithium and selected anticonvulsants such as carbamazepine, valproic acid, and lamotrigine. No drugs from the other classifications listed are effective in the treatment of mania. 16. A drug causes muscarinic-receptor blockade. A nurse will assess the patient for: a. dry mouth. b. gynecomastia. c. pseudo parkinsonism. d. orthostatic hypotension. ANS: A Muscarinic-receptor blockade includes atropine-like side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and constipation. Gynecomastia is associated with decreased prolactin levels. Movement defects are associated with dopamine blockade. Orthostatic hypotension is associated with alpha1-receptor antagonism. 17. A patient begins therapy with a phenothiazine medication. What teaching should a nurse provide related to the drugs strong dopaminergic effect? a. Chew sugarless gum. b. Increase dietary fiber. c. Arise slowly from bed. d. Report muscle stiffness. ANS: D Phenothiazines are conventional antipsychotic medications that block dopamine receptors in both the limbic system and basal ganglia. Dystonia is likely to occur early in the course of treatment and is often heralded by sensations of muscle stiffness. Early intervention with an antiparkinsonian medication can increase the patients comfort and prevent dystonic reactions. 18. A nurse can anticipate anticholinergic side effects are likely to occur when a patient is taking: a. lithium (Lithobid). b. buspirone (BuSpar). c. risperidone (Risperdal). d. fluphenazine (Prolixin). ANS: D Fluphenazine, a first-generation antipsychotic medication, exerts muscarinic blockade, resulting in dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. Lithium therapy is more often associated with fluid balance problems, including polydipsia, polyuria, and edema. Risperidone therapy is more often associated with movement disorders, orthostatic hypotension, and sedation. Buspirone is associated with anxiety reduction without major side effects. 19. Priority teaching for a patient taking clozapine (Clozaril) should include which instruction? a. Report sore throat and fever immediately. b. Avoid foods high in polyunsaturated fat. c. Use water-based lotions for rashes. d. Avoid unprotected sex. ANS: A Clozapine therapy may produce agranulocytosis; therefore signs of infection should be immediately reported to the health care provider. In addition, the patient should have white blood cell levels measured weekly. The other options are not relevant to clozapine administration. 20. A nurse cares for patients taking various medications, including buspirone (BuSpar), haloperidol (Haldol), trazodone (Desyrel), and phenelzine (Nardil). The nurse will order a special diet for the patient taking: a. buspirone. b. haloperidol. c. trazodone. d. phenelzine. ANS: D Patients taking phenelzine, an MAOI, must be on a tyramine-free diet to prevent hypertensive crisis. 21. A nurse caring for a patient taking a serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) will develop outcome criteria related to: a. mood improvement. b. logical thought processes. c. reduced levels of motor activity. d. decreased extrapyramidal symptoms. ANS: A SSRIs affect mood, relieving depression in many patients. SSRIs do not act to reduce thought disorders. SSRIs reduce depression but have little effect on motor hyperactivity. SSRIs do not produce extrapyramidal symptoms. 22. A patients spouse, who is a chemist, asks a nurse how serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) lift depression. The nurse should explain that SSRIs: a. destroy increased amounts of neurotransmitters. b. make more serotonin available at the synaptic gap. c. increase production of acetylcholine and dopamine. d. block muscarinic and alpha1-norepinephrine receptors. ANS: B Depression is thought to be related to the lowered availability of the neurotransmitter serotonin. SSRIs act by blocking the reuptake of serotonin, leaving a higher concentration available at the synaptic cleft. They actually prevent the destruction of serotonin, have no effect on acetylcholine and dopamine production, and do not block muscarinic or alpha1- norepinephrine receptors. 23. A patient has taken many conventional antipsychotic drugs over years. The health care provider, who is concerned about early signs of tardive dyskinesia, prescribes risperidone (Risperdal). A nurse planning care for this patient understands that atypical antipsychotics: a. are less costly. b. have higher potency. c. are more readily available. d. produce fewer motor side effects. ANS: D Atypical antipsychotic drugs often exert their action on the limbic system rather than the basal ganglia. The limbic system is not involved in motor disturbances. Atypical antipsychotic medications are not more readily available. They are not considered to be of higher potency; rather, they have different modes of action. Atypical antipsychotic drugs tend to be more expensive. 24. The laboratory report for a patient taking clozapine (Clozaril) shows a white blood cell count of 3000 mm3 and a granulocyte count of 1500 mm3. The nurse should: a. report the laboratory results to the health care provider. b. give the next dose as prescribed. c. administer aspirin and force fluids. d. repeat the laboratory tests. ANS: A These laboratory values indicate the possibility of agranulocytosis, a serious side effect of clozapine therapy. These results must be immediately reported to the health care provider. The drug should be withheld because the health care provider will discontinue it. The health care provider may repeat the laboratory test, but, in the meantime, the drug should be withheld. Giving aspirin and forcing fluids are measures that are less important than stopping the administration of the drug. 25. A nurse administering psychotropic medications should be prepared to intervene when giving a drug that blocks the attachment of norepinephrine to alpha1 receptors because the patient may experience: a. increased psychotic symptoms. b. severe appetite disturbance. c. orthostatic hypotension. d. hypertensive crisis. ANS: C Sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction is essential for maintaining normal blood pressure in the upright position. Blockage of alpha1 receptors leads to vasodilation and orthostatic hypotension. Orthostatic hypotension may cause fainting and falls. Patients should be taught ways of minimizing this phenomenon. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY 1. A nurse prepares to administer an antipsychotic medication to a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. Additional monitoring of the medications effects and side effects will be most important if the patient is also diagnosed with which health problem? Select all that apply. a. Parkinson disease b. Graves disease c. Osteoarthritis d. Epilepsy e. Diabetes ANS:A,D,E Antipsychotic medications may produce weight gain, which complicates the care of a patient with diabetes or lowers the seizure threshold or both, which complicates the care of a patient with epilepsy. Parkinson disease involves changes in transmission of dopamine and acetylcholine; therefore these drugs also complicate the care of a patient with the disorder. Osteoarthritis and Graves disease should have no synergistic effect with this medication. 2. The spouse of a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia asks, Which neurotransmitters are more active when a person has schizophrenia? The nurse should state, The current thinking is that the thought disturbances are related to increased activity of: (Select all that apply.) a. GABA. b. substance P. c. histamine. d. dopamine. e. norepinephrine. ANS: D, E Dopamine plays a role in the integration of thoughts and emotions, and excess dopamine is implicated in the thought disturbances of schizophrenia. Increased activity of norepinephrine also occurs. Substance P is most related to the pain experience. Histamine decrease is associated with depression. Increased GABA is associated with anxiety reduction. 3. An individual is experiencing problems associated with memory. Which cerebral structures are most likely to be involved in this deficit? Select all that apply. a. Prefrontal cortex b. Occipital lobe c. Temporal lobe d. Parietal lobe e. Basal ganglia ANS:A,C,D The prefrontal cortex, parietal, and temporal lobes of the cerebrum play a key role in the storage and processing of memories. The occipital lobe is predominantly involved with vision. The basal ganglia influence the integration of physical movement, as well as some thoughts and emotions. