Microbiology 33 Final Lecture Exam A & B (GRADED A) Questions and Answers | 100% CORRECT

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El Camino College Compton Educational Center Microbiology 33 Final Lecture Exam A & B By Dr. Eyob Wallano Instruction: Please use the provided scantron to answer all questions from each section. 5... % will be taken off from your total score if any marking is left on the exam booklet. Section E and F will be answered separately on provided paper and submitted with the booklet. Section A. Multiple Choice 1. An epidemic disease is one that A. breaks out in higher than usual proportions in a population. 2. A scientist who studies the patterns of disease in a community and attempts to locate its source is called a(n) B. epidemiologist. 3. What specific job is this person fulfilling? She isolates the cause of an outbreak, prevents its spread, and gets out public health messages to people who could have been exposed. C. Epidemiologist 4. The relationship between the human body and its microbiota D. is an example of a symbiosis. 5. Which of the following would be the reservoir of infection for a zoonosis? D. Animal 6. Which of the following is an example of indigenous microbiota? A. Escherichia coli in the intestines B. Candida albicans in the intestines C. Lactobacillus in the human vagina D. All of the above are correct 7. Indigenous microbiota may be found in all of the following environments except A. the blood. 8. Which one of the following does not contribute to the virulence of a bacterial species? D. Its ability to grow on artificial laboratory media. 9. Certain microorganisms inhabit parts of the body without causing symptoms of disease. These organisms collectively are referred to as A. indigenous microbiota. 10. The degree to which an organism is able to cause disease is referred to as its B. pathogenicity. 11. Pathogenicity islands refer to B. clusters of genes responsible for virulence. 12. Opportunistic organisms are those that C. are usually commensals but can cause disease when body defenses are suppressed. 13. The organisms that infect individuals with AIDS D. are examples of opportunistic organisms. 14. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a soil organism. Every time we eat a fresh salad, we consume millions of these organisms. They usually do us no harm. However, these same organisms can cause serious infection in persons who have been severely burned. Such a pathogen is called C. opportunistic. 15. Pneumocystis pneumonia in an AIDS patient would be considered a(n) D. secondary disease. 16. Such factors as the number of organisms, their generation time and virulence, and the level of host resistance can influence B. the incubation period for a disease. 17. Chronic diseases are those that B. linger for long periods of time. 18. In the prodromal phase of a disease, signs and symptoms B. may include nausea, fever, and headache. 19. A disease that develops rapidly, shows substantial signs and symptoms, comes to a climax, and then fades, is a(n) A. acute disease. 20. The period of a disease during which the symptoms subside is often referred to as the A. period of decline. 21. Tetanus will not occur in the tissue of the small intestine because D. the portal of entry for the tetanus spores was incorrect. 22. Adhesins may be associated with all of the following bacterial structures except D. cilia. 23. Invasiveness refers to the ability of a parasite to C. penetrate tissues and cause structural damage. 24. The organisms that cause botulism and tetanus both cause disease by the production of C. exotoxins. 25. An important effect of hemolysins is C. release of iron that the pathogen needs for its metabolism. 26. Which one of the following does not apply to endotoxins? A. They are composed exclusively of protein. 27. Hyaluronidase is a bacterial enzyme that C. enhances penetration through the host tissues. 28. Leukocidin is a bacterial enzyme that can B. destroy phagocytes. 29. The ability of the body to restrict the spread of a bacterial infection might be overcome if C. the organism produces streptokinase. 30. Endotoxin shock may follow D. antibiotic treatment of a disease due to gram-negative bacteria. 31. When the body has been exposed to exotoxins C. it will produce antitoxins. 32. A microbial poison produced during the metabolism of a bacterium and immediately released into the environment is a(n) B. exotoxin. 33. If a pathogen is part of a biofilm, its virulence is enhanced because B. it is protected from phagocytes and drugs. 34. Endotoxins are produced by C. gram negative bacteria 35. Changes in the permeability of the blood vessels often accompany diseases caused by gram negative bacteria. This permits leakage of blood fluid to the intercellular spaces, and the patient may lapse into a coma. This condition is referred to as shock. A. endotoxin 36. All of the following are characteristics of endotoxins except D. can elicit antibody production. 37. The enzyme produced by virulent staphylococci that catalyzes the formation of a blood clot which gives them protection against phagocytosis is B. coagulase. 38. Which one of the following is not a direct method by which diseases can be transmitted? D. Fomites 39. Which of the following is an example of vehicle transmission? C. Salmonellosis acquired through ingestion of contaminated food 40. A person who harbors a pathogen and is a source of infection to the next person is best referred to as a(n) D. carrier. 41. A disease that is usually present at a low level in a certain geographic area is said to be C. endemic. 42. A disease that is found in high numbers world wide such as HIV/AIDS is said to be B. pandemic. 43. An abnormally high number of measles cases in one American city would be classified as a(an) D. outbreak. 44. Nosocomial infections account for an estimated 2 million infections and 90,000 deaths each year in the United States. Which of the following is not a common cause? A. Inefficient air handling mechanisms 45. Which of the following scientists was an early pioneer in immunology with the first vaccination against smallpox? B. Jenner 46. Which early scientist proposed the theory of phagocytosis, where human white blood cells could capture and destroy disease causing microbes inside the body? A. Metchnikoff 47. Which early scientist developed vaccines for chicken cholera and rabies? C. Pasteur 48. Which of the following is the best definition for innate immunity? D. Several nonspecific defenses present in all humans from the time of birth. 49. What is the name for the scientific study of how the immune system functions in the body to prevent or destroy foreign material, such as pathogens? A. Immunology 50. The fluid portion of blood is B. serum. 51. Neutrophils are those leukocytes that function C. as phagocytes in body resistance. 52. The blood cell that contains cytotoxic granules that are particularly useful in killing multicellular parasites is the C. eosinophil. 