BIO 208 POST ASSESSMENT
The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called:
Select one:
a. Diapedesis
b. Margination
c. Chemotaxis
d. Lordosis
.
Chemot
...
BIO 208 POST ASSESSMENT
The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called:
Select one:
a. Diapedesis
b. Margination
c. Chemotaxis
d. Lordosis
.
Chemotaxis
Question 2
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A sample of Ralph’s blood shows a high concentration of pyrogens. This would indicate that Ralph:
Select one:
a. has hypotension.
b. is producing T lymphocytes.
c. has a sore throat.
d. is running a fever.
.
is running a fever.
Question 3
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An increase in rate and depth of respiratory ventilation is most affected by:
Select one:
a. increased levels of blood carbon dioxide.
b. oxygen saturation of hemoglobin.
c. decreased blood CO2 levels.
d. increased blood pH.
.
increased levels of blood carbon dioxide.
Question 4
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Based on Boyle's Law discussing pressure and volume, when alveolar volume decreases, what will occur?
Select one:
a. Partial pressure increases.
b. Partial pressure decreases.
c. Pleural pressure decreases.
d. Pleural pressure increases.
Your answer is incorrect.
Pleural pressure increases.
Question 5
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A young woman has several structures removed that are responsible for filtering the lymph in her body. What is a possible side effect to this procedure?
Select one:
a. Ruptured lymphatic nodules
b. Lumpectomy
c. Enlarged adenoids
d. Lymphedema
Your answer is incorrect.
Lymphedema
Question 6
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Both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of coagulation result in the formation of:
Select one:
a. Fibrinogen
b. Plasminogen
c. Prothrombin activator
d. Prothrombin
.
Prothrombin activator
Question 7
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Rat poison contains a toxin that blocks the liver’s ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals that consume rat poison would die of:
Select one:
a. Acidosis
b. Asphyxiation
c. Hemorrhage
d. Thrombosis
.
Hemorrhage
Question 8
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Which of the following is likely to be affected in cellular immunity for a person with thymus hypoplasia, a condition where the thymus is underdeveloped?
Select one:
a. Storage of mature T-cells
b. Maturation of T-cells
c. Secretion of cytokines
d. Origin of T-cells
Your answer is incorrect.
Maturation of T-cells
Question 9
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Which of the following is NOT a site of erythropoiesis in the adult male?
Select one:
a. Liver
b. Ribs
c. Proximal epiphysis of the humerus
d. Sternum
.
Liver
Question 10
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Which of the following is TRUE?
Select one:
a. During leukemia, platelet and erythrocyte counts can decrease
b. Prothrombin activator converts thrombin into plasmin.
c. Leukopenia is normal during a modest bacterial infection.
d. Platelet plug formation is a negative process.
.
During leukemia, platelet and erythrocyte counts can decrease
Question 11
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In the spleen, T- and B-lymphocytes occurs in the ________________.
Select one:
a. red pulp tissue, spleen
b. white pulp tissue, spleen
c. red pulp tissue, bone marrow
d. white pulp tissue, bone marrow
.
white pulp tissue, spleen
Question 12
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Blood is prevented from backflowing INTO the right ventricle by the:
Select one:
a. Aortic semilunar valve
b. Tricuspid valve
c. Pulmonary semilunar valve
d. Mitral valve
Your answer is incorrect.
Pulmonary semilunar valve
Question 13
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The spleen:
Select one:
a. Is involved in mineral storage and red blood cell destruction.
b. Is served by the splenic artery, which is a branch of inferior mesenteric artery.
c. Is the only lymphoid organ in the abdominal cavity.
d. Contains primarily white pulp which is involved in red blood cell synthesis.
.
Is involved in mineral storage and red blood cell destruction.
Question 14
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What do monocytes become during immune response?
Select one:
a. Erythrocytes
b. Thrombus
c. Macrophages
d. Basophils
.
Macrophages
Question 15
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The hypothalamus is:
Select one:
a. the master gland of the endocrine system.
b. direct regulator of the thyroid gland.
c. a regulator of human growth.
d. a neuroendocrine organ.
.
the master gland of the endocrine system.
