HESI A2 Anatomy and Physiology Study
GuideTable of Contents:
Lesson 1 Skeletal
System.......................................................................1
Lesson 2 Body
Directions/Plans...........................
...
HESI A2 Anatomy and Physiology Study
GuideTable of Contents:
Lesson 1 Skeletal
System.......................................................................1
Lesson 2 Body
Directions/Plans............................................................10
Lesson 3 Muscular
System....................................................................22
*Lesson 4 Circulatory
System................................................................27
*Lesson 5 Endocrine/Hormone
System.................................................34
Lesson 6 Urinary
System.......................................................................38
Lesson 7 Integumentary
System............................................................43
Lesson 8 Digestive
System....................................................................48 *Lesson
9 Nervous
System....................................................................51
*Lesson 10 Senses
System...................................................................55 *Lesson 11
Immune System..................................................................58Lesson 12 Reproductive
System...........................................................61
Comprehensive Practice
Test................................................................61
Answer Key For All Lessons & Practice
Test.........................................681
Xiphoid Process
(pointy end of
sternum)
Did you know?
Ligaments are made from
connective tissues.
Ligaments connect bones
to other bones to form
joints like the ball and
socket joint. Tendons, on
the other hand, connect
bones to muscles.2
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Practice Worksheet
Name any bone associated
with the body part.
Upper Arm:
Ex: Humerus
Hand:
_______________________
Foot:
_______________________
Head:
________________________
Hip:
________________________
Upper Leg:
________________________
Lower Arm:
________________________
Lower leg:
________________________
Name the body part
associated with the bone.
Ulna:
Ex: Lower arm
Clavicle:
________________________
Metatarsal:
________________________
Maxilla:
________________________
Sternum:
________________________
Pelvic:
________________________
Femur:
________________________
Mandible:
______________________
Talus:
______________________
Fibula:
______________________
Ribs:
______________________
Tibia:
______________________
Metacarpals:
______________________
Name bones found in the
following regions:
Head:
1. Z
2. M
3. M
Chest, Shoulder, Collar
Bone, and Spine:
1. C
2. S
3. R
4. V
5. S
Arm:
1. H
2. U
3. R
4. C
5. M
6. P
Hips:
1. P
2. S
Upper Leg:
1. F
Kneebone:
1. P
Lower leg:
1. T
2. F
Foot:
1. T
2. C
3. T
4. M
5. P2
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Lesson 1, Practice 1:
Skeletal System
1. Where is the ulna
located?
A. leg
B. head
C. arm
D. hip
2. How many thoracic
vertebrae are there? A.
12 B. 13
C. 14
D. 15
3. Which of these is NOT
part of a leg bone?
A. tibia
B. fibula
C. tarsals
D. femur
4. Which of these is NOT
part of arm and hand
bones? A. humerus
B. ulna
C. metatarsals D.
carpals
5. Where is the cranium
located? A. arm B. head
C. leg
D. hip
6. Which bone is the pelvic
girdle associated with?
A. sacrum
B. femur
C. sternum
D. clavicle
7. Which bone can be
found in the foot? A.
radius
B. clavicle
C. scapula
D. calcaneus
8. Which of the below is
also called a breastbone?
A. sternum
B. clavicle
C. scapula
D. fibula
9. The _______ is the bone
structure of a person’s
jaw.
A. zygomatic
B. maxilla
C. mandible
D. cranium
10. Which of the following
is part of the lower leg?
A. femur
B. tibia
C. ulna
D. sacrum
11. How many lumbar
vertebrae are there?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
12. Which of the below is
NOT associated with the
patella?
A. scapula
B. tibia
C. femur
D. fibula
13. Which bone is part of the
thigh?
A. tibia
B. femur
C. fibula
D. talus
14. ______ is also called
your cheekbone.
A. zygomatic
B. maxilla
C. mandible
D. cranium
15. Which of these is NOT
part of the hand bones?
A. metacarpals
B. metatarsals
C. phalanges
D. carpals
16. _____ is a bone that
makes up the foot.
A. coccyx
B. talus
C. radius
D. femur
17. ___ makes up part of the
shoulder. A. scapula
B. tibia
C. fibula
D. patella
18. ____ are also called
digits.
A. clavicle3
B. sternum
C. phalanges
D. talus4
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19. Cervicle, Thoracic, Lumbar are types
of ___ bones.
A. hip
B. vertebrae C. pelvic
D. mandible
20. ____ is also called the
tailbone.
A. sacrum
B. coccyx
C. femur
D. scapula
21. The ___ is also called the hip bone. A.
pelvis
B. sternum
C. patella
D. calcaneus
22. These bones cage your lungs:
A. phalanges
B. vertebrae
C. ribs
D. talus
23. Metatarsals are part of the ___.
A. foot
B. hand
C. upper leg
D. upper arm
24. How many cervical vertebrae are
there? A. 5 B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
25. How many total bones in the body? A.
1120
B. 605
C. 206
D. 82
26. What is the name of the fluid found
around the cavities of the patella to
facilitate movement and shock
absorption?
A. interstitial fluid
B. fluid
C. synovial fluid
D. plasma
27. Which three bones articulate in the
elbow joint?