52. Which of the following cells are leukocytes? D. Neutrophils 53. Which of the following cells are agranulocytes? B. Monocytes 54. All the following apply to the body's white blood cells except C. they carry oxygen to the tissues. 55. Which of the following is true about both macrophages and neutrophils? A. Are phagocytes 56. A nonspecific leukocyte that destroys tumor cells and cells that are infected with viruses is the C. NK cell. 57. Which of the following blood cells has the shortest life-span? B. Neutrophils 58. Which of the following is not a lymphocyte? C. Monocytes 59. Which of the following leukocytes are involved in acquired immunity? D. B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes 60. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid tissue? B. Thymus 61. Which of the following are secondary lymphoid tissues? D. All of the above are correct. 62. All of the following are functions of the lymphatic system except A. forms an alternate pathway for blood circulation. 63. Which of the following is the function of secondary lymphoid tissues? B. Where mature immune cells interact with pathogens and carry out the acquired immune response 64. Locations in the body where mature immune cells interact with pathogens are likely to be in the B. lymph nodes and spleen. 65. Which of the following organs is part of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT)? A. Peyer patches 66. The cells that have long, thin cytoplasmic extensions, are found in various body tissues and are very important in activation of lymphocytes are the A. Dendritic cells. 67. Innate immunity is the form of immunity that C. responds quickly to many common microbial features but not to host features. 68. Lysozyme acts on bacteria by C. destroying the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria. 69. Which of the following are mechanical barriers in the body's first line of defense? A. Intact skin 70. Chemical barriers to infection include all of the following except C. mucus 71. A compound that digests the cell wall of gram positive bacteria is B. lysozyme. 72. All of the following are true about chemical defensins except C. produced in the bone marrow. 73. Which of the following protects against colonization of pathogens by taking up space and nutrients on the skin and mucosa? A. Nonpathogenic microbes that live on those surfaces 74. When Metchnikoff put a splinter into the body of a starfish larva, he saw that it was soon surrounded by wandering cells. He was observing a process that today is described as D. phagocytosis. 75. What is a phagolysosome? C. When a phagosome fuses with several lysosomes to digest a pathogen 76. Opsonins may be described as B. substances that enhance the efficiency of phagocytosis. 77. Which one of the following is not a toxic substance within the phagolysosome? C. Chemokines 78. Chemokines are cytokines that D. All the above are correct. 79. At the site of tissue damage and/or infection, tissue macrophages secrete cytokines that induce A. vasodilation and increased vascular permeability, allowing more cells and fluid into the area. 80. Which of the following is not one of the four cardinal signs of inflammation? D. Bleeding. 81. A chemical circulating in the blood that causes a fever to develop is called a B. Pyrogen. 82. Pus is often found in infections. It is composed of C. dead and dying neutrophils and damaged tissues. 83. All of the following are true about a low to moderate fever except C. it may cause convulsion and death. 84. The function of the formation of a fibrin clot during an inflammatory response to a bacterial infection is to A. wall off the infecting bacteria to prevent their spread. 85. Natural killer (NK) cells can be described by all of the following except D. NK cells are phagocytes that rely on Class I MHC proteins to recognize the body’s cells. 86. NK cells secrete two enzymes that attack foreign, virus infected or cancerous cells. What are they? B. Perforin and granzymes 87. All of the following statements are true about complement except C. it is a single protein that circulates in the blood. 88. Which one of the following is not an effect of complement activation? C. Enhancement of T cell function through production of cytokines 89. The innate immune system recognizes pathogens by identifying PAMPS, unique microbial molecular sequences that are not found on host cells. The receptors on macrophages, dendritic cells and endothelial cells that bind to these PAMPS are called B. toll-like receptors. #90. The theory of specific immunologic tolerance suggests that A. a person’s own cells do not stimulate an immune response. 91. Antigenic determinants are the parts of antigen molecules that C. stimulate the immune system. 92. Haptens are poor stimulators of immunity because haptens may be A. inability to perform cross-linking. 93. Which one of the following are not immunogenic? D. Haptens 94. The cell-surface receptor on a B cell is a(n) D. antibody molecule. 95. Which cells can develop into antibody producing cells? B. B lymphocytes 96. The theory called clonal selection specifies that A. exposure to an antigen activates only those T- and B-cells with receptors recognizing specific epitopes on the antigen. 97. The immune response to intracellular pathogens is controlled and regulated by A. T cells. 98. The theory of clonal selection refers to the B. activation of naïve lymphocytes with receptors for a certain epitope. 99. Which one of the following does not apply to plasma cells? C. They carry out their functions by producing cytokines. 100. The ability to mount an efficient secondary antibody response depends on A. memory T and B cells. 101. T-lymphocyte stimulation by specific antigens leads to a type of immunity called A. cell-mediated immunity. 102. Which of the following cells undergo clonal selection when their antigen receptors bind to an antigen? A. B cells B. CD4 T cells C. CD8 T cells D. All of the above 103. The cell that matures in the thymus gland C. is responsible for cell-mediated immunity. 104. Which of the following cells has specific antigen receptors, has to interact with antigen presenting cells in order to be activated, and kills host cells that are infected with viruses? C. Cytotoxic T cells 105. The thymus A. is where lymphoid progenitor cells mature into immunocompetent T cells. 106. The site on an antibody molecule that can be bound by a phagocyte is part of the D. Fc fragment. 107. The portion of the immunoglobulin molecule that contains the antigen binding site can be described as all of the following, except D. is called the Fc fragment. 108. Which of the following are functions of the Fc fragment? A. It can combine with phagocytes in opsonization. B. It may activate the complement system in resistance mechanisms. C. It might attach to certain cells in allergic reactions. D. All of the above are correct. 109. An antibody is a protein composed of D. two identical polypeptide chains. 119. All of the following are true of IgG except . D. it is critically important in allergic reaction. 