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension (Understanding) REF: 35 Chapter 05: Settings for Psychiatric Care 1. Planning for patients with mental illness is facilitated by understanding that inpatient hospitalization is generally reserved for patients who: a. present a clear danger to self or others. b. are noncompliant with medications at home. c. have no support systems in the community. d. develop new symptoms during the course of an illness. ANS: A Hospitalization is justified when the patient is a danger to self or others, has dangerously decompensated, or needs intensive medical treatment. The incorrect options do not necessarily describe patients who require inpatient treatment. 2. A patient is hospitalized for a reaction to a psychotropic medication and then is closely monitored for 24 hours. During a predischarge visit, the case manager learns the patient received a notice of eviction on the day of admission. The most appropriate intervention for the case manager is to: a. cancel the patients discharge from the hospital. b. contact the landlord who evicted the patient to discuss the situation. c. arrange a temporary place for the patient to stay until new housing can be arranged. d. document that the adverse medication reaction was feigned because the patient had nowhere to live. ANS: C The case manager should intervene by arranging temporary shelter for the patient until suitable housing can be found. This is part of the coordination and delivery of services that falls under the case manager role. The other options are not viable alternatives. 3. A multidisciplinary health care team meets 12 hours after an adolescent is hospitalized after a suicide attempt. Members of the team report their assessments. What outcome can be expected from this meeting? a. A treatment plan will be formulated. b. The health care provider will order neuroimaging studies. c. The team will request a court-appointed advocate for the patient. d. Assessment of the patients need for placement outside the home will be undertaken. ANS: A Treatment plans are formulated early in the course of treatment to streamline the treatment process and reduce costs. It is too early to determine the need for alternative post-discharge living arrangements. Neuroimaging is not indicated for this scenario. 4. The relapse of a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is related to medication noncompliance. The patient is hospitalized for 5 days, medication is restarted, and the patients thoughts are now more organized. The patients family members are upset and say, Its too soon for discharge. Hospitalization is needed for at least a month. The nurse should: a. call the psychiatrist to come explain the discharge rationale. b. explain that health insurance will not pay for a longer stay for the patient. c. call security to handle the disturbance and escort the family off the unit. d. explain that the patient will continue to improve if medication is taken regularly. ANS: D Patients no longer stay in the hospital until every vestige of a symptom disappears. The nurse must assume responsibility to advocate for the patients right to the least restrictive setting as soon as the symptoms are under control and for the right of citizens to control health care costs. The health care provider will use the same rationale. Shifting blame will not change the discharge. Calling security is unnecessary. The nurse can handle this matter. 5. A nurse assesses an inpatient psychiatric unit, noting that exits are free from obstruction, no one is smoking, the janitors closet is locked, and all sharp objects are being used under staff supervision. These observations relate to: a. management of milieu safety. b. coordinating care of patients. c. management of the interpersonal climate. d. use of therapeutic intervention strategies. ANS: A Members of the nursing staff are responsible for all aspects of milieu management. The observations mentioned in this question directly relate to the safety of the unit. The other options, although part of the nurses concerns, are unrelated to the observations cited. 6. The following patients are seen in the emergency department. The psychiatric unit has one bed available. Which patient should the admitting officer recommend for admission to the hospital? The patient who: a. is experiencing dry mouth and tremor related to side effects of haloperidol (Haldol). b. is experiencing anxiety and a sad mood after a separation from a spouse of 10 years. c. self-inflicted a superficial cut on the forearm after a family argument. d. is a single parent and hears voices saying, Smother your infant. ANS: D Admission to the hospital would be justified by the risk of patient danger to self or others. The other patients have issues that can be handled with less restrictive alternatives than hospitalization. 7. A student nurse prepares to administer oral medications to a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder, but the patient refuses the medication. The student nurse should: a. tell the patient, Ill get an unsatisfactory grade if I dont give you the medication. b. tell the patient, Refusing your medication is not permitted. You are required to take it. c. discuss the patients concerns about the medication, and report to the staff nurse. d. document the patients refusal of the medication without further comment. ANS: C The patient has the right to refuse medication in most cases. The patients reason for refusing should be ascertained, and the refusal should be reported to a unit nurse. Sometimes refusals are based on unpleasant side effects that can be ameliorated. Threats and manipulation are inappropriate. Medication refusal should be reported to permit appropriate intervention. 8. A nurse surveys the medical records for violations of patients rights. Which finding signals a violation? a. No treatment plan is present in record. b. Patient belongings are searched at admission. c. Physical restraint is used to prevent harm to self. d. Patient is placed on one-to-one continuous observation. ANS: A The patient has the right to have a treatment plan. Inspecting a patients belongings is a safety measure. Patients have the right to a safe environment, including the right to be protected against impulses to harm self that occur as a result of a mental disorder. 9. Which principle takes priority for the psychiatric inpatient staff when addressing behavioral crises? a. Resolve behavioral crises using the least restrictive intervention possible. b. Rights of the majority of patients supersede the rights of individual patients. c. Swift intervention is justified to maintain the integrity of the therapeutic milieu. d. Allow patients opportunities to regain control without intervention if the safety of other patients is not compromised. ANS: A The rule of using the least restrictive treatment or intervention possible to achieve the desired outcome is the patients legal right. Planned interventions are nearly always preferable. Intervention may be necessary when the patient threatens harm to self. 10. To provide comprehensive care to patients, which competency is more important for a nurse who works in a community mental health center than a psychiatric nurse who works in an inpatient unit? a. Problem-solving skills b. Calm and caring manner c. Ability to cross service systems d. Knowledge of psychopharmacology ANS: C A community mental health nurse must be able to work with schools, corrections facilities, shelters, health care providers, and employers. The mental health nurse working in an inpatient unit needs only to be able to work within the single setting. Problem-solving skills are needed by all nurses. Nurses in both settings must have knowledge of psychopharmacology. 