A. sacrum, coccyx, and femur
B. phalanges, ribs, and talus
C. humerus, radius, and ulna
D. humerus, femur, and radius
28. The hyoid is superior to the
A. larynx
B. mandible
C. cerebellum
D. cranium
29. The xiphoid process is superior to the
A. larynx
B. mandible
C. ribs
D. humerus
Lesson 1, Practice 2: Skeletal System
1. Which of the following is
found in the chest?
A. metacarpals
B. metatarsals
C. sacrum
D. sternum5
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2. Which of the following
attaches the upper teeth
of a person’s mouth? A.
mandible
B. maxilla
C. clavicle
D. scapula
3. Which of the following
are wrist bones?
A. tarsals
B. carpals
C. phalanges
D. calcaneus
4. Which one is NOT part
of the vertebral spine? A.
thoracic
B. clavicle
C. cervical
D. lumbar
5. Which of the following is
found in the foot? A.
talus B. tibia
C. patella
D. radius
6. Which of the following is
NOT found in the foot?
A. metacarpals
B. metatarsals
C. phalanges
D. calcaneus
7. Which of the following is
found in the lower leg?
A. femur
B. fibula
C. humerus
D. sternum
8. Which bone is bigger in
thickness?
A. tibia
B. fibula
9. Which bone is on the side
of the thumb (lateral)? A.
ulna
B. radius
10. Which bone does not
belong with the others?
A. humerus
B. fibula
C. ulna
D. radius
11. Which of the following is
in closer range to the
scapula?
A. clavicle
B. tibia
C. carpals
D. ulna
12. The calcaneus bone is
found in the:
A. arm
B. leg
C. head
D. foot
13. How many thoracic and
where are they found?
A. 12 found in the neck
area
B. 12 found in the chest
area
C. 13 found in the neck
area
D. 13 found in the chest
area
14. The humerus is found in
the:
A. arm
B. leg
C. head
D. foot
15. The talus is found in the:
A. arm
B. leg
C. head
D. foot
16. The metatarsals are found
in the:
A. arm
B. leg
C. head
D. foot
17. The metacarpals are
found in the:
A. arm
B. leg
C. head
D. foot
18. The carpals are found in
the:
A. arm
B. leg
C. head
D. foot
19. The tarsals are found in
the:6
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A. arm
B. leg
C. head
D. foot
20. Which bone joins with
the pelvic bone? A.
scapula
B. sacrum
C. sternum
D. patella
21. Which bone is part of the
jaw?
A. mandible
B. maxilla
C. metacarpals
D. clavicle
22. Which is part of the
lower leg?
A. femur
B. scapula
C. coccyx
D. fibula
23. Talus is a bone found in
the:
A. arm
B. leg
C. head
D. foot
24. The clavicle is the: A.
vertebrae
B. breastbone
C. collarbone
D. rib
25. How many total spinal
vertebrae are there? A. 24
B. 25
C. 26
D. 27
26. How many cervical and
where are they found?
A. 6 found in the chest area
B. 6 found in the neck area
C. 7 found in the chest area
D. 7 found in the neck area
27. How many lumbar
vertebrae are there? A. 7
B. 12
C. 5 D. 6
28. When a baseball pitcher
winds up his shoulder, he
is using which joint? A.
hinge joint
B. ball and socket joint
C. immovable joint
D. cartilagenous joint
Lesson 1, Practice 3:
Skeletal System
Use the process of elimination
to answer the questions below.
1. Which of these is found
in the head?
A. tibia
B. sphenoid bone
C. fibula
D. radius
2. Which of these is found
in the arm? A. cranium
B. femur
C. calcaneus
D. coronoid process
3. Which of these is found
in the pelvic girdle? A.
ilium B. phalanges
C. talus
D. fibula
4. Which of these is found
in the hand?
A. metatarsals
B. pelvic C. scaphoid
D. clavicle
5. Which of these is found
in the foot? A. sternum
B. cuboid
C. clavicle
D. scapula
6. Which of these is found
in the cranium?
A. ribs
B. patella
C. vomer
D. carpals
7. Which of these is found
in the thoracic area? A.
xiphoid process
B. zygomatic
C. maxilla
D. metatarsals
8. Which of these is found
in the cranium?
A. ulna
B. femur
C. occipital7
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D. sacrum
9. Which of these is found
in the cranium?
A. clavicle
B. temporal
C. fibula
D. coccyx
10. Which of these is found
in the thigh?
A. tibia
B. fibula
C. trochanter
D. humerus
11. Which of these is found
in the cranium?
A. metacarpals B. coccyx
C. talus
D. lacrimal
12. Which of these is found
in the foot? A. carpals
B. femur
C. navicular
D. sternum
13. Which of these is found
in the foot?
A. olecranon fossa
B. talus
C. transverse process
D. styloid process
14. Which of these is found
in the pelvic girdle? A.
styloid process
B. lunate
C. sacrum
D. pisiform
15. Which of these is found
in the leg?
