BSCM Sample TEST. Questions and answers, 100% proven pass rate, Graded A+

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BSCM Sample TEST. 1. Which of the following demand fulfillment approaches typically provides the longest delivery time ? A) Engineer-to-order. B) Make-to-order. C) Assemble-to-order. D) Make-to-sto... ck. 2. Which of the following is generally a characteristic of a product-focused layout ? A) Large queues at workstations. B) Fixed flow of work. C) Production to a work order. D) General purpose workstations. 3. Which of the following is generally a function of the physical distribution system ? A) Production activity control. B) Production planning. C) Packaging. D) Bill of material. 4. Forecasts are typically more accurate for the near future than they are for the longer future. This occurs because A) The near term holds less uncertainty than the long term. B) More data is available in the near term. C) Aggregate data is easier to forecast. D) The future is more dynamic in the near term. 5. A forecast is typically more accurate for A) Groups of items rather than for individual items. B) Daily rather than monthly periods of time. C) Physical units rather than monetary units. D) Far out in the future rather than nearer time periods.BSCM Sample TEST - 2 - 6. An anticipated build schedule can be BEST described as A) Production plan. B) Capacity plan. C) Materials requirements plan. D) Master production schedule. 7. Which of the following is MOST likely to be a dependent demand item ? A) A manufactured subassembly. B) An item in a grocery store. C) A service part. D) An office supply item. 8. Which of the following manufactured product types are BEST suited for flow manufacturing ? A) Wide range of disparate products. B) Limited range of similar products. C) Low volume of similar products. D) High volume of disparate products. 9. The master production schedule is generally a direct input to A) Production planning. B) Material requirements planning (MRP). C) Purchasing planning D) Production activity control (PAC). 10. A company needs to produce 4000 units over the next two months. There are 21 working days in the first month and 19 working days in the second month. What must the daily rate be with a level strategy ? A) 50 B) 75 C) 100 D) 125 11. The portion of a company's inventory and planned production which is not already committed is A) Inventory allocation. B) Inventory commitment. C) Available to promise. D) Multi-plant planning.CPIM(Certified In Production & Inventory Management) - 3 - 12. Final assembly scheduling usually occurs when A) A customer order is received. B) Planning a build schedule. C) The MPS is established. D) Capacity is constrained. Item 13 is based on the following data. Beginning inventory = 200 units Ending inventory = 200 units Sales forecast: Month 1 2 3 4 5 Quantity 200 300 200 400 300 13. What is the required monthly production to achieve level production ? A) 220 units B) 240 units C) 280 units D) 340 units 14. In order for a forecast to signal negative bias, the tracking signal would be A) Less than one. B) More than one. C) Equal to one. D) Equal to zero. 15. Which of the following identifies the demand for capacity at a work center in a specific time period ? A) Bill of labor. B) Dispatch list. C) Scheduled receipts. D) Work center load. 16. A forecast analyst has just extracted the recent actual sales history and, in reviewing the data, notices several outliers. The analyst should most likely A) Rerun the data to ensure there were no errors in the extract. B) Rerun the data but remove the outliers. C) Ignore the outliers and use the forecasts as is. D) Refer to the tracking signal.BSCM Sample TEST - 4 - Items 17 and 18 are based on the following indented bill of material. Level Part Quantity per 0 A not applicable 1 B 2 2 C 2 2 E 2 1 C 4 1 G 4 17. How many units of part C are required to produce one unit of part A ? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 18. Which of the items in the bill of material are parents ? A) A only. B) B, C, and G only. C) A and B only. D) A, B, C, and G only. 19. The primary reason for a time fence is to A) Determine how to use the forecast. B) Manage schedule changes most effectively. C) Provide a stable schedule for the suppliers. D) Maintain a steady shipment schedule. 20. The setup time for an operation is two hours and the run time is 10 minutes per piece. The scheduled operation time for 100 units is A) 130 minutes. B) 1,000 minutes. C) 1,100 minutes. D) 1,120 minutes. 21. Which of the following is NOT an input to MRP ? A) Master Production Schedule. B) Inventory records. C) Bill of f materials. D) Capacity planning.CPIM(Certified In Production & Inventory Management) - 5 - 22. Material requirements planning (MRP) schedules a planned order receipt when A) A gross requirement exists. B) A net requirement exists. C) An exception is generated. D) Safety stock is zero. 23. A firm planned order is used to A) Freeze the planned order against changes in quantity and time. B) Convert the planned order to a scheduled receipt. C) Simulate the projected inventory balance. D) Manipulate the data and quantity of the customer order. 24. A closed loop MRP system can be BEST defined as A) Action taken by a planner to approve planned orders. B) Re-planning of capacity to accommodate restraints. C) Integrated planning and control system with feedback from the bottom-up. D) Integrated systems which include financial software, finite capacity, and logistics. 25. A bill of materials contains Ⅰ . Components used to make a product. Ⅱ . Labor needed to build the product. Ⅲ . Assemblies at various stages of production. Ⅳ. Safety stock by item. A) I and II B) I and III C) II and III D) III and IV 26. Which of the following BEST describes scheduling of operations before a bottleneck work center ? A) Operations should be scheduled as early as possible. B) Work centers feeding the bottleneck should be scheduled to full capacity. C) Operations should be scheduled to the rate of the bottleneck. D) Setup time should be reduced for operations before the bottleneck.BSCM Sample TEST - 6 - 27. Rough cut capacity planning can be BEST described as A) Checking to be sure that critical resources are available to support the preliminary MPS. B) Making sure warehouse space is available for raw materials. C) Making certain the load at each work center is less than capacity. D) Ensuring resources are available by product family. 28. A purpose of holding extra inventory is to A) Allow production to select what to run. B) Minimize the bill of material levels. C) Reduce the number of purchased items. D) Buffer production from demand variation. 29. Which of the following provides a buffer for seasonal demand ? A) Lot-size inventory B) Fluctuation inventory. C) Anticipation inventory D) Decoupling inventory. 30. Which of the following BEST describes a normal distribution ? A) Most values clustered near a central point. B) Warehouses centrally located to markets. C) Values accumulated at six sigma. D) A critical ratio of 1.0. 31. Owners equity is A) Revenue less liabilities. B) Revenue less expenses. C) Assets less liabilities D) Assets less expenses.CPIM(Certified In Production & Inventory Management) [Show More]

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