11. A suspicious and socially isolated patient lives alone, eats one meal a day at a nearby shelter, and spends the remaining daily food allowance on cigarettes. Select the community psychiatric nurses best initial action. a. Report the situation to the manager of the shelter. b. Tell the patient, You must stop smoking to save money. c. Assess the patients weight; determine the foods and amounts eaten. d. Seek hospitalization for the patient while a new plan is being formulated. ANS: C Assessment of biopsychosocial needs and general ability to live in the community is called for before any action is taken. Both nutritional status and income adequacy are critical assessment parameters. A patient may be able to maintain adequate nutrition while eating only one meal a day. Nurses assess before taking action. Hospitalization may not be necessary. 12. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been stable in the community. Today, the spouse reports the patient is expressing delusional thoughts. The patient says, Im willing to take my medicine, but I forgot to get my prescription refilled. Which outcome should the nurse add to the plan of care? a. Nurse will obtain prescription refills every 90 days and deliver them to the patient. b. Patients spouse will mark dates for prescription refills on the family calendar. c. Patient will report to the hospital for medication follow-up every week. d. Patient will call the nurse weekly to discuss medication-related issues. ANS: B The nurse should use the patients support system to meet patient needs whenever possible. Delivery of medication by the nurse should be unnecessary for the nurse to do if the patient or a significant other can be responsible. The patient may not need more intensive follow-up as long as he or she continues to take the medications as prescribed. No patient issues except failure to obtain medication refills were identified. 13. A community mental health nurse has worked for 6 months to establish a relationship with a delusional, suspicious patient. The patient recently lost employment and stopped taking medications because of inadequate money. The patient says, Only a traitor would make me go to the hospital. Which solution is best? a. Arrange a bed in a local homeless shelter with nightly onsite supervision. b. Negotiate a way to provide medication so the patient can remain at home. c. Hospitalize the patient until the symptoms have stabilized. d. Seek inpatient hospitalization for up to 1 week. ANS: B Hospitalization may damage the nurse-patient relationship even if it provides an opportunity for rapid stabilization. If medication can be obtained and restarted, the patient can possibly be stabilized in the home setting, even if it takes a little longer. A homeless shelter is inappropriate and unnecessary. Hospitalization may be necessary later, but a less restrictive solution should be tried first because the patient is not dangerous. 14. A community psychiatric nurse facilitates medication compliance for a patient by having the health care provider prescribe depot medications by injection every 3 weeks at the clinic. For this plan to be successful, which factor will be of critical importance? a. Attitude of significant others toward the patient b. Nutritional services in the patients neighborhood c. Level of trust between the patient and the nurse d. Availability of transportation to the clinic ANS: D The ability of the patient to get to the clinic is of paramount importance to the success of the plan. The depot medication relieves the patient of the necessity to take medication daily, but if he or she does not receive the injection at 3-week intervals, noncompliance will again be the issue. Attitude toward the patient, trusting relationships, and nutrition are important but not fundamental to this particular problem. 15. Which assessment finding for a patient living in the community requires priority intervention by the nurse? The patient: a. receives Social Security disability income plus a small check from a trust fund. b. lives in an apartment with two patients who attend day hospital programs. c. has a sibling who is interested and active in care planning. d. purchases and uses marijuana on a frequent basis. ANS: D Patients who regularly buy illegal substances often become medication noncompliant. Medication noncompliance, along with the disorganizing influence of illegal drugs on cellular brain function, promotes relapse. The remaining options do not suggest problems. 16. A patient tells the nurse at the clinic; I haven’t been taking my antidepressant medication as directed. I leave out the midday dose. I have lunch with friends and don’t want them to ask me about the pills. Select the nurses most appropriate intervention. a. Investigate the possibility of once-daily dosing of the antidepressant. b. Suggest to the patient to take the medication when no one is watching. c. Explain how taking each dose of medication on time relates to health maintenance. d. Add the following nursing diagnosis to the plan of care: Ineffective therapeutic regimen management, related to lack of knowledge. ANS: A Investigating the possibility of once-daily dosing of the antidepressant has the highest potential for helping the patient achieve compliance. Many antidepressants can be administered by once-daily dosing, a plan that increases compliance. Explaining how taking each dose of medication on time relates to health maintenance is reasonable but would not achieve the goal; it does not address the issue of stigma. The self-conscious patient would not be comfortable doing this. A better nursing diagnosis would be related to social stigma. The question asks for an intervention, not analysis. 17. A community psychiatric nurse assesses that a patient diagnosed with a mood disorder is more depressed than on the previous visit a month ago; however, the patient says, I feel the same. Which intervention supports the nurses assessment while preserving the patients autonomy? a. Arrange for a short hospitalization. b. Schedule weekly clinic appointments. c. Refer the patient to the crisis intervention clinic. d. Call the family and ask them to observe the patient closely. ANS: B Scheduling clinic appointments at shorter intervals will give the opportunity for more frequent assessment of symptoms and allow the nurse to use early intervention. If the patient does not admit to having a crisis or problem, a referral would be useless. The remaining options may produce unreliable information, violate the patients privacy, and waste scarce resources. 18. A patient hurriedly tells the community mental health nurse, Everythings a disaster! I cant concentrate. My disability check didnt come. My roommate moved out, and I cant afford the rent. My therapist is moving away. I feel like Im coming apart. Which nursing diagnosis applies? a. Decisional conflict, related to challenges to personal values b. Spiritual distress, related to ethical implications of treatment regimen c. Anxiety, related to changes perceived as threatening to psychological equilibrium d. Impaired environmental interpretation syndrome, related to solving multiple problems affecting security needs ANS: C Subjective and objective data obtained by the nurse suggest the patient is experiencing anxiety caused by multiple threats to security needs. Data are not present to suggest Decisional conflict, Spiritual distress caused by ethical conflicts, or Impaired environmental interpretation syndrome. 