A. trapezium
B. fibula
C. triquetrum
D. lumbar
16. Which of these is medial?
A. tibia
B. fibula
17. Which of these is lateral?
A. tibia
B. fibula
18. Which of these is medial?
A. ulna
B. radius
19. Which of these is lateral?
A. ulna
B. radius8
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Lesson 2: Directional Terms, Regions, and Body Planes9
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Practice Worksheet: Fill in the blanks.
Body Quadrants and Regions:10
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Body Planes:12
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Body Planes: Label the diagrams.14
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Lesson 2: Directional Terms, Regions, and Body Planes
Word Meaning Example
Superior Up, or above The cranium is superior to the
clavicle.
Inferior Below The mouth is inferior to the eyes.
Ventral/Anterior Towards the front of the body The sternum is ventral to the spine.
Dorsal/Posterior Towards the back of the body;
behind The spine is posterior to the heart.
Medial Towards the midline of the body The chest is medial to the arms.
Lateral Away from the midline of the
body; to the side The ears are lateral to the eyes.
Proximal Closer to the trunk of the body;
closer to the point of attachment The elbow is proximal to the wrist.
Distal Away from the trunk of the body;
away from the point of attachment The patella is distal to the femur.
Superficial Towards the surface of the body The skin is superficial to the bones.
Deep Away from the surface of the
body; internal The muscles are deep to the skin
Frontal Plane Cuts the body from dorsal and
ventral parts (back and front)
Separating nose from back of
head.
Median/Midsagittal Plane Cuts the body in left and right
parts, right down the midline Separating the right and left arm.
Transverse Plane Cuts the body from superior and
inferior parts, top and bottom
Separating the upper body from
the lower body.
Right Hypochondriac Right upper section of
abdominopelvic region Organ found here: the liver
Epigastric Central upper section of
abdominopelvic region Organ found here: the stomach
Left Hypochondriac Left upper section of
abdominopelvic region
Organ found here: part of the
stomach
Right Lumbar Right middle section of
abdominopelvic region Organ found here: colon
Umbilical Most centered section of
abdominopelvic region Organ found here: small intestines
Left Lumbar Left middle section of
abdominopelvic region Organ found here: colon
Right Iliac/Inguinal Right lower section of
abdominopelvic region Organ found here: appendix
Hypogastric Central lower section of
abdominopelvic region Organ found here: bladder
Left Iliac/Inguinal Left lower section of
abdominopelvic region Organ found here: colon15
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Lesson 2: Fill in the Blank
Word Meaning Example
Up, or above
The feet are inferior to the legs.
The ribs are anterior to the heart.
Dorsal/Posterior
Closer to the center of the body
Lateral
Proximal
The wrist is distal to the elbow.
Superficial
Deep
Cuts the body from dorsal and
ventral parts (back and front) ---------------
Median/Midsagittal Plane ---------------
Transverse Plane ---------------
Right upper section of
abdominopelvic region
Left side of the stomach is found
in this region
Most of the entire body of the
stomach can be found here
Right Lumbar region
Small intestines can be found in
this region
Left middle section of
abdominopelvic region
Right Iliac/Inguinal
Left Iliac/Inguinal16
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The urinary bladder can be found
here
Lesson 2, Practice 1, Directional Terms
1. The cranium is _____ to the mandible.
A. Anterior B. Posterior
C. Superior
D. Inferior
2. The skin is _____ to the bones.
A. Lateral B. Medial
C. Deep
D. Superficial
3. The ulna is ______ to the phalanges.
A. Proximal
B. Distal C. Ventral
D. Anterior
4. The femur is ____ to the tarsals.
A. Proximal
B. Distal C. Ventral
D. Anterior
5. The sternum is ____ to the heart.
A. Superior
B. Anterior
C. Inferior
D. Posterior
6. The spine is ____ to the sternum.
A. Superior
B. Anterior
C. Inferior
D. Posterior
7. The small intestines are ___ to the stomach.
A. Dorsal
B. Ventral C. Superior
D. Inferior
8. The muscles are ___ to the skin.
A. Dorsal
B. Deep C. Distal
D. Proximal
9. The ulna is ____ to the radius.
A. Medial
B. Lateral C. Superior
D. Inferior
10. The patella is ____ to the femur.
A. Superficial
B. Dorsal C. Proximal
D. Distal
11. The spine is ____ to the heart.
A. Inferior
B. Ventral
C. Dorsal
D. Anterior
12. The coccyx is ____ to the
sacrum.
A. Inferior
B. Posterior
C. Dorsal
D. Superficial
13. What is the meaning of dorsal?
A. In front of
B. Closest to the trunk
C. Behind
D. Farthest from the trunk
14. What is the meaning of ventral?
A. In front of
B. Closest to the trunk
C. Behind
D. Farthest from the trunk17
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Lesson 2 Practice 2, Directional
Terms
1. The clavicle is _____ to the ribs.
A. Anterior B. Posterior
C. Superior
D. Inferior
2. What kind of cut is the frontal plane?
A. Top to bottom B. Left side and right side
C. Ventral and dorsal side D. Oblique and
diagonal sides
3. The bones are ______ to the skin.
A. Lateral
B. Medial
C. Deep
D. Superficial
4. The calcaneus is ____ to the tibia.
A. Proximal
B. Distal C. Ventral
D. Anterior
5. What kind of cut is the transverse plane?
A. Top to bottom B. Left side and right side
C. Ventral and dorsal side
D. Oblique and diagonal 6. The fibula
is ____ to the pelvic girdle.