111. The antibody class is referred to as the maternal antibody. D. IgG 112. The first antibody produced in a primary antibody response is B. IgM. 113. Colostrum contains C. IgA. 114. Which of the following is NOT true about the secondary response to a particular antigen? D. Happens the first time the antigen stimulates the lymphocytes 115. Antibodies can protect against viral infection by binding to epitopes on the viruses which B. prevents the virus from attaching to host cells. 116. The neutralization of toxin molecules by antitoxins accomplishes all the following except A. increases the activity between toxins and interleukins. 117. Antibodies binding to antigens can trigger A. opsonization. B. activation of complement. C. neutralization. D. All the above are correct. 118. Macrophages are involved in A. presenting antigen fragments to T cells. B. phagocytosis. C. destroying antigen-antibody complexes. D. All the above are correct. 119. Which one of the following is not an effect of complement activation? C. Enhanced T-lymphocyte activity through thymus gland interaction 120. CD8 co-receptor proteins are found on C. cytotoxic T cells. 121. CD4 co-receptor proteins are found on A. helper T cells. 122. Which of the following molecules are found on the surface of all nucleated cells in the body? B. MHC Class I molecules 123. Which of the following molecules are only found on the surface of antigen presenting cells? C. MHC Class II molecules 124. Which one of the following is not associated with interleukin-1? C. It stimulates antigen-antibody reactions. 125. The cells that are responsible for killing abnormal cells such as tumor cells are C. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes. 126. Cytotoxic T cells release which of the following cytokines in cell to cell combat? B. Perforin and granzyme 127. The only cells required in an antibody response to T-independent antigens are B. T lymphocytes. 128. Superantigens are #129. With the development of modern vaccines we have brought which of the following diseases to the point where we can now say it has been eradicated? A. Smallpox 130. How does an individual gain naturally acquired active immunity? A. Get the disease and recover from it. B. Be exposed exposed to the disease, but have a subclinical case. D. Both A and B are correct, but not C. 131. An individual generally acquires natural active immunity after D. suffering an illness. 132. Active immunity develops after the A. antigens enter the body and induce an immune response. 133. Which of the following types of vaccines induce the strongest immune response, sometimes giving a lifelong immunity? C. Live attenuated vaccine 134. The intentional injection of an attenuated virus into a person will lead to B. artificially acquired active immunity. 135. The Sabin oral polio vaccine is prepared with polioviruses that stimulate the immune system. B. attenuated 136. Attenuated viral vaccines are more difficult to use in developing countries than inactivated viral vaccines because B. they require refrigeration to retain their effectiveness. 137. Which of the following is a drawback to the use of inactivated vaccines? A. Booster shots are required to maintain immunity for long periods of time. 138. Immunity to the disease may be stimulated by injection of a preparation of . C. diphtheria; toxoid 139. Which of the following is a single-dose vaccine? AB. Diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine 140. Subunit vaccines are those that use C. parts of microorganisms such as pili and capsular polysaccharides. 141. Conjugate vaccines contain toxoids because B. polysaccharide antigens by themselves produce a weak immune response. 142 Which of the following vaccines are conjugate vaccines where part of the capsular polysaccharides are added to a tetanus or diphtheria toxoid? A. Hib 143. Recombinant subunit vaccines have been developed against B. hepatitis B. 144. Passive immunity can A. involve an injection of antibodies. B. be acquired by a child from its mother. C. be administered with a convalescent serum. D. All the above are correct. 145. A child receiving antibodies in the colostrum during nursing has acquired immunity that is C. passive and natural. 146. Serum sickness may accompany the development in the body of C. artificial passive immunity. 147. When the immune system recognizes a foreign protein in a serum injection, immune complexes form and complement is activated, a person may develop a type of reaction called D. serum sickness. 148. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of convalescent serum? D. It is made from a pool of sera from animals. 149. Herd immunity is affected by all the following factors except B. antibiotic use. 150. Which one of the following is not related to antibody titer? D. The degree of activity of T lymphocytes 151. A neutralization reaction may be observed in the laboratory by B. injecting the antigen-antibody mixture to an animal. 152. You are carrying out a serological test. You first mix a sample of diphtheria toxin with the patient's serum, inject it into a mouse, then watch to see whether the animal dies or survives. You have performed a(n) B. neutralization test. 153. Precipitation reactions between antigens and antibodies are characterized by B. formation of a large lattice formed from antibodies and antigens. 154. The zone of equivalence is the A. concentrations of antibodies and antigens which is ideal for precipitation. 155. A neutralization test for diphtheria is called C. Schick test. 156. In immunodiffusion, antigens and antibodies diffuse through a gel towards each other and C. form a visible precipitate at the zone of equivalence. 157. The test to detect Rh antibodies is the A. Coombs test. 158. At the conclusion of the complement fixation test, the person performing the test observes whether A. red blood cells undergo lysis. 158. All the following are required to perform a florescent antibody test for syphilis except C. complement from a guinea pig. 160. An important advantage of the radioimmunoassay is the B. high sensitivity. 161. The results of an enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA. for HIV are determined by noting D. a color change in the reagents. 162. Which of the following methods can quantify the amount of antibody based on the change in color in the test system? B. ELISA 163. Which of the following is used in indirect fluorescent antibody techniques but not in direct fluorescent antibody techniques? B. Antihuman antibodies 164. RAST is a type of D. Radioummunoassay test. 165. Polyclonal antibodies in serum arise from C. several clones of B cells. 166. Which of the following is NOT true of monoclonal antibodies? D. Result from subunit vaccines *167. The antigenic substance that sets off anaphylactic reaction B. is known as an allergen. 168. Which one of the following does not apply to basophils? D. They contain hemoglobin for oxygen transport. 