19. Which patient would a nurse refer to partial hospitalization? An individual who: a. spent yesterday in the 24- hour supervised crisis care center and continues to be actively suicidal. b. because of agoraphobia and panic episodes needs psychoeducation for relaxation therapy. c. has a therapeutic lithium level and reports regularly for blood tests and clinic follow-up. d. states, Im not sure I can avoid using alcohol when my spouse goes to work every morning. ANS: D This patient could profit from the structure and supervision provided by spending the day at the partial hospitalization program. During the evening, at night, and on weekends, the spouse could assume supervision responsibilities. The patient who is actively suicidal needs inpatient hospitalization. The patient in need of psychoeducation can be referred to home care. The patient who reports regularly for blood tests and clinical follow-up can continue on the same plan. 20. Which employers health plan is required to include parity provisions related to mental illnesses? a. Employer with more than 50 employees b. Cancer thrift shop staffed by volunteers c. Daycare center that employs 7 teachers d. Church that employs 15 people ANS: A Under federal parity laws, companies with more than 50 employees may not limit annual or lifetime mental health benefits unless they also limit benefits for physical illnesses. SELECT THAT ALL APPLY 1. A nurse can best address factors of critical importance to successful community treatment for persons with mental illness by including assessments related to which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Housing adequacy and stability b. Income adequacy and stability c. Family and other support systems d. Early psychosocial development e. Substance abuse history and current use ANS:A,B,C,E Early psychosocial developmental history is less relevant to successful outcomes in the community than the assessments listed in the other options. If a patient is homeless or fears homelessness, focusing on other treatment issues is impossible. Sufficient income for basic needs and medication is necessary. Adequate support is a requisite to community placement. Substance abuse undermines medication effectiveness and interferes with community adjustment. 2. A community member asks a nurse, People diagnosed with mental illnesses used to go to a state hospital. Why has that changed? Select the nurses accurate responses. Select all that apply. a. Science has made significant improvements in drugs for mental illness, so now many people may live in their communities. b. A better selection of less restrictive settings is now available in communities to care for individuals with mental illness. c. National rates of mental illness have declined significantly. The need for state institutions is actually no longer present. d. Most psychiatric institutions were closed because of serious violations of patient’s rights and unsafe conditions. e. Federal legislation and payment for treatment of mental illness have shifted the focus to community rather than institutional settings. ANS:A,B,E The community is a less restrictive alternative than hospitals for the treatment of people with mental illness. Funding for treatment of mental illness remains largely inadequate but now focuses on community rather than institutional care. Antipsychotic medications improve more symptoms of mental illness; hence, management of psychiatric disorders has improved. Rates of mental illness have increased, not decreased. Hospitals were closed because funding shifted to the community. Conditions in institutions have improved. Chapter 08: Communication Skills: Medium for All Nursing Practice 1. A patient says to the nurse, I dreamed I was stoned. When I woke up, I felt emotionally drained, as though I hadnt rested well. Which comment would be appropriate if the nurse seeks clarification? a. It sounds as though you were uncomfortable with the content of your dream. b. I understand what youre saying. Bad dreams leave me feeling tired, too. c. So, all in all, you feel as though you had a rather poor nights sleep? d. Can you give me an example of what you mean by stoned? ANS: D The technique of clarification is therapeutic and helps the nurse examine the meaning of the patients statement. Asking for a definition of stoned directly asks for clarification. Restating that the patient is uncomfortable with the dreams content is parroting, a nontherapeutic technique. The other responses fail to clarify the meaning of the patients comment. 2. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the nurse, The CIA is monitoring us through the fluorescent lights in this room. Be careful what you say. Which response by the nurse would be most therapeutic? a. Lets talk about something other than the CIA. b. It sounds like youre concerned about your privacy. c. The CIA is prohibited from operating in health care facilities. d. You have lost touch with reality, which is a symptom of your illness. ANS: B It is important not to challenge the patients beliefs, even if they are unrealistic. Challenging undermines the patients trust in the nurse. The nurse should try to understand the underlying feelings or thoughts the patients message conveys. The correct response uses the therapeutic technique of reflection. The other comments are nontherapeutic. Asking to talk about something other than the concern at hand is changing the subject. Saying that the CIA is prohibited from operating in health care facilities gives false reassurance. Stating that the patient has lost touch with reality is truthful but uncompassionate. 3. The patient says, My marriage is just great. My spouse and I usually agree on everything. The nurse observes the patients foot moving continuously as the patient twirls a shirt button. What conclusion can the nurse draw? The patients communication is: a. clear. b. mixed. c. precise. d. inadequate. ANS: B Mixed messages involve the transmission of conflicting or incongruent messages by the speaker. The patients verbal message that all is well in the relationship is modified by the nonverbal behaviors denoting anxiety. Data are not present to support the choice of the verbal message being clear, explicit, or inadequate. 4. A nurse interacts with a newly hospitalized patient. Select the nurses comment that applies the communication technique of offering self. a. Ive also had traumatic life experiences. Maybe it would help if I told you about them. b. Why do you think you had so much difficulty adjusting to this change in your life? c. I hope you will feel better after getting accustomed to how this unit operates. d. Id like to sit with you for a while to help you get comfortable talking to me. ANS: D Offering self is a technique that should be used in the orientation phase of the nurse-patient relationship. Sitting with the patient, an example of offering self, helps build trust and conveys that the nurse cares about the patient. Two incorrect responses are ineffective and nontherapeutic. The other incorrect response is therapeutic but an example of offering hope. 5. Which technique will best communicate to a patient that the nurse is interested in listening? a. Restate a feeling or thought the patient has expressed. b. Ask a direct question, such as, Did you feel angry? c. Make a judgment about the patients problem. d. Say, I understand what you’re saying. ANS: A Restating allows the patient to validate the nurses understanding of what has been communicated. Restating is an active listening technique. Judgments should be suspended in a nurse-patient relationship. Closed-ended questions such as Did you feel angry? ask for specific information rather than show understanding. When the nurse simply states that he or she understands the patients words, the patient has no way of measuring the understanding. 6. A patient discloses several concerns and associated feelings. If the nurse wants to seek clarification, which comment would be appropriate? a. What are the common elements here? b. Tell me again about your experiences. c. Am I correct in understanding that? d. Tell me everything from the beginning. ANS: C Asking, Am I correct in understanding that? permits clarification to ensure that both the nurse and patient share mutual understanding of the communication. Asking about common elements encourages comparison rather than clarification. The remaining responses are implied questions that suggest the nurse was not listening. 7. A patient tells the nurse, I dont think I will ever get out of here. Select the nurses most therapeutic response. a. Dont talk that way. Of course you will leave here! b. Keep up the good work and you certainly will. c. You don’t think you’re making progress? d. Everyone feels that way sometimes. ANS: C By asking if the patient does not believe that progress has been made, the nurse is reflecting by putting into words what the patient is hinting. By making communication more explicit, issues are easier to identify and resolve. The remaining options are nontherapeutic techniques. Telling the patient not to talk that way is disapproving. Saying that everyone feels that way at times minimizes feelings. Telling the patient that good work will always result in success is falsely reassuring. 