A. Proximal
B. Distal C. Ventral
D. Anterior
7. The heart is ___ to the ribs.
A. Superior B. Anterior
C. Inferior
D. Posterior
8. The sternum is ____ to the vertebrae.
A. Superior
B. Anterior
C. Inferior
D. Posterior
9. What kind of cut is the median plane?
A. Top and bottom B. Left side and
right side
C. Ventral and dorsal side
D. Oblique and diagonal
10. The esophagus is ___ to the
colon.
A. Dor
sal
B.
Ven
tral
C.
Sup
erior
D. Inferior
11. The tibia is ____ to the
metatarsals.
A. Dor
sal
B. Dee
p C.
Dist
al
D. Proximal 12. The
radius is ____ to the ulna.
A. Medial
B. Lateral C.
Superior
D. Inferior 13. The
femur is ___ to the fibula.
A. Superficial
B. Dorsal C.
Proximal
D. Distal
14. The spine is ____ to the heart.
A. Inferior
B. Ventral
C. Dorsal
D. Anterior
15. The sacrum is ____ to the coccyx.
A. Superior B. Posterior
C. Dorsal
D. Superficial 16. What
is the meaning of posterior?
A. In front of18
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B. Closest to the trunk
C. Behind
D. Farthest from the trunk 17. What is
the meaning of anterior?
A. In front of
B. Closest to the trunk
C. Behind
D. Farthest from the trunk
Lesson 2 Practice 3, Directional Terms
1. Which organ is found in the right hypochondriac
region?
A. Stomach
B. Bladder
C. Liver
D. Appendix
2. The head is ____ to the chest.
A. Anterior B.
Posterior
C. Superior
D. Inferior
3. The elbow is ____ to the hand.
A. Inferior B.
Superior C.
Distal
D. Proximal
4. The spine is ____ to the chest.
A. Ventral
B. Dorsal C. Proximal
D. Distal
5. The tibia is ___ to the fibula.
A. Deep B.
Lateral C.
Medial
D. Superficial
6. The fibula is ____ to the tibia.
A. Deep B.
Lateral C.
Medial
D. Superficial
7. Which organ is found in the
hypogastric region?
A. Stomach
B. Bladder
C. Liver
D. Appendix
8. Which organ is found in the
epigastric region?
A. Stomach
B. Bladder
C. Liver
D. Appendix
9. Which organ is found in the
right iliac
region?
A. Bladder B. Appendix
C. Stomach
D. Gall bladder 10. The
scapula is ____ to the ribs.
A. Ventral
B. Dorsal C. Medial
D. Lateral
11. Which organ is found in the left
lumbar region?
A. Colon B. Stomach
C. Liver
D. Bladder
12. Which organ is found in the
umbilical region?
A. Small intestines
B. Stomach
C. Colon
D. Appendix
13. Which organ is found in the right
lumbar region?
A. Stomach
B. Colon C. Bladder
D. Appendix19
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Lesson 3: Muscular System:20
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** The quadriceps group includes: vastus lateralis,
vastus medius, vastus intermedius, and the rectus
femoris. Vastus Intermedius cannot be seen on this
diagram because it is deep.21
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Muscles are one
of 4 main body
tissue types.22
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Lesson 3: Label the diagram.
Lesson 3 Practice 1, Muscular23
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System
1. Where is the latissimus dorsi found?
A. Head
B. Arm
C. Leg
D. Back
2. Where is the garcilis found?
A. Head
B. Arm
C. Leg
D. Back
3. Where is the serratus anterior found?
A. Head
B. Chest
C. Arm
D. Leg
4. Which of these is part of the quadriceps
group?
A. Teres Major B. Vastus Lateralis
C. Biceps Femoris
D. Tibialis Anterior
5. Which if these is found in the back of
upper body?
A. Gastrocnemius B. Achilles Tendon
C. Orbicularis Oculi
D. Trapezius
6. Which if these is found around the eye?
A. Orbicularis Oculi
B. Orbicularis Oris
C. Brachialis
D. Teres Major
7. Which if these is found around the mouth?
A. Orbicularis Oculi
B. Orbicularis Oris
C. Brachialis
D. Teres Major
8. Which of these is found in the shoulder?
A. Deltoid
B. Trapezius C. Latissimus Dorsi
D. Pectoralis Major 9.
Which of these is found in the neck?
A. Deltoid
B. Trapezius C.
Sternocleidomastoid
D. Serratus Anterior 10.
Which of these is found in the arm?
A. Biceps brachii
B. Biceps
femoris
C. Obliques
D. Gracilis
11. Which of these is found in the lower leg?
A. Trapezius B. Tibialis Anterior
C. Serratus Anterior
D. Biceps Brachii
12. Which of these is found in the front
chest?
A. Sternocleidomastoid
B. Pectoralis Major
C. Brachialis
D. Latissimus dorsi
13. Which of the following is the longest
muscle in the body?
A. Sartorius
B. Gracilis C. Gastrocnemius
D. Sternocleidomastoid
14. Which of these is most
medial?