Question 16
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Stewie’s differential WBC count showed 85% neutrophils. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
Select one:
a. Stewie is perfectly normal.
b. Stewie has a parasitic fluke infection.
c. Stewie is HIV+
d. Stewie has an acute bacterial infection.
.
Stewie has an acute bacterial infection.
Question 17
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If a newborn infant has deficient GH (growth hormone) secretion, the child will:
Select one:
a. probably develop hyperthyroidism as an adult.
b. probably experience reduced bone growth.
c. lack an adequate amount of calcium in the body.
d. develop hydrocephalus before the age of two.
.
probably experience reduced bone growth.
Question 18
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How does the endocrine system play a role in sperm cell development in the male reproductive system?
Select one:
a. Luteinizing hormone is secreted from the anterior pituitary.
b. Inhibin is secreted from the sustentacular cells to increase follicle-stimulating hormone.
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone is secreted from the anterior pituitary.
d. Testosterone is secreted by the testes.
Your answer is incorrect.
Follicle-stimulating hormone is secreted from the anterior pituitary.
Question 19
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Which of the following events would occur during the germinal prenatal period?
Select one:
a. Epiblast cells migrate and displace the hypoblast to form the endoderm.
b. The foregut and hindgut develop as the cephalic and caudal ends of the yolk sac.
c. The apical ectodermal ridge develops on the lateral margin of each limb bud.
d. The thickened neural plate forms from the ectoderm.
.
Epiblast cells migrate and displace the hypoblast to form the endoderm.
Question 20
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Protein digestion is initiated in:
Select one:
a. the mouth under the effects of salivary amylase.
b. in the stomach, in response to the presence of protein.
c. the colon, where most absorption occurs.
d. the duodenum through secretion of pancreatic amylase and bicarbonate ions.
.
in the stomach, in response to the presence of protein.
Question 21
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Which of the following would deal with an extracellular pathogen in the lymph?
Select one:
a. Killer T cells only
b. B cells and natural killer cells
c. Macrophages only
d. B cells and antibodies
.
B cells and antibodies
Question 22
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Glands that secrete products into ducts are known as _____________ glands and are formed from ____________ tissue.
Select one:
a. endocrine; connective
b. exocrine; epithelial
c. endocrine; epithelial
d. exocrine; connective
.
exocrine; epithelial
Question 23
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Which WBC makes histamine?
Select one:
a. None of the Above.
b. Macrophages
c. Basophils
d. Eosinophil
Your answer is incorrect.
Basophils
Question 24
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Interferons:
Select one:
a. act by increasing the rate of cell division.
b. are virus specific, such that an interferon produced against one virus could not protect cells against another virus.
c. cannot be considered part of the immune system since they do not provide protection from bacteria.
d. interfere within intracellular viral multiplication.
.
interfere within intracellular viral multiplication.
Question 25
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Which of the following organs produces most of the plasma proteins?
Select one:
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Red bone marrow
d. Kidney
.
Liver
Question 26
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Which of the following leukocytes is most involved in antibody production?
Select one:
a. B lymphocytes
b. T lymphocytes
c. Megakaryocytes
d. Basophils
.
B lymphocytes
Question 27
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The movement of white blood cells towards a chemical known as LPS would be an example of__________.
Select one:
a. amoebeosis.
b. positive chemotaxis.
c. amphoteris.
d. diapedesis.
.
positive chemotaxis.
Question 28
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Which of the following structures is responsible for ensuring blood is moved in one direction from the right atrium to the right ventricle?
Select one:
a. Papillary muscles
b. Bicuspid valve
c. Tricuspid valve
d. Pectinate muscles
Your answer is incorrect.
Papillary muscles
Question 29
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Interferons:
Select one:
a. cause cells to produce a molecule that interferes with viral protein synthesis.
b. are considered part of the specific immune system because they are released in response to viral infection.
c. are released by an infected cell so that all viruses within it will be destroyed.
d. are nucleic acids released by virally infected cells.
Your answer is incorrect.
cause cells to produce a molecule that interferes with viral protein synthesis.
Question 30
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What structures work to prevent prolapse (i.e., flipping up) of the atrioventricular valves?