8. Documentation in a patients chart shows, Throughout a 5-minute interaction, patient fidgeted and tapped left foot, periodically covered face with hands, and looked under chair while stating, I enjoy spending time with you. Which analysis is most accurate? a. Patient is giving positive feedback about the nurses communication techniques. b. Nurse is viewing the patients behavior through a cultural filter. c. Patients verbal and nonverbal messages are incongruent. d. Patient is demonstrating psychotic behaviors. ANS: C When a verbal message is not reinforced with nonverbal behavior, the message is confusing and incongruent. Some clinicians call it a mixed message. It is inaccurate to say that the patient is giving positive feedback about the nurses communication techniques. The concept of a cultural filter is not relevant to the situation; a cultural filter determines what a person will pay attention to and what he or she will ignore. Data are insufficient to draw the conclusion that the patient is demonstrating psychotic behaviors. 9. While talking with a patient with severe depression, a nurse notices the patient is unable to maintain eye contact. The patients chin lowers to the chest while the patient looks at the floor. Which aspect of communication has the nurse assessed? a. Nonverbal communication b. A message filter c. A cultural barrier d. Social skills ANS: A Eye contact and body movements are considered nonverbal communication. Insufficient data are available to determine the level of the patients social skills or whether a cultural barrier exists. 10. During the first interview with a parent whose child died in a car accident, the nurse feels empathic and reaches out to take the patients hand. Select the correct analysis of the nurses behavior. a. It shows empathy and compassion. It will encourage the patient to continue to express feelings. b. The gesture is premature. The patients cultural and individual interpretation of touch is unknown. c. The patient will perceive the gesture as intrusive and overstepping boundaries. d. The action is inappropriate. Patients in a psychiatric setting should not be touched. ANS: B Touch has various cultural and individual interpretations. Nurses should refrain from using touch until an assessment can be made regarding the way in which the patient will perceive touch. The other options present prematurely drawn conclusions. 11. A Mexican- American patient puts a picture of the Virgin Mary on the bedside table. Under which section of the assessment should the nurse document this behavior? a. Culture b. Ethnicity c. Verbal communication d. Nonverbal communication ANS: A Cultural heritage is expressed through language, works of art, music, dance, ethnic clothing, customs, traditions, diet, and expressions of spirituality. This patients prominent placement of the picture is an example of expression of cultural heritage. Verbal and nonverbal communications apply to all areas of an assessment. 12. An African- American patient says to a Caucasian nurse, There’s no sense talking. You wouldn’t understand because you live in a white world. The nurses best action would be to: a. explain, Yes, I do understand. Everyone goes through the same experiences. b. say, Please give an example of something you think I wouldn’t understand. c. reassure the patient that nurses interact with people from all cultures. d. change the subject to one that is less emotionally disturbing. ANS: B Having the patient speak in specifics rather than globally helps the nurse understand the patients perspective. This approach helps the nurse engage the patient. 13. A Filipino- American patient had this nursing diagnosis: Situational low self-esteem, related to poor social skills as evidenced by lack of eye contact. Interventions were used to raise the patients self-esteem; however, after 3 weeks, the patients eye contact did not improve. What is the most accurate analysis of this scenario? a. The patients eye contact should have been directly addressed by role-playing to increase comfort with eye contact. b. The nurse should not have independently embarked on assessment, diagnosis, and planning for this patient. c. The patients poor eye contact is indicative of anger and hostility that remain unaddressed. d. The nurse should have assessed the patients culture before making this diagnosis and plan. ANS: D The amount of eye contact in which a person engages is often culturally determined. In some cultures, eye contact is considered insolent, whereas in other cultures, eye contact is expected. Asian Americans, including persons from the Philippines, often prefer not to engage in direct eye contact. 14. When a female Mexican-American patient and a female nurse sit together, the patient often holds the nurses hand. The patient also links arms with the nurse when they walk. The nurse is uncomfortable with this behavior and thinks the patient is homosexual. Which alternative is a more accurate assessment? a. The patient is accustomed to touch during conversations, as are members of many Hispanic subcultures. b. The patient understands that touch makes the nurse uncomfortable and controls the relationship based on that factor. c. The patient is afraid of being alone. When touching the nurse, the patient is reassured and comforted. d. The nurse is homophobic. ANS: A The most likely answer is that the patients behavior is culturally influenced. Hispanic women frequently touch women they consider to be their friends. Although the other options are possible, they are less likely. 15. A Puerto Rican American patient uses dramatic body language when describing emotional discomfort. Which analysis most likely explains the patients behavior? The patient: a. likely has a histrionic personality disorder. b. believes dramatic body language is sexually appealing. c. wishes to impress staff with the degree of emotional pain. d. belongs to a culture in which dramatic body language is the norm. ANS: D Members of Hispanic-American subcultures tend to use high affect and dramatic body language as they communicate. The other options are more remote possibilities. 16. During an interview, a patient attempts to shift the focus from self to the nurse by asking personal questions. The nurse should respond by saying: a. Youve turned the tables on me. b. Nurses direct the interviews with patients. c. Do not ask questions about my personal life. d. The time we spend together is to discuss your concerns. ANS: D When a patient tries to focus on the nurse, the nurse should refocus the discussion back onto the patient. Telling the patient that interview time should be used to discuss patient concerns refocuses discussion in a neutral way. Telling patients not to ask about the nurses personal life shows indignation. Saying that nurses prefer to direct the interview reflects superiority. Saying Youve turned the tables on me states the fact but does not refocus the interview. 17. Which principle should guide the nurse in determining the extent of silence to use during patient interview sessions? a. Nurses are responsible for breaking silences. b. Patients withdraw if silences are prolonged. c. Silence can provide meaningful moments for reflection. d. Silence helps patients know that what they said is understood. ANS: C Silence can be helpful to both participants by giving each an opportunity to contemplate what has transpired, weigh alternatives, and formulate ideas. A nurse breaking silences is not a principle related to silences. Saying that patients withdraw during long silences or that silence helps patients know that they are understood are both inaccurate statements. Feedback helps patients know they have been understood. 18. A patient is having difficulty making a decision. The nurse has mixed feelings about whether to provide advice. Which principle usually applies? Giving advice: a. is rarely helpful. b. fosters independence. c. lifts the burden of personal decision making. d. helps the patient develop feelings of personal adequacy. ANS: A Giving advice fosters dependence on the nurse and interferes with the patients right to make personal decisions. Giving advice also robs patients of the opportunity to weigh alternatives and to develop problem- solving skills. Furthermore, it contributes to patient feelings of personal inadequacy. It also keeps the nurse in control and feeling powerful. 