A. Sartorius
B. Gracilis
15. Which of these is most lateral?
A. Sartorius
B. Gracilis
16. Where is the gluteus maximus found?
A. Head
B. Arm C. Behind D. Leg24
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Lesson 3 Practice 2, Muscular C. Upper arm
System D. Lower arm
9. The trapezius is located in the ___. A. Upper chest
1. A muscle found in the back of the body is
B. L
ower chest the ______.
C. A
bdomen
A. Pectoralis major
D. Thigh
B. Zygomaticus
10. Which of these is part of the quadriceps?
C. Gracilis
A. Rectus femoris
D. Latissimus dorsi
B.
iceps femoris 2. The deltoid is in the ___.
C.
racilis
A. Shoulder
D. Sartorius
B. Head
11. Which of these is NOT part of the
C. Chest quadriceps?
D. Back
A. B
iceps femoris 3. The Sartorius is found in the ____.
B. V
astus medialis
A. Leg
C. Vastus intermedialis
B. Head
D. Vastus lateralis
C. Arm
12. Which of these is found in the thigh?
D. Back
A. G
astrocnemius 4. The sternocleidomastoid is found in the ___.
B. A
dductor longus
A. Shoulder
C. Pectoralis mahor
B. Neck25
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D. Serratus anterior
C. Head
13. Which organ is found in the lower leg?
D. Chest
A. V
astus medialis 5. The ____ is found in the face.
B. V
astus lateralis
A. Tibialis Anterior
C. Gracilis
B. Deltoid
D. Soleus
C. Masseter
14. Which organ is found around the
mouth?
D. Triceps Brachii
A. O
rbicularis oris 6. The pectoralis major is found in the ___.
B. O
rbicularis oculi
A. Face
C. Deltoid
B. Neck
D. Sartorius
C. Shoulder D.
Chest
7. The rectus femoris is found in the ___.
A. Upper leg B. Lower leg C. Upper arm
D. Lower arm
8. The biceps brachii is found in the ___.
A. Upper leg
B. Lower leg
Lesson 4: Circulatory System26
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Did you know?
Another name for the tricuspid and
bicuspid valves are “AV” valves. And
another name for the aortic and
pulmonary valves are “semilunar”
valves.
Heart flow: Superior and inferior
vena cava into right atrium then
tricuspid valve opens and blood flows into the right
ventricle. Next blood rushes out the pulmonary valve
then out the pulmonary artery. New blood comes
through the pulmonary veins, into the left atrium then
the bicuspid valve opens and blood rushes into the left
ventricle, next through the aortic valve and finally out
of the aorta.
Pulmonary
Valve27
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Which way to/from the heart? Label the diagram.
Fill in the blanks.28
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Deoxygenated blood from ________ and
__________ vena cava to:
_________________ atrium to
_______________________ valve to
______________________ ventricle to
_____________________ valve Out
the _____________ artery.
Fresh oxygenated blood comes from lungs Though
the:
________________ veins to
_________________ atrium to
______________________ valve to
______________________ ventricle to
_____________________ valve out
the _____________.
*Veins carry ‘old’
deoxygenated blood to the
heart (except pulmonary
Lesson 4: Circulatory System veins) and arteries carry
fresh oxygenated blood away29
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Basilica Vein
(used for venipuncture)
from the heart to the rest
of the body (except
pulmonary artery).*
*Blood pressure, and blood
pH chemoreceptors are
heavily influenced by
Carbon Dioxide (CO2) and
Oxygen (O2). *30
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Lesson 4: Label the diagram.31
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Lesson 4 Practice 1, Circulatory System
1. On what side is the tricuspid valve found?
A. Right
B. Left
2. On what side is the bicuspid valve found?
A. Right
B. Left
3. What comes after the blood comes out the left
ventricle?
A. Flows out the aorta
B. Flows out the aortic valve C. Flows out
the pulmonary artery
D. Flows out the pulmonary vein 4.
What is another word for the mitral valve?
A. Tricuspid valve
B. Bicuspid valve
C. Aortic valve
D. Pulmonary valve
5. What comes after the blood flows out the right
atrium?
A. Flows through bicuspid valve B.
Flows through the mitral valve
C. Flows through the aortic valve
D. Flows through the tricuspid valve
6. The ____ valve lies between the right atrium
and right ventricle.
A. Bicuspid valve
B. Aortic valve C. Semilunar
valve
D. Tricuspid valve
7. The mitral valve lies between the ___ atrium
and ventricle.
A. Right
B. Left
8. Fresh blood comes from the pulmonary veins
to the left atrium and then through the:
A. Right ventricle
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Mitral valve
9. Tricuspid valve is to
semilunar/pulmonary valve as mitral
valve is to ___.
A. Aorta B. Inferior vena
cava
C. Aortic valve
D. Superior vena cava
10. Which of these is correct of the
blood flow
A. Left ventricle to
tricuspid valve B. Right
atrium to tricuspid valve
C. Left ventricle to the
semilunar/pulmonary valve
D. Semilunar/pulmonary valve out of
the aorta33
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Lesson 4 Practice 2, Ciculatory System
1. On what side is the
mitral valve found?