169. During the sensitization phase of immediate hypersensitivity, D. IgE molecules attach to basophils and mast cells. 170. IgE is the antibody involved in hypersensitivity. A. type I 171. An allergen is a(n) B. antigen that initiates an allergic reaction. 172. Which one of the following is a product made and released by mast cells sometime after degranulation? A. Leukotrienes 173. Anaphylaxis would fail to occur without A. release of mediators from mast cells and basophils. 174. A life-threatening situation in anaphylaxis occurs when C. bronchiole muscles contract. 175. In an anaphylactic reaction, onstriction of the small veins and expansion of the capillary pores forces fluids out into the tissues causing C. the skin to become swollen about the eyes, wrists, and ankles. 176. Food allergies are a form of hypersensitivity. A. Type I 177. No antibodies are involved in hypersensitivity. D. cellular 178. A series of events in which mediators cause all the body's smooth muscles to undergo vigorous contractions is called C. anaphylaxis. 179. Which of the following events does not occur during systemic anaphylaxis? D. Release of cytotoxins from T lymphocytes 180. The major preformed mediator in the granules of mast cells is B. Histamine 181. What triggers mast cells to degranulate in an allergic reaction? A. Complement binding to the cell membrane B. Cross-linking of the IgE by allergen C. Antihistamines used in the treatment of the symptoms D. Cytokines produced by Th cells 182. Which of the following substances can trigger an asthma attack? A. Pollen and mold spores B. Dust mites and pet dander C. Cold temperatures D. All of the above are correct. 183. One of the objects of desensitization procedures is to A. stimulate the production of interferon. B. destroy immune complexes that may have formed in the blood vessels. C. decrease the level of IgE. D. stimulate the production of antihistamines. 184. Which one of the following applies to a cytotoxic hypersensitivity? A. IgG reacts with antigens on the surfaces of cells. B. An induration develops at the site of contact with antigen. C. IgE fixes itself to the basophil surface. D. Poison ivy induces 185. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is primarily a result of A. formation of immune complexes in the tissues. B. antibodies from the mother attaching to antigens located on the baby’s red blood cell surface. C. decreased phagocytosis arising from thrombocytopenia. D. reaction between toxins and antitoxins occurring in the blood vessels. 186. If a woman with blood type A-positive has a child by a man whose blood type is A-negative A. the child will have type B blood. B. hemolytic disease may occur in the second child to be conceived. C. the child will not suffer from hemolytic disease nor will a future child. D. the woman will develop Rh antibodies at the conclusion of pregnancy. 187. Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result when which of the following couples have children? A. An Rh (+) man and an Rh (+) woman B. An Rh (+) man and an Rh (-) woman C. An Rh (-) man and an Rh (+) woman D. An Rh (-) man and an Rh (-) woman 188. T lymphocytes are the mediators of hypersensitivity. A. anaphylactic B. cytotoxic C. immune complex D. delayed 189. All of the following are associated with type IV hypersensitivity reactions except A. an induration. B. accumulation of T lymphocytes at the antigen site. C. production of IgE. D. infection allergy. 190. Repeated exposure to allergenic shampoos may lead to drying and scaling of the scalp. This is an example of A. infection allergy. B. contact dermatitis. C. common allergy. D. cytotoxic hypersensitivity. 191. Which one of the following is not involved in systemic lupus erythematosus? A. Immune complex formation B. A butterfly rash C. Autoantigens and autoantibodies D. Mediators such as histamine 192. Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that is an example of a(an) hypersensitivity. A. anaphylactic B. cytotoxic C. immune complex D. cellular 193 An isograft has less chance of rejection than a xenograft because A. the isograft is not composed of living tissue. B. new blood vessels need not be formed in the isograft. C. the graft composition of the donor and recipient are identical in an isograft. D. there are no antigens in an isograft. 194. Identification of the major histocompatibility proteins is helpful in determining A. the nature of autotoxins produced by the immune system. B. the extent of a person's allergy. C. the expected acceptance or rejection of transplanted tissue. D. whether a woman is Rh-positive or Rh-negative. 195. Which molecules are the major targets seen as foreign by the recipient’s immune system in rejection of allografts? A. HLA B. Histamine C. T cell receptor D. Antibodies 196. Transplanted tissue is rejected by the body if the A. grafted tissue is an autograft. B. blood types of donor and recipient are the same. C. immune system interprets the tissue to be nonself. D. donor and recipient of the transplant are identical twins. 197. Which type of graft rejection is due to preformed antibodies? A. Acute B. Hyperacute C. Chronic D. None of the above, since all transplant rejection is mediated by T cell. 198. DiGeorge syndrome and Bruton's agammaglobulinemia are both A. characterized by cytotoxic reactions. B. immune deficiency diseases. C. autoimmune diseases. D. types of atopic reactions. 199. A primary immunodecificiency in which B cells fail to develop into immunocompetent cells is A. DiGeorge syndrome. B. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia. C. Arthus phenomenon. D. Graves' disease. 200. The most dangerous of the following immune system diseases is A. atopic disease. B. severe combined immunodeficiency. C. systemic lupus erythematosus. D. allergic rhinitis. 201. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome and chronic granulomatous disease are both linked to A. defects in the body's phagocytes. B. autograft rejection. C. a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. D. the development of an induration. 202. causes AIDS. A. Influenza virus B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. HIV D. Noroviruses 203. AIDS stands for A. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome. B. Acquired Immunodeficiency Symptom. C. Acquisitioned Immunosuppressing Syndrome. D. Autoimmune Deficiency Syndrome. 204. Which of the following is not part of an HIV particle? A. CD4 receptors B. Gp120 proteins C. Reverse transcriptase D. Gp41 205. Within 72 hours of infection of a host cell, the reverse transcribed HIV DNA molecule has integrated into one of the host chromosomes as a . A. plasmid B. plastid C. prion D. provirus 206. Which enzyme uses the viral RNA as a template to synthesize a strand of DNA and then uses the DNA strand as a template to complete a DNA double helix? A. DNA ligase B. Reverse transcriptase C. RNA polymerase D. DNA polymerase 207. Stage is the asymptomatic stage of HIV infection. A. I B. II C. III D. IV 208. Stage IV is also known as the late or stage of HIV infection. A. latent B. AIDS C. progressive D. prodromal 209. is/are the hallmark of HIV infection. A. Opportunistic infections B. T cell proliferation C. Immune stimulation D. None of the above. 