19. The relationship between a nurse and patient as it relates to status and power is best described by which term? a. Symmetric b. Complementary c. Incongruent d. Paralinguistic ANS: B When a difference in power exists, as between a student and teacher or between a nurse and patient, the relationship is said to be complementary. Symmetrical relationships exist between individuals of like or equal status. Incongruent and paralinguistic are not terms used to describe relationships. 20. A patient with severe depression states, God is punishing me for my past sins. What is the nurses best response? a. Why do you think that? b. You sound very upset about this. c. You believe God is punishing you for your sins? d. If you feel this way, you should talk to a member of your clergy. ANS: B The nurse reflects on the patients comment, a therapeutic technique to encourage sharing for perceptions and feelings. The incorrect responses reflect probing, closed-ended comments, and giving advice, all of which are nontherapeutic. SELECT THAT ALL APPLY 1. A patient cries as the nurse explores the patients relationship with a deceased parent. The patient says, I shouldn’t be crying like this. It happened a long time ago. Which responses by the nurse will facilitate communication? Select all that apply. a. Why do you think you are so upset? b. I can see that you feel sad about this situation. c. The loss of your parent is very painful for you. d. Crying is a way of expressing the hurt youre experiencing. e. Lets talk about something else because this subject is upsetting you. ANS:B,C,D Reflecting (I can see that you feel sad or This is very painful for you) and giving information (Crying is a way of expressing hurt) are therapeutic techniques. Why questions often imply criticism or seem intrusive or judgmental, and they are difficult to answer. Changing the subject is a barrier to communication. 2. Which benefits are most associated with the use of telehealth? Select all that apply. a. Cost savings for patients b. Maximization of care management c. Access to services for patients in rural areas d. Prompt reimbursement by third-party payers e. Rapid development of trusting relationships with patients ANS: A, B, C Use of telehealth technologies has shown that it can maximize health and improve disease management skills and confidence with the disease process. Many rural patients have felt disconnected from services; telehealth technologies can solve these problems. Although telehealth’s improved health outcomes regularly show cost savings for payers, one significant barrier is the current lack of reimbursement for remote patient monitoring by third-party payers. Telehealth is not associated with rapid development of trusting relationships. Chapter 09: Therapeutic Relationships and the Clinical Interview 1. A nurse assesses a confused older adult. The nurse experiences sadness and reflects, The patient is like one of my grandparents . . . so helpless. What feelings does the nurse describe? a. Transference b. Countertransference c. Catastrophic reaction d. Defensive coping reaction ANS: B Countertransference is the nurses transference or response to a patient that is based on the nurses unconscious needs, conflicts, problems, or view of the world. 2. Which statement shows a nurse has empathy for a patient who made a suicide attempt? a. You must have been very upset when you tried to hurt yourself. b. It makes me sad to see you going through such a difficult experience. c. If you tell me what is troubling you, I can help you solve your problems. d. Suicide is a drastic solution to a problem that may not be such a serious matter. ANS: A Empathy permits the nurse to see an event from the patients perspective, understand the patients feelings, and communicate this to the patient. The incorrect responses are nurse centered (focusing on the nurses feelings rather than the patients), belittling, and sympathetic. 3. After several therapeutic encounters with a patient who recently attempted suicide, which occurrence should cause the nurse to consider the possibility of countertransference? a. The patients reactions toward the nurse seem realistic and appropriate. b. The patient states, Talking to you feels like talking to my parents. c. The nurse feels unusually happy when the patients mood begins to lift. d. The nurse develops a trusting relationship with the patient. ANS: C Strong positive or negative reactions toward a patient or an overidentification with a patient signals possible countertransference. Nurses must carefully monitor their own feelings and reactions to detect countertransference and then seek supervision. Realistic and appropriate reactions from a patient toward a nurse are desirable. One incorrect response suggests transference. A trusting relationship with the patient is desirable. 4. A patient says, Please dont share information about me with the other people. How should the nurse respond? a. I wont share information with others without your permission, but I will share information about you with other staff members. b. A therapeutic relationship is just between the nurse and the patient. Its up to you to tell others what you want them to know. c. It really depends on what you choose to tell me. I will be glad to disclose at the end of each session what I will report to others. d. I cannot tell anyone about you. It will be as though I am talking about my own problems, and we can help each other by keeping it between us. ANS: A A patient has the right to know with whom the nurse will share information and that confidentiality will be protected. Although the relationship is primarily between the nurse and patient, other staff members need to know pertinent data. The other incorrect responses promote incomplete disclosure on the part of the patient, require daily renegotiation of an issue that should be resolved as the nurse-patient contract is established, and suggest mutual problem solving. The relationship must be patient centered. 5. A nurse is talking with a patient, and 5 minutes remain in the session. The patient has been silent for most of the session. Another patient comes to the door of the room, interrupts, and says to the nurse, I really need to talk to you right now. The nurse should: a. say to the interrupting patient, I am not available to talk with you at the present time. b. end the unproductive session with the current patient and spend time with the patient who has just interrupted. c. invite the interrupting patient to join in the session with the current patient. d. tell the patient who interrupted, This session is 5 more minutes; then, I will talk with you. ANS: D When a specific duration for a session has been set, the nurse must adhere to the schedule. Leaving the first patient would be equivalent to abandonment and would destroy any trust the patient had in the nurse. Adhering to the contract demonstrates that the nurse can be trusted and that the patient and the sessions are important. The incorrect responses preserve the nurse-patient relationship with the silent patient but may seem abrupt to the interrupting patient, abandon the silent patient, or fail to observe the contract with the silent patient. 6. Termination of a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship with a patient has been successful when the nurse: a. avoids upsetting the patient by shifting focus to other patients before the discharge. b. gives the patient a personal telephone number and permission to call after discharge. c. discusses with the patient changes that have happened during the relationship and evaluates the outcomes. d. offers to meet the patient for coffee and conversation three times a week after discharge. ANS: C Summarizing and evaluating progress help validate the experience for the patient and the nurse and facilitate closure. Termination must be discussed; avoiding the discussion by spending little time with the patient promotes feelings of abandonment. Successful termination requires that the relationship be brought to closure without the possibility of dependency-producing ongoing contact. 