A. Right
B. Left
2. On what side is the
semilunar valve
found?
A. Right
B. Left
3. What comes after the
blood comes out the
right ventricle?
A. Flows out the
aorta
B. Flows out the
aortic valve
C. Flows out the
pulmonary
artery
D. Flows out the
pulmonary
valve
4. What is another word
for the semilunar
valve?
A. Tricuspid
valve
B. Bicuspid valve
C. Aortic valve
D. Pulmonary
valve
5. What happens after
the blood flows out
the left atrium?
A. Flows through
bicuspid valve
B. Flows through
the semilunar
valve
C. Flows through
the aortic
valve
D. Flows through
the tricuspid
valve
6. The ____ valve lies
between the left
atrium and left
ventricle.
A. Bicuspid valve
B. Aortic valve
C. Semilunar
valve
D. Tricuspid valve
7. The aortic valve lies
between the aorta and
____ ventricle.
A. Right
B. Left
8. Old or used blood
comes from the vena
cava to the right
atrium and then
through the:
A. Right ventricle
B. Left
ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Tricuspid valve
9. Right ventricle is to
semilunar/pulmonary
valve as left ventricle
is to ___.
A. Aorta
B. Inferior vena
cava
C. Aortic valve
D. Superior vena
cava
10. Which of these is
correct of the blood
flow
A. Right ventricle
to bicuspid
valve
B. Right atrium
to right
ventricle
C. Left ventricle
to the
semilunar/pul
mo nary valve
D. Semilunar/pul
mo nary valve
out of the
pulmonary
artery
Lesson 5: Endocrine/Hormones34
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Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Also known as Vasopressin
Secreted by the posterior pituitary
gland
Acts on the kidney to preserve fluid and electrolyte
balance, by increase water reabsorption
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Secreted by the anterior pituitary
gland
Midway through menstrual cycle, triggers ovulation and
creates corpus luteum (what’s left of the egg after a
woman ovulates).
Follicle Stimulating hormone
(FSH)
Secreted by the anterior pituitary
gland
Helps eggs mature and causes menstrual cycle to
START.
Oxytocin
Secreted by the posterior pituitary
gland
Stimulates uterine and breast contraction
Thyroid Stimulating hormone
(TSH)
Secreted by the anterior pituitary
gland
Stimulates the thyroid to release thyroxine
Adrenocorticotrophic
Hormone (ACTH)
Secreted by the anterior pituitary
gland
Stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce:
Corticosteroids
Human Growth Hormone
(HGH)
Secreted by the anterior pituitary
gland
Growth
Prolactin
Secreted by the anterior pituitary
gland
Milk production; lactation
Estrogens
Produced in ovaries
Growth promotion in and female characteristics (high
voice, puberty)35
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Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Also known as Vasopressin
Secreted by the posterior pituitary
gland
Acts on the kidney to preserve fluid and electrolyte
balance, by increase water reabsorption
Testosterone Produced
in the testes
Growth promotion in male characteristics (low voice,
hair, puberty)
Aldosterone Produced by
adrenal gland
Increases the reabsorption of sodium ions (and
ultimately water just like Adh) from the nephron
Thyroxin
Produced by thyroid/parathyroid Regulates basal metabolic rate
Calcitonin
Produced by thyroid/parathyroid Regulates uptake of calcium to bone
Parathormone (PTH)
Produced by parathyroid
Muscle and bone growth. Main hormone in blood
calcium feedback loop.
Thymosin
Produced by thymus Activates immune system
Insulin/Glucagon Produced
by pancreas Regulates glucose
Adrenalin/Noradrenalin
Produced by adrenal glands Activates fight or flight
Fill in the blank.
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
secreted by?36
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secreted by?
Midway through menstrual cycle, triggers ovulation
and creates the __________ (what’s left of the egg
after a woman ovulates).
Follicle Stimulating hormone
(FSH)
secreted by?
Prolactin
secreted by?
Growth promotion, in female characteristics (high
voice, puberty)
produced where?
Maintain endometrium (uterus) in preparation for
pregnancy
Testosterone
produced where?
Aldosterone
produced where?
produced
where?
Triggers Childbirth
Serotonin
PTH
Lesson 5: Practice 1, Endocrine System37
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1. Which of these aids
in water
reabsorption?
A. Aldostero
ne
B. LH C.
FSH
D. Progesterone
2. ___ starts the 28
menstrual cycle.
A. FSH
B. LH C.
Testoster
one
D. Oxytocin
3. Controls blood
sugar:
A. Prolactin
B. LH C.
Adh
D. Insulin
4. Helps the nephron
reabsorb water by
first reabsorbing
salt:
A. Aldostero
ne
B. Adh C.
LH
D. FSH
5. Which of these is
released when a boy
reaches puberty?
A. Progestero
ne
B. Estrogen
C.
Testosteron
e
D. Prolactin
6. ____ triggers
childbirth. A.
prolactin
B. progesterone
C. LH
D. Oxytocin
7. When this hormone
is released it aids the
uterus to maintain a
pregnancy:
A. Insulin B.
Prolactin
C.