Select one:
a. Autorhythmic cells
b. Papillary muscles
c. Trabeculae carneae
d. Pectinate muscles
.
Papillary muscles
Question 31
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Which of the following would be the greatest source of blood viscosity?
Select one:
a. Thrombocytes
b. Reticulocytes
c. Basophils
d. Albumin
.
Albumin
Question 32
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Which of the following is a target tissue for parathyroid hormone?
Select one:
a. Small intestine
b. Blood vessels
c. Heart
d. Liver
.
Small intestine
Question 33
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____ are clusters of lymphatic nodules located beneath the epithelial lining of the small intestine.
Select one:
a. Immune complexes
b. Tonsils
c. Peyer’s patches
d. Adenoids
.
Peyer’s patches
Question 34
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Sodium levels in Tim’s blood began to fall. His adrenal glands released a hormone called aldosterone
which decreased the sodium output in his urine and caused his blood sodium levels to rise. This is an example of a:
Select one:
a. Both answers are correct
b. Negative mechanism
c. Positive mechanism
d. Neither answer is correct
.
Negative mechanism
Question 35
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The rhythm of the heart is normally set by the cells of the:
Select one:
a. AV Bundle
b. Bundle branches
c. Atrioventricular node
d. Sinoatrial node
.
Sinoatrial node
Question 36
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Suppressor T cells act to:
Select one:
a. Depress the responses of other T cells and B cells.
b. Limit the degree of memory in memory T cells.
c. Suppress antigens.
d. Limit antigen proliferation.
.
Depress the responses of other T cells and B cells.
Question 37
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The sequence of contraction of the heart chambers is:
Select one:
a. Both ventricles followed by both atria
b. Both atria followed by both ventricles
c. Left chambers followed by right chambers
d. Random
.
Both atria followed by both ventricles
Question 38
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Aldosterone causes a rise in blood pressure due to:
Select one:
a. increased excretion of sodium that lowers kidney filtrate volume.
b. increased reabsorption of sodium ions that increases blood volume.
c. the increased permeability characteristics of the loop of Henle.
d. increased excretion of glucose and the resultant increased urine output.
.
increased reabsorption of sodium ions that increases blood volume.
Question 39
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The process by which white blood cells exit blood vessels is known as:
Select one:
a. Positive chemotaxis
b. Exocytosis
c. Diapedesis
d. Negative chemotaxis
.
Diapedesis
Question 40
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What type of lymphocyte is responsible for antibody-mediated immunity?
Select one:
a. Macrophages
b. Antigen-presenting cells
c. B lymphocyte
d. Killer T lymphocyte
Your answer is incorrect.
B lymphocyte
Question 41
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What is the purpose of the brush border on the duodenum?
Select one:
a. Excretion
b. Protection
c. Absorption
d. Gas exchange
Your answer is incorrect.
Absorption
Question 42
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Monocytes and basophils:
Select one:
a. are both capable of diapedesis.
b. are both agranulocytes.
c. are both granulocytes.
d. are the 2 least common WBCs in the blood.
.
are both capable of diapedesis.
Question 43
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Drinking coffee, a natural diuretic, can cause the release of ADH to slow or stop from the posterior pituitary gland. If this occurs, what effect does it have on urine formation?
Select one:
a. Na+ reabsorption in the kidney tubules is inhibited.
b. Water moves by osmosis out of the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts.
c. Water remains in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts to become urine.
d. Na+ reabsorption in the kidney tubules is increased.
.
Water remains in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts to become urine.
Question 44
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Which WBC fights a parasitic infection?
Select one:
a. RBC
b. Platelets
c. Eosinophil
d. Basophil
.
Eosinophil
Question 45
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A typical RBC:
Select one:
a. Has a spherical shape, which helps minimize available surface area.
b. Lacks organelles but contains a polymorphic nucleus.
c. Lives for 120 days and then divides to yield 2 new RBCs.
d. Could eventually be engulfed by a macrophage in the spleen.
.
Could eventually be engulfed by a macrophage in the spleen.
Question 46
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T cells:
Select one:
a. can target cancerous cells and cells of transplanted tissue.
b. primarily respond to free antigens floating in plasma or lymph.
c. can react to exogenous but not endogenous antigens.
d. All of the above.