210. T-cell counts of or less defines an HIV-infected individual as having AIDS. A. 200 B. 500 C. 1,000 D. 10,000 211. HIV can be transmitted by “risky behaviors” such as . A. unprotected sexual contact with an HIV-infected person B. sharing contaminated needles with an HIV-infected person C. oral sex with an HIV-infected person D. All of the above. 212. Diagnosis of HIV infection often relies on the detection of HIV in the blood. A. particles B. antibodies C. proteins D. reverse transcriptase *213. Alexander Fleming is credited with the discovery of which of the following antimicrobial agents? A. Quinine B. Penicillin C. Cephalosporin D. Erythromycin 214. Which of the following is the best definition of an antibiotic? A. A chemical that is made in the pharmaceutical laboratory that kills or inhibits other microorganisms B. A product produced by living microorganisms that kills or inhibits other microorganisms C. Any chemotherapeutic agent that harms an infectious organism D. The concentration of the drug that destroys the pathogen 215. A semisynthetic antibiotic is one that is A. made in a pharmaceutical laboratory. B. produced by a species of mold or bacteria. C. partly of microbial origin and partly of laboratory origin. D. partly functionally. 216. A broad spectrum antibiotic would be expected to be effective against A. Gram positive bacteria only. B. Gram negative bacteria only. C. both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. D. both bacteria and viruses. 217. Ideally, an antimicrobial agent should exhibit selective toxicity, meaning that A. it should harm the infectious agent but not the host. B. it should have very low toxic dose. C. it should have a very high therapeutic dose. D. it should be toxic to a wide variety of infectious agents. 218. Sulfonamide is a competitive inhibitor which interferes with the ability of a bacteriujm to A. resist the effect of tetracycline. B. synthesize PABA. C. undergo transformation to a resistant form. D. form folic acid. 219. Isoniazid is a narrow spectrum antibiotic that is useful for treatment of A. viral infections. B. pneumonia. C. tuberculosis. D. strep throat. 220. Isoniazid inhibits the synthesis of A. peptidoglycan. B. folic acid. C. mycolic acid. D. viral RNA. 221. Which group of antibiotics block DNA synthesis in bacteria? A. Quinolones B. Penicillins C. Aminoglycosides D. Tetracyclines 222. The two major drawbacks to the use of penicillin are A. kidney damage and immune complex formation. B. allergic reactions and development of drug-resistant bacteria. C. aplastic anemia and anaphylactic hypersensitivity. D. loss of hearing and cytotoxic hypersensitivity. 223. A person who is allergic to penicillin allergy may be treated with A. bacitracin but not cephalosporin. B. erythromycin but not ampicillin. C. amoxicillin but not erythromycin. D. ampicillin but not amoxicillin. 224. The beta lactam nucleus is the basic structure of A. penicillin. B. tetracycline. C. chloramphenicol. D. aminoglycosides. 225. Penicillin is most effective against A. log phase gram (-) bacteria. B. stationary phase gram (-) bacteria. C. log phase gram (+) bacteria. D. stationary phase gram (+) bacteria. 226. Both the cephalosporin and penicillin antibiotics A. are produced by mold-like bacteria. B. are used primarily for gram-negative bacteria. C. act on the cell wall of bacteria. D. are related to sulfanilamide. 227. Cephalosporins act by A. inhibiting protein synthesis. B. interfering with cell-wall biosynthesis. C. competitively inhibiting folic acid biosynthesis. D. inhibiting RNA synthesis. 228. Members of the genus Streptomyces A. produce sulfanilamide. B. are commonly found in the urinary tract. C. produce many well-known antibiotics. D. are used to test the MIC of an antibiotic. 229. A common feature of bacitracin and polymyxin B is that both antibiotics A. are effective against fungi. B. contain four benzene rings and several carbohydrate side-groups. C. are only used topically. D. lead to anaphylaxis reactions. 230. All aminoglycoside antibiotics function by B. attaching irreversibility to bacterial ribosomes. 231. The tubercle bacillus is usually susceptible to B. streptomycin but not penicillin. 232. Chloramphenicol C. interferes with protein synthesis in microorganisms. 233. All the following apply to the tetracycline antibiotics except D. they may cause aplastic anemia or the gray syndrome. 234. The spectrum of activity of tetracycline antibiotics D. includes Rickettsia and Chlamydia. 235. Pseudomembranous colitis is a condition of the intestine that may be related to C. overuse of lincomycin and clindamycin. 236. Penicillins interfere with the synthesis of B. peptidoglycan. 237. Some bacteria produce beta-lactamases, which break down and inactivate A. penicillins. 238. Nystatin is the recommended drug for D. Candida albicans infections of the intestine or oral cavity. 239. Flucytosine, clotrimazole, and ketoconazole are all C. antifungal agents. 240. Chloroquine, primaquine, and quinine are of value for the treatment of B. cases of malaria. 241. Which of the following is not a type of chemotherapeutic agent used to treat viral infections? D. Agents which interfere with ergosterol 242. The Kirby-Bauer test is useful for determining C. which antibiotic may be employed to treat an infection. 243. Which of the following factors contribute to the selection of antibiotic resistant bacteria? A. Using antibiotics when they are not needed B. Failing to complete a course of treatment C. Antibiotics given to livestock D. All of the above. Section B. Matching - 1 Select one of the following four virulence factors to correctly complete each of the statements in the following questions. A. Hyaluronidase B. Exotoxin C. Coagulase D. Endotoxin 244. sometimes is called the spreading factor. Ans: A 245. is a product of metabolism in many gram-positive bacteria. Ans: B 246. is part of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria. Ans: D 247. is produced by virulent staphylococci. Ans: C 248. elicits the production of antitoxins. Ans: B 249. enhances resistance to phagocytosis by forming a clot. Ans: C 250. may be altered to form toxoids. Ans: B 251. digests hyaluronic acid to its component molecules. Ans: A 252. contributes to the invasiveness of an organism. Ans: A 253. consists of part of the outer membrane of the cell wall. Ans: D 254. may cause circulatory damage and shock. Ans: D 255. is identified by combining staphylococci with rabbit plasma. Ans: C 256. is released when the organism is killed. Ans: D Section B. Matching - 2 Select one of the following four choices to correctly complete each of the statements below. A. Inflammation B. Natural killer cells C. Phagocyte D. Eosinophil 257. was first described by Elie