Progestero
ne
D. Adh
8. When a kidney unit
called nephron
needs more
electrolytes like salt,
which hormone is
triggered?
A. Adh B.
Aldostero
ne C.
Progestero
ne
D. FSH
9. At the end of a 28-
day menstrual cycle
a (an) ___ is created
which is what is left
of the egg.
A. Estrogen
B. Sperm C.
Corpus
luteum
D. Fallopian
tubes
10. Which is the main
hormone involved in
blood calcium
feedback loop?
A. ADH
B. PTH
C. FSH
D. Oxytocin
Lesson 5: Hormones Practice 2, Endocrine System
1. Which of these aids in the development
of the oocytes (eggs)?
A. Aldosterone
B. Estrogen
C. FSH
D. Progesterone
2. ____ is released at the end 28 menstrual
cycle.
A. FSH
B. LH C. Testosterone38
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D. Oxytocin
3. Controls release of lactose in the breasts:
A. Prolactin
B. LH C. Adh
D. Insulin
4. Helps the nephron reabsorb water:
A. Aldosterone
B. Adh
C. LH
D. FSH
5. Which if these is released when a girl
reaches puberty?
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen C. Testosterone
D. Prolactin
6. ____ is a hormone released to create the
corpus luteum.
A. Prolactin
B. Progesterone
C. LH
D. Oxytocin
7. When this hormone is released it aids the
pancreas:
A. Insulin B. Prolactin
C. Progesterone
D. Adh
8. What is the relationship with salt and
water?
A. Water follows salt
B. Salt follows water
9. Which of these hormones is in high
quantity in the beginning of the
menstrual cycle?
A. LH
B. Aldosterone
C. FSH
D. Prolactin
Lesson 6: Urinary System:39
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Lesson 6: Label
Lesson 6: Urinary System
Kidney Produces, stores, and eliminates urine
Osmosis:
Hydrostatic Pressure:41
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Nephron Kidney unit which regulates the amount
of water and electrolytes like salt
Ureter Tube which brings urine from the
kidney to the bladder
1. Filtration Water and electrolytes are filtered
FROM the blood into the nephron
2. Reabsorption
Water and electrolytes which are
needed are reabsorbed FROM nephron
TO the blood
3. Secretion
Water and electrolytes leftovers not
needed by the blood (waste) are
secreted by the blood BACK TO the
nephron for elimination of as urine
Sodium and water rule Water always follows salt
Lesson 6: Urinary System: Fill in the Blank.
Kidney42
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Nephron
Tube which brings urine from the
kidney to the bladder
1. Filtration
2. Reabsorption
3.
Water and electrolytes leftovers not
needed by the blood (waste) are
secreted by the blood BACK TO the
nephron for elimination of as urine
Sodium and water rule
Lesson 6 Practice 1, Urinary System
1. Which of these is the function unit of a
kidney?
A. Ureter B. Nephron
C. Secretion
D. Cells
2. Which if these is the correct order of urine
formation?
A. Filtration, secretion,
reabsorption
B. Reabsorption, secretion,
filtration
C. Filtration, reabsorption,
secretion
D. Secretion, filtration,
reabsorption43
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3. Which of these is true: A. Water follows
salt
B. Salt follows water
4. If aldosterone is released in the nephron,
what will happen?
A. Salt will be retained
B. Salt will be released
C. Salt will be secreted
D. Salt will be filtered
5. If the level of Adh is high, how will the
urine come out?
A. Concentrated
B. Diluted
6. If the level of aldosterone is high in the
nephron, how will the urine come out?
A. Concentrated
B. Diluted
7. ___ occurs when the leftovers or waste of
water and electrolytes are sent back to the
nephron from the blood.
A. Reabsorption
B. Filtration C. Secretion D.
Diffusion
8. ___ occurs when water and electrolytes
are reabsorbed from the nephron to the
blood.
A. Reabsorption
B. Filtration
C. Secretion
D. Diffusion
9. ___ occurs when water and electrolytes
are filtered from the blood to the
nephron.
A. Reabsorption
B. Filtration C. Secretion
D. Diffusion
10. ___ is the tube which brings urine from
the nephron to the bladder.
A. Ureter B. Urethra
C. Uterus
D. None of the above.44
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Lesson 7: Integumentary System:
Only found in thick skin
(palms, soles of feet)
Epidermis
composed of
stratum layers.
Epithelial tissue
is one of 4 main
body tissue types.45
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Fill in the blank.
Lesson 7: Integumentary System
Epidermis Most top layer of skin46
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Dermis Skin layer under epidermis
Hypodermis Most deep layer, much of the fat
(adipose) is present in this area
Sudoriferous gland Sweat gland
Sebaceous gland Oil gland
Pacinian Corpuscle Mechanoreceptor that detects
sensitivity like touch
Arrector Pili Muscle Muscle that causes hair to stand
Melanocyte Cell that produces Melanin (dark
pigments responsible for skin color)
Stratum Basale Epidermal layer that contains
melanocytes
Lesson 7:
Fill in the Blank.