7. What is the desirable outcome for the orientation stage of a nurse-patient relationship? The patient will demonstrate behaviors that indicate: a. great sense of independence. b. rapport and trust with the nurse. c. self-responsibility and autonomy. d. resolution of feelings of transference. ANS: B The development of rapport and trust is necessary before the relationship can progress to the working phase. Behaviors indicating a greater sense of independence, self-responsibility, and resolved transference occur in the working phase. 8. During which phase of the nurse-patient relationship can the nurse anticipate that identified patient issues will be explored and resolved? a. Preorientation b. Orientation c. Working d. Termination ANS: C During the working phase, the nurse strives to assist the patient in making connections among dysfunctional behaviors, thinking, and emotions and offers support while alternative coping behaviors are tried. 9. At what point in the nurse-patient relationship should a nurse plan to first address termination? a. In the orientation phase b. During the working phase c. In the termination phase d. When the patient initially brings up the topic ANS: A The patient has a right to know the conditions of the nurse-patient relationship. If the relationship is to be time limited, then the patient should be informed of the number of sessions. If it is open ended, then the termination date will not be known at the outset and the patient will know that the issue will be negotiated at a later date. The nurse is responsible for bringing up the topic of termination early in the relationship, usually during the orientation phase. 10. A nurse should introduce the matter of a contract during the first session with a new patient because contracts: a. specify what the nurse will do for the patient. b. spell out the participation and responsibilities of each party. c. indicate the feeling tone established between the participants. d. are binding and prevent either party from prematurely ending the relationship. ANS: B A contract emphasizes that the nurse works with the patient rather than doing something for the patient. Working with is a process that suggests each party is expected to participate and share responsibility for the outcomes. Contracts do not, however, stipulate roles or feeling tone, or that premature termination is forbidden. 11. As a nurse escorts a patient being discharged after treatment for major depressive disorder, the patient gives the nurse a gold necklace with a heart pendant and says, Thank you for helping mend my broken heart. Which is the nurses best response? a. Accepting gifts violates the policies and procedures of the facility. b. Im glad you feel so much better now. Thank you for the beautiful necklace. c. Im glad I could help you, but I cant accept the gift. My reward is seeing you with a renewed sense of hope. d. Helping people is what nursing is all about. Its rewarding to me when patients recognize how hard we work. ANS: C Accepting a gift creates a social rather than a therapeutic relationship with the patient and blurs the boundaries of the relationship. A caring nurse will acknowledge the patients gesture of appreciation, but the gift should not be accepted. 12. Which remark by a patient indicates passage from the orientation phase to the working phase of a nurse- patient relationship? a. I dont have any problems. b. It is so difficult for me to talk about my problems. c. I dont know how talking about things twice a week can help. d. I want to find a way to deal with my anger without becoming violent. ANS: D Thinking about a more constructive approach to dealing with anger indicates a readiness to make a behavioral change. Behavioral change is associated with the working phase of the relationship. Denial is often seen in the orientation phase. It is common early in the relationship, before rapport and trust are firmly established, for a patient to express difficulty in talking about problems. Stating skepticism about the effectiveness of the nurse- patient relationship is more typically a reaction during the orientation phase. 13. A nurse explains to the family of a patient who is mentally ill how the nurse-patient relationship differs from social relationships. Which is the best explanation? a. The focus is on the patient. Problems are discussed by the nurse and patient, but solutions are implemented by the patient. b. The focus shifts from nurse to patient as the relationship develops. Advice is given by both, and solutions are implemented. c. The focus of the relationship is socialization. Mutual needs are met, and feelings are openly shared. d. The focus is the creation of a partnership in which each member is concerned with the growth and satisfaction of the other. ANS: A Only the correct response describes the elements of a therapeutic relationship. The remaining responses describe events that occur in social or intimate relationships. 14. A nurse wants to demonstrate genuineness with a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. The nurse should: a. restate what the patient says. b. use congruent communication strategies. c. use self-disclosure in patient interactions. d. consistently interpret the patients behaviors. ANS: B Genuineness is a desirable characteristic involving an awareness of ones own feelings as they arise and the ability to communicate them when appropriate. The incorrect options are undesirable in a therapeutic relationship. 15. A nurse caring for a withdrawn, suspicious patient recognizes the development of feelings of anger toward the patient. The nurse should: a. suppress the angry feelings. b. express the anger openly and directly with the patient. c. tell the nurse manager to assign the patient to another nurse. d. discuss the anger with a clinician during a supervisory session. ANS: D The nurse is accountable for the relationship. Objectivity is threatened by strong positive or negative feelings toward a patient. Supervision is necessary to work through a countertransference of feelings. 16. A nurse wants to enhance the growth of a patient by showing positive regard. The action consistent with this wish is: a. making rounds daily. b. staying with a tearful patient. c. administering daily medication as prescribed. d. examining personal feelings about a patient. ANS: B Staying with a crying patient offers support and shows positive regard. Administering daily medication and making rounds are tasks that could be part of an assignment and do not necessarily reflect positive regard. Examining feelings regarding a patient addresses the nurses ability to be therapeutic. 17. A patient says, Ive done a lot of cheating and manipulating in my relationships. Select a nonjudgmental response by the nurse. a. How do you feel about that? b. Its good that you realize this. c. Thats not a good way to behave. d. Have you outgrown that type of behavior? ANS: A Asking a patient to reflect on feelings about his or her actions does not imply any judgment about those actions, and it encourages the patient to explore feelings and values. The remaining options offer negative judgments. 18. A patient says, People should be allowed to commit suicide without interference from others. A nurse replies, Youre wrong. Nothing is bad enough to justify death. What is the best analysis of this interchange? a. The patient is correct. b. The nurse is correct. c. Neither person is totally correct. d. Differing values are reflected in the two statements. ANS: D Values guide beliefs and actions. The individuals stating their positions place different values on life and autonomy. Nurses must be aware of their own values and be sensitive to the values of others. 19. Which issues should a nurse address during the first interview with a patient diagnosed with a psychiatric disorder? a. Trust, congruence, attitudes, and boundaries b. Goals, resistance, unconscious motivations, and diversion c. Relationship parameters, the contract, confidentiality, and termination d. Transference, countertransference, intimacy, and developing resources ANS: C Relationship parameters, the contract, confidentiality, and termination are issues that should be considered during the orientation phase of the relationship. The remaining options are issues that are dealt with later. 