Metchnikoff. C 258. can move out of the circulation to engulf foreign particles or pathogens C 259 results in redness, heat, pain, and swelling. A 260. may develop from mechanical injury such as a blow to the skin. A 261. attack cells when MHC proteins are absent. B 262. contain granules that contain toxic compounds to defend against multicellular parasites, such as flukes and tapeworms D 263. is inhibited by a bacterial capsule. C 264. involves granzymes and perforins. B Section B. Matching - 3 Choose the category of acquired immunity that fits each of the following. A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity 265. may result from an incident of subclinical disease. - Ans: A 266. arises from the passage of maternal antibodies. - Ans: C 267. results from an injection of hyperimmune serum. Ans: D 268. develops after treatment with antitoxin. Ans: D 269. follows a case of disease. Ans: A 270. may lead to serum sickness. Ans: D 271. provides protection for the first six months of life. Ans: C 272. can be raised to a higher level by booster shots. Ans: B 273. person becomes ill and produces own antibodies. Ans: A 274. follows unintentional exposure to antigens. Ans: A 275. arises from antibodies in the colostrum. Ans: C 276 follows an injection of attenuated virus. Ans: B 277. also is called congenital immunity Ans: C 278. produces memory cells from illness responsible for antibody production. Ans: A 279. is stimulated by inactivated viruses. Ans: B 280. is an intentional exposure to an immunizing agent and is long-lasting. Ans: B 281. can be induced in a nursing child. Ans: C 282. involves exposure to inactivated or attenuated viruses. Ans: B Section B. Matching – 4 Match each antimicrobial agent with its mode of action. A. Competitive inhibition B. Inhibits RNA synthesis C. Inhibits protein synthesis D. Inhibits function of cell membrane E. Inhibits cell wall synthesis F. Affects protozoal metabolism G. Interferes with mitosis 283. Penicillin Ans: E 284. Sulfanilamide Ans: A 285. Erythromycin Ans: C 286. Chloramphenicol Ans: C 287. Rifampin Ans: B 288. Cephalosporin Ans: E 289. Polymyxin Ans: D, E 290. Griseofulvin Ans: G, E 291. Chloroquine Ans: F, E Section B. Matching – 5 Select one of the following two choices to correctly match the description A. Humoral immunity B. Cell-mediated immunity 292. involves helper and cytotoxic T lymphocytes. Ans: B 293. is mediated by B cells that mature in the bone marrow. Ans: A 294. provides resistance to tuberculosis and viral infected cells. Ans: B 295. is characterized by the release of interleukins. Ans: B 296. involves the production of antibodies. Ans: A 297. involves granzymes and perforins Ans: B 298. involves plasma cells produced from B lymphocytes. Ans: A 299. is activated by a B cell binding specific antigen. Ans: A 300. involves cytotoxic T lymphocytes attacking virus-infected cells. Ans: B 301. produces five classes of immunoglobulins. Ans: A 302. requires T cell maturation through the secretion of IL-2. Ans: B 303. requires antigenic peptides to be bound to MHC proteins. Ans: B Section B. Matching – 6 Match each description with the correct term. A. CD8 coreceptor B. Epitopes C. Dendritic cells D. Interleukin-1 E. Interleukin-2 F. CD4 co-receptor G. Perforin H. Opsonin 304. Antigen presenting cells Ans: C 305. Attached to the surface of helper T cells Ans: F 306. Secreted by macrophages to stimulate T cells Ans: D 307. Antibody or complement protein that encourages phagocytosis Ans: H 308. Attached to the surface of cytotoxic T cells Ans: A 309. Antigenic determinants Ans: B 310. Stimulates T cells to divide and mature Ans: E 311. Toxin released by cytotoxic T lymphocytes Ans: G Section B. Matching – 7 Match each description with its immunoglobulin. A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgE E. IgD 312. higher levels indicates a very recent infection Ans: C 313. provides protection in the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts Ans: B 314. major circulating antibody Ans: A 315. maternal antibody that crosses the placenta Ans: A 316. important in allergic reactions Ans: D Section B. Matching – 8 Select one of the following types of hypersensitivity to correctly complete each of the statements below. A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity 317. is typified by the transfusion reaction. Ans: B 318. may be related to the development of rheumatic fever. Ans: C 319. requires IgE attached to mast cells. Ans: A 320. is the reaction to poison ivy. Ans: D 321. is due to deposits aggregates of antigens and antibodies on tissue surfaces. Ans: C 322. involves an exaggeration of the process of cellular immunity. Ans: D 323. may be accompanied by contractions of the GI tract, edema and shortness of breath. Ans: A 324. is typified by the Arthus reaction. Ans: C 325. does not involve antibody formation. Ans: D 326. involves histamine release. Ans: A 327. involves the degranulation of sensitized cells. Ans: A 328. involves an IgG reaction with antigens that may cause serum sickness. Ans: C 329. may lead to death in 10 to 15 minutes from asphyxiation if the reaction is systemic. Ans: A 330. involves IgG reacting with antigens on the surfaces of cells. Ans: B Section B. Matching- 9 Match each type of transplant rejection with the appropriate description A. Hyperacute rejection B. Acute rejection C. Chronic rejection 331. occurs within minutes of the transplant Ans: A 332. ongoing immune response due to minor antigenic differences Ans: C 333. due to preformed antibodies Ans: A 334. occurs within 10-30 days after the transplant and may be prevented by careful MHC matching and immunosuppressive therapy Ans: B 335. results in rapid destruction of the blood vessels of the graft Ans: A Section C. True/False - 1 336. True or False? When the natural resistance is unable to overcome the aggressiveness of microorganisms, disease sets in. Ans: True 337. True or False? Organisms in a commensalistic relationship with the human body derive benefit from the body but neither harm nor benefit the body. Ans: True 338. True or False? Parasites vary greatly in their pathogenicity. Ans: True 339. True or False? Acute diseases are those that take a long time to develop and then linger for long periods in the body. Ans: False Response: Chronic diseases are those that take a long time to develop and then linger for long periods in the body. 340. True or False? The incubation period of a disease reflects the time that passes between entry of the parasite to the host and the decline of the disease. Ans: False Response: The incubation period of a disease reflects the time that passes between entry of the parasite into the host and the appearance of symptoms. 341. True or False? The number of organisms that must be taken into the body for disease to occur is essentially the same for all infectious agents. Ans: False Response: The number of organisms that must be taken into the body for disease to occur varies between different infectious agents. 