.
can target cancerous cells and cells of transplanted tissue.
Question 47
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The right side of the heart is associated with the _____ circulation and the left side of the heart is associated with the ____ circulation.
Select one:
a. systemic; pulmonary
b. coronary; systemic
c. pulmonary; systemic
d. thoracic; coronary
.
pulmonary; systemic
Question 48
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Which of the following is the pacemaker of the heart?
Select one:
a. Sinoatrial node
b. AV node
c. Arteriovenous node
d. Senoauricular node
e. Cardioacceleratory center of the medulla oblongata
.
Sinoatrial node
Question 49
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In which of the following areas would you most likely find a higher number of capillary networks?
Select one:
a. Palm of the hand
b. Epidermis
c. Kidneys
d. Cartilage
.
Kidneys
Question 50
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The movement of white blood cells towards a chemical known as LPS would be an example of__________.
Select one:
a. amphoteris.
b. positive chemotaxis.
c. diapedesis.
d. amoebeosis.
.
positive chemotaxis.
Question 51
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Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
Select one:
a. Synthesis of albumin
b. Glycogen storage
c. Producing digestive enzymes
d. Detoxification
.
Producing digestive enzymes
Question 52
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The corpus luteum forms after ovulation of the follicle, secretes progesterone, which:
Select one:
a. suppresses sperm motility an reduces chances of fertilization.
b. increases estrogen secretion and initiates menses.
c. maintains the endometrial lining for reception and development of the embryo
d. causes ischemia and necrosis of the functional endometrium.
Your answer is incorrect.
maintains the endometrial lining for reception and development of the embryo
Question 53
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Peyer patches are:
Select one:
a. are blind ended lymphatic capillaries that originate near blood capillary beds.
b. lymphatic vessels that absorb lipids from the digestive tract.
c. collections of encapsulated lymphatic organs that filter lymph.
d. aggregations of lymphatic nodules in the distal half of the small intestine.
.
aggregations of lymphatic nodules in the distal half of the small intestine.
Question 54
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A stationary blood clot in an intact vessel is known as a(n) _____ whereas a moving clot is a(n) ______.
Select one:
a. thrombus; embolus
b. EIC clot; IIC clot
c. embolus; thrombus
d. thrombus; colobus
.
thrombus; embolus
Question 55
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Follicle stimulating hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary gland increases the rate of luteinizing hormone (LH) receptor synthesis in ovary cells to prepare for:
Select one:
a. the effects of lower progesterone levels.
b. the LH surge, which will cause ovulation of the egg.
c. fertilization of primary follicles in the ovary.
d. the onset of menopause.
.
the LH surge, which will cause ovulation of the egg.
Question 56
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Immunity that results from antibodies that pass the placenta from mother to fetus is called________ immunity.
Select one:
a. auto
b. artificial passive
c. active
d. natural passive
.
natural passive
Question 57
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Which of the following occurs in the red bone marrow?
Select one:
a. Erythropoiesis
b. Thrombopoiesis
c. Leukopoiesis
d. All of the above.
.
All of the above.
Question 58
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In systole, the ventricles begin to __________ and the intraventricular pressure rises, forcing the atrioventricular valves ___________during the isovolumetric contraction phase.
Select one:
a. relax; shut
b. contract; open
c. contract; shut
d. relax; open
Your answer is incorrect.
contract; shut
Question 59
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The thyroid gland produces the hormone ____________ that activates ___________ to transfer Ca+ from the bloodstream into the bones.
Select one:
a. parathyroid hormone; kidneys
b. calcitonin; osteoblasts
c. parathyroid hormone; osteoclasts
d. calcitonin; osteoclasts
.
calcitonin; osteoblasts
Question 60
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Immunity:
Select one:
a. can be the result of a bacterial or viral infection.
b. can be a result of IgA antibodies passed to an infant via breast milk.
c. can be due to vaccination.
d. All of the above.
.
All of the above.
Question 61
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The sacral region of the spinal cord and ________ where reflexes and conscious sexual sensations for the male sex act occur.
Select one:
a. cerebrum
b. cerebellum
c. pons
d. frontal lobe
.
cerebrum
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