20. During the first interview, a nurse notices that the patient does not make eye contact. The nurse can correctly analyze that: a. the patient is not truthful. b. the patient is feeling sad. c. the patient has a poor self-concept. d. more information is needed to draw a conclusion. ANS: D The data are insufficient to draw a conclusion. The nurse must continue to assess. 21. Which behavior shows that a nurse values autonomy? The nurse: a. sets limits on a patients romantic overtures toward the nurse. b. suggests one-on-one supervision for a patient who is suicidal. c. informs a patient that the spouse will not be in during visiting hours. d. discusses available alternatives and helps the patient weigh the consequences. ANS: D A high level of valuing is acting on ones belief. Autonomy is supported when the nurse helps a patient weigh alternatives and their consequences before the patient makes a decision. Autonomy or self-determination is not the issue in any of the other behaviors. 22. As a nurse discharges a patient, the patient gives the nurse a card of appreciation made in an arts and crafts group. What is the nurses best action? a. Recognize the effectiveness of the relationship and patients thoughtfulness. Accept the card. b. Inform the patient that accepting gifts violates the policies of the facility. Decline the card. c. Acknowledge the patients transition through the termination phase but decline the card. d. Accept the card and invite the patient to return to participate in other arts and crafts groups. ANS: A The nurse must consider the meaning, timing, and value of the gift. In this instance, the nurse should accept the patients expression of gratitude. 23. A patient says, I’m still on restriction, but I want to attend some off-unit activities. Would you ask the doctor to change my privileges? What is the nurses best response? a. Why are you asking me when you’re able to speak for yourself? b. I will be glad to address it when I see your doctor later today. c. That’s a good topic for you to take up with your doctor. d. Do you think you cant speak to a doctor? ANS: C Nurses should encourage patients to work at their optimal level of functioning. A nurse does not act for the patient unless it is necessary. Acting for a patient increases feelings of helplessness and dependency. 24. A community mental health nurse has worked with a patient for 3 years but is moving out of the city and terminates the relationship. A new nurse who begins work with this patient will: a. begin at the orientation phase. b. resume the working relationship. c. enter into a social relationship. d. return to the emotional catharsis phase. ANS: A After the termination of a long-term relationship, the patient and new nurse usually have to begin at ground zero, the orientation phase, to build a new relationship. If termination is successfully completed, then the orientation phase sometimes progresses quickly to the working phase. Other times, even after successful termination, the orientation phase may be prolonged. 25. As a patient diagnosed with mental illness is being discharged from a facility, a nurse invites the patient to the annual staff picnic. What is the best analysis of this scenario? a. The invitation facilitates dependency on the nurse. b. The nurses action blurs the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship. c. The invitation is therapeutic for the patients diversional activity deficit. d. The nurses action assists the patients integration into community living. ANS: B The invitation creates a social relationship rather than a therapeutic relationship. 26. A nurse says, I am the only one who truly understands this patient. Other staff members are too critical. The nurses statement indicates: a. boundary blurring. b. sexual harassment. c. positive regard. d. advocacy. ANS: A When the role of the nurse and the role of the patient shift, boundary blurring may arise. In this situation, the nurse is becoming overinvolved with the patient as a probable result of unrecognized countertransference. When boundary issues occur, the need for supervision exists. The situation does not describe sexual harassment. Data are not present to suggest positive regard or advocacy. SELECT THAT ALL APPLY 1. Which descriptors exemplify consistency regarding therapeutic nurse-patient relationships? Select all that apply. a. Having the same nurse care for a patient on a daily basis b. Encouraging a patient to share initial impressions of staff c. Providing a schedule of daily activities to a patient d. Setting a time for regular sessions with a patient e. Offering solutions to a patients problems ANS:A,C,D Consistency implies predictability. Having the same nurse see the patient daily, providing a daily schedule of patient activities, and setting a regular time for sessions help a patient to predict what will happen during each day and to develop a greater degree of security and comfort. Encouraging a patient to share initial impressions of staff and giving advice are not related to consistency and would not be considered a therapeutic intervention. 2. A nurse ends a relationship with a patient. Which actions by the nurse should be included in the termination phase? Select all that apply. a. Focus dialog with the patient on problems that may occur in the future. b. Help the patient express feelings about the relationship with the nurse. c. Help the patient prioritize and modify socially unacceptable behaviors. d. Reinforce expectations regarding the parameters of the relationship. e. Help the patient identify strengths, limitations, and problems. ANS: A, B The correct actions are part of the termination phase. The other actions are used in the working and orientation phases. 3. A new psychiatric nurse has a parent diagnosed with bipolar disorder. This nurse angrily recalls embarrassing events concerning the parents behavior in the community. Select the best ways for this nurse to cope with these feelings. Select all that apply. a. Seek ways to use the understanding gained from childhood to help patients cope with their own illnesses. b. Recognize that these feelings are unhealthy, and try to suppress them when working with patients. c. Recognize that psychiatric nursing is not an appropriate career choice, and explore other nursing specialties. d. Begin new patient relationships by saying, My own parent had mental illness, so I accept it without stigma. e. Recognize that the feelings may add sensitivity to the nurses practice, but supervision is important. ANS: A, E The nurse needs to explore these feelings. An experienced psychiatric nurse is a resource who may be helpful. The knowledge and experience gained from the nurses relationship with a parent who is mentally ill may contribute sensitivity to a compassionate practice. Self-disclosure and suppression are not adaptive coping strategies. The nurse should not give up on this area of practice without first seeking ways to cope with the memories. 4. A new nurse tells a mentor, I want to convey to my patients that I am interested in them and that I want to listen to what they have to say. Which behaviors are helpful in meeting the nurses goal? Select all that apply. a. Sitting behind a desk, facing the patient. b. Introducing self to a patient and identifying own role. c. Using facial expressions that convey interest and encouragement. d. Assuming an open body posture and sometimes mirror imaging. e. Maintaining control of the topic under discussion by asking direct questions. ANS:B,C,D Trust is fostered when the nurse gives an introduction and identifies his or her role. Facial expressions that convey interest and encouragement support the nurses verbal statements to that effect and strengthen the message. An open body posture conveys openness to listening to what the patient has to say. Mirror imaging enhances patient comfort. A desk would place a physical barrier between the nurse and patient. A face-to-face stance should be avoided when possible, and a less intense, 90- or 120-degree angle is used to permit either party to look away without discomfort. Once introductions have been made, the nurse focuses the interview on the patient by using open-ended questions, such as, Where should we start? [Show More]

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