342. True or False? In a subclinical infection, few symptoms are evident in the patient, whereas in a clinical infection, the symptoms are apparent. Ans: True 343.. True or False? All pathogens have a single portal of entry into to the host that allows it to infect and cause disease. Ans: False Response: Some pathogens have more than one portal of entry into to the host that allows it to infect and cause disease. 344. True or False? Altered endotoxins may be used as immunizing agents because they induce the body to produce special antibodies called antitoxins. Ans: False Response: Altered exotoxins may be used as immunizing agents because they induce the body to produce special antibodies called antitoxins. 345. True or False? Coagulase-positive staphylococci resist body defenses by surrounding themselves with a fibrin clot, thereby escaping phagocytosis. Ans: True 346. True or False? Leukocidin is a product of the body's white blood cells that reacts with bacteria and dissolves them, thereby destroying the bacteria. Ans: False Response: Leukocidin is a product of bacteria that destroys leukocytes 347. True or False? In noncommunicable diseases, the infectious agent is usually acquired from the environment and is not easily transmitted to the next host. Ans: True 348. True or False? Mechanical vectors are arthropods that carry microbes on their body parts from one host to another, but are not infected with the microbe themselves. Ans: True 359. True or False? Direct methods for the transmission of disease include consumption of contaminated food or water, an arthropod bite, and contact with fomites. Ans: False Response: Indirect methods for the transmission of disease include consumption of contaminated food or water, an arthropod bite, and contact with fomites. 350. True or False? An arthropod that is infected with a certain parasite and that can transmit that parasite to a new host is considered a mechanical vector. Ans: False Response: An arthropod that is infected with a certain parasite and that can transmit that parasite to a new host is considered a biological vector. 351. True or False? Reservoirs of infection include animals, humans, water, and soil. Ans: True 352. True or False? The most common nosocomial infections are infection of surgical wounds, or infections to the respiratory, urogenital, or gastrointestinal tracts. Ans: True 353. True or False? Nosocomial infections are often caused by breaches of infection control practices and procedures, unclean and non-sterile environmental surfaces, and/or ill employees. Ans: True Section C. True/False – 2 354. True or False? Innate immunity, consists of several nonspecific defenses present in all humans from the time of birth. True 355. True or False? The polymorphonuclear neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages are primarily concerned with phagocytosis. True 356. True or False? The lymphocyte is a leukocyte with a single nucleus that exists in the lymph nodes and functions in the immune system. True 357. True or False? Innate immunity develops over the course of the infection, taking several days to more than a week to mount an effective response and a protective defense. False Response: Acquired immunity develops over the course of the infection, taking several days to more than a week to mount an effective response and a protective defense. 358. True or False? A natural barrier to the intestine is provided by the extremely alkaline environment of the stomach contents. False Response: A natural barrier to the intestine is provided by the extremely acidic environment of the stomach contents. 359. True or False? A mixture of plasma dead tissue cells, leukocytes, and dead bacteria enclosed in a wall of fibrin yields an abscess or boil. True 360. True or False? The internalization of a microbe into phagocyte is enhanced when the microbe is coated with certain serum proteins, such as antibodies or complement. These protein molecules, called opsonins, attach to microbes and increase the ability of phagocytes to adhere to the pathogen. True 361. True or False? The immune system responds to invasion by pathogenic microbes by mounting a rapid innate response, followed several days later by the development of antibodies and lymphocytes as part of the acquired immune response. True 362. True or False? Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are signaling receptors on macrophages, dendritic cells, and endothelial cells membrane that accelerate the formation of phagolysosomes and faster killing of engulfed microbes. True Section C. True/False – 3 363. True or False? In the preparation of toxoids, the antigenicity of the toxin remains while the toxigenicity is destroyed. Ans: True 364. True or False? A danger of subunit vaccines is that disease may occur in an immuno-incompetent person who is vaccinated. Ans: False Response: There is no danger of disease from subunit vaccines, since the whole microbe is not used. 365. True or False? Naturally acquired active immunity to a particular disease may occur when antibodies cross the placenta from the mothers circulation to that of the fetus. Ans: False Response: Naturally acquired passive immunity 366. True or False? Immunizing agents include toxoids, subunit vaccines containing parts of microorganisms, and recombinant vaccines such as that used for hepatitis B. Ans: True 367. True or False? The phenomenon of herd immunity says when approximately 90 percent of the population is vaccinated, the spread of the disease is effectively stopped. Ans: True 368. True or False? The titer of antibody is the most concentrated amount of serum that yields a detectable reaction with its specific antigen. Ans: False Response: The titer of antibody is the most dilute amount of serum that yields a detectable reaction with its specific antigen. 369. True or False? Immunoelectrophoresis techniques are based in part on the precipitation reaction that takes place between antigens and antibodies. Ans: True 370. True or False? In precipitation reactions, antigens on the surfaces of particles react with antibodies and cause the cells to precipitate to the bottom of the vessel. Ans: False Response: agglutination reactions 371. True or False? The indicator system in the complement fixation test is used to determine whether complement was used up in the test system. Ans: True 372. True or False? Antiglobulin antibodies are those that interact with human antibodies such as in fluorescent antibody techniques. Ans: True 373. True or False? The direct fluorescent antibody test requires that antiglobulin antibodies be used, while the indirect test has no such requirement. Ans: False Response: The indirect fluorescent antibody test requires that antiglobulin antibodies be used, while the direct test has no such requirement. 374. True or False? The radioallergosorbent test (RAST) can be used to detect IgE antibodies in the serum of a person possibly allergic to penicillin. Ans: True 375. True or False? The ELISA test has virtually the same sensitivity as RIA and RAST but does not require expensive equipment or radioactivity. Ans: True 376. True or False? Monoclonal antibodies are produced by carcinoma cells. Ans: False Response: Monoclonal antibodies are produced by hybridoma cells. Section C. True/False – 4 377. True or False? If the developing immune system does not “experience” common microbes, there is a good chance it will fail to function properly—and allergies and hypersensitivities may be the result. Ans: True 378. True or False? Mast cells are connective tissue cells to which IgG attaches and sensitizes an individual during development of a type I hypersensitivity. Ans: False Response: Mast cells are connective tissue cells to which IgE attaches and sensitizes an individual during development of a type I hypersensitivity. 379. True or False? The vast majority of hypersensitivity reactions are accompanied by limited production of IgE and the sensitization of mast cells only in localized areas of the body. Ans: True 380. True or False? Atopic diseases such as hay fever and asthma are diseases in which a type I hypersensitivity reaction occurs in a localized area of the body. Ans: True 381 True or False?. Late-phase anaphylaxis takes several hours for the tissue to become hot, tender, red, and swollen. The mast cells induce this reaction by releasing chemokines that attract other cells to the site to bring about the changes. Ans: True 382. True or False? Asthma is characterized by wheezing and stressed breathing and appears to be due to the same allergens associated with hay fever. Ans: True 383. True or False? Hemolytic disease of the newborn will generally not occur during a woman's first pregnancy because her initial exposure to Rh antigens occurs during the birth of her first child. Ans: True 384. True or False? An important application of infection allergy is the skin test for tuberculosis, in which bacterial antibodies are applied to the skin to test whether anaphylaxis occurs in 48 hours. Ans: False Response: An important application of infection allergy is the skin test for tuberculosis, in which purified protein derivative (PPD) is applied to the skin to test whether an induration and erythema form. 385. True or False? Autoimmune disorders result from a failure of the immune system to distinguish self from non-self. Ans: True 386. True or False? Allografts are usually very successful because tissue from one part of the person's body is grafted to another part. Ans: False Response: Autografts are usually very successful because tissue from one part of the person's body is grafted to another part. 387. True or False? The graft versus host rejection is observed in bone marrow transplants when immune cells in the marrow form immune products against the host cells, following suppression of the host's immune system. Ans: True 388. True or False? In DiGeorge syndrome, the thymus fails to mature in the embryo with the result that T lymphocytes are not formed in sufficient numbers. Ans: True 389. True or False? A person infected with HIV develops AIDS immediately. Ans: False Response: A person infected with HIV develops AIDS years later. Section C. True/False – 5 390. True or false? Antibiotic abuse and misuse encourages the emergence of resistant species of microorganisms. Ans: True 391. True or false? After Fleming noticed the antibacterial effect of Penicillin he isolated it and used it on several patients as World War II was beginning and was able to make it available for therapy. Ans: False Response: After Fleming noticed the antibacterial effect of Penicillin he isolated it and tried to use it unsuccessfully. Only later as World War II was beginning was it purified and made available for therapy. 392. True or false? Sulfanilamide can interfere with the metabolism of bacteria because it is so similar to the PABA. Ans: True 393. True or false? Vancomycin interferes with aspects of folic acid metabolism in bacteria that cause urinary tract infections. Ans: False Response: Sulfamethoxazole interferes with aspects of folic acid metabolism in bacteria that cause urinary tract infections. 394. True or false? The antituberculosis drug isoniazid interferes with cell wall synthesis in Mycobacterium by inhibiting production of sulfanilic acid. Ans: False Response: The antituberculosis drug isoniazid interferes with cell wall synthesis in Mycobacterium by inhibiting production of mycolic acid. 395. True or false? The quinolones are synthetic drugs which block DNA synthesis and are used to treat urinary tract infections, gonorrhea and chlamydia, and intestinal tract infections. Ans: True 396. True or false? Penicillinase-producing bacteria convert penicillin to penicilloic acid, which has no effect on the bacterial cell wall. Ans: True 397. True or false? Penicillin antibiotics are used primarily against gram-positive bacteria, but in high concentrations they are also inhibitory to some gram-negative bacteria. Ans: True 398. True or false? Both bacitracin and polymyxin B are synthesized by Bacillus species. They are quite toxic internally and can cause kidney damage. Therefore, they generally are restricted to topical use, such as on the skin. Ans: True 399. True or false? Vancomycin has emerged as a key treatment in therapy for gram positive organisms that are resistant to other antibiotics; it is often is referred to as the “drug of last resort.” Ans: True 400. True or false? All antibiotics and chemotherapeutic agents are produced by species of Streptomyces. Ans: False Response: Not all antibiotics and chemotherapeutic agents are produced by species of Streptomyces. 401 True or false? Aplastic anemia sometimes occurs as a serious side effect of chloramphenicol therapy. Ans: True 402. True or false? Most systemic fungal infections are treated with gentamicin, an antifungal antibiotic that changes the permeability of the membranes of cells. Ans: False Response: Most systemic fungal infections are treated with amphotericin B, an antifungal antibiotic that changes the permeability of the membranes of cells 403. True or false? Griseofulvin and nystatin are valuable drugs where resistance to tetracycline drugs has developed in bacteria. Ans: False Response: Griseofulvin and nystatin are valuable drugs for fungal infections. 404. True or false? Quinine, chloroquine, and primaquine are all drugs used for the treatment of malaria. Ans: True 405. True or false? Artemisia annua (sweet wormwood) is used to treat multi-drug resistant strains of P. falciparum. In red blood cells, the drug releases “free radicals” that destroy the malarial parasites. Ans: True 406. True or false? 40 percent of all the antibiotics produced in the United States are in animal feeds to check disease and promote growth. By killing off less hardy bacteria, chronic low doses of antibiotics create ideal growth environments for resistant strains that can be transferred to humans. Ans: True [Show More]

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