Epidermis Most top layer of skin47
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Dermis
Hypodermis
Sweat gland
Oil gland
Pacinian Corpuscle
Arrector Pili Muscle
Melanocyte
Epidermal layer that contains
melanocytes
Lesson 7: Practice 1 Integumentary System
1. Which of these makes your hair stand when you are cold?
A. Pacinian corpuscle B. Arrector Pili muscle
C. Sebaceous gland
D. Soduriferous gland
2. Which of these is your oil gland?
A. Soduriferous gland48
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B. Sebaceous gland
3. Which of these is your sweat gland?
A. Soduriferous gland
B. Sebaceous gland
4. This layer is where most of your fat is stored:
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis C. Hypodermis
D. Stratum corneum
5. This layer of the epidermis is the most superficial:
A. Stratum basale B. Stratum corneum C. Stratum spinosum
D. Stratum granulum
6. Which layer is deep to the stratum spinosum?
A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum basale
7. Which layer is considered the middle layer of the skin?
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis D. Pacinian corpuscle
8. ___ detects touch. A. Arrector pili muscle
B. Hypodermis C.
Stratum basale
D. Pacinian corpuscle
9. ____are the cells that are responsible for skin color
A. Oocytes B. Apoptosis C. Pigmentocytes
D. Melanocytes
Lesson 8: Digestive System
Word Meaning Example
Peristalsis An up and down contraction
of the muscles: a wave
Food pushed down the
esophagus49
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Segmentation A back and forth contraction
of the muscle
Digested food in the small
intestines moving back and
forth
Chyme Digested food turned almost
liquid inside the stomach -------------------
Mechanical Digestion Physical breakdown of food
into smaller pieces The teeth breakdown food
Chemical Digestion Using enzymes to break food
into smaller pieces
Saliva in mouth, hydrochloric
acid in the stomach
Absorption Nutrients absorbed from the
small intestine to the blood
Salt, water passes from
intestine to the blood to send
wherever needed in the body
Carbohydrates Starches needed by the body Bread
Proteins Amino acids needed by the
body Meat
Lipids Fats needed by the body Butter
Villi
Fingerlike extensions on the
small intestine that increase
surface area
-----------------
Microvilli Microscopic extensions on
the villi -----------------
Bile Produced in the liver and
stored in the gall bladder -----------------
Lesson 8: Digestive System
Word Meaning Example
Peristalsis Food pushed down the
esophagus50
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A back and forth contraction
of the muscle
Digested food in the small
intestines moving back and
forth
Digested food turned almost
liquid inside the stomach -------------------
Mechanical Digestion Physical breakdown of food
into smaller pieces
Chemical Digestion Saliva in mouth, hydrochloric
acid in the stomach
Nutrients absorbed from the
small intestine to the blood
Salt, water passes from
intestine to the blood to send
wherever needed in the body
Starches needed by the body Bread
Proteins Meat
Lipids Fats needed by the body
Fingerlike extensions on the
small intestine that increase
surface area
-----------------
Microscopic extensions on
the villi -----------------
Bile Produced in the ______ and
stored in the ________ -----------------
Lesson 8: Digestive System Practice 1 Lesson 8: Digestive System Practice 2
1. Which of these is an example of chemical
digestion?
A. Breakdown of food by the teeth
B. Breakdown of food by the jaw
C. Breakdown of food by salivary gland
D. Breakdown of food by tongue
2. ____ is liquid and digested form of the
food inside the stomach.
A. Peristalsis B. Carbohydrates
C. Segmentation51
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D. Chyme
3. ____ is a nutrient needed by the body.
A. Villi
B. Bile C. Lipids
D. Liver
4. ____ is to bread as protein is to ____.
A. Carbohydrates; amino acids
B. Amino acids; carbohydrates
C. Lipids; carbohydrates
D. Carbohydrates; lipids
5. ____ is a wave like movement that occurs in
the ____.
A. Segmentation; small intestine
B. Peristalsis; esophagus
C. Peristalsis; stomach
D. Segmentation; esophagus
6. ____ increase surface area in the small
intestine.
A. Chyme
B. Bile C. Proteins
D. Villi
7. ____ is produced in the liver and stored in
the ___.
A. Chyme; stomach
B. Proteins; small intestine
C. Bile; gall bladder
D. Peristalsis; villi
1. ____ happens when nutrients are passed
from the small intestine to blood.
A. Chemical digestion
B. Physical digestion
C. Absorption
D. Peristalsis
2. This type of contraction occurs in the
esophagus.
A. Segmentation
B. Peristalsis C. Mechanical
digestion
D. Chemical digestion 3.
Amino acids are molecules of:
A. Proteins
B. Lipids
C. Carbohydrates
4. Starch is used for energy. What else could
be used as energy in the form similar to
starch?
A. Proteins
B. Lipids
C. Carbohydrates
5. A back and forth contraction is called?
A. Segmentation
B. Peristalsis
6. Butter is to ____ as bread is to
carbohydrates.
A. Proteins
B. Lipids
C. Carbohydrates
7. ____ are extremely tiny extensions which
are found in the small intestine.
A. Villi B. Microvilli
C. Lipids
D. Chyme
8. ____ occurs in the small intestine.
A. Peristalsis
B. Segmentation
Lesson 9: Nervous System52
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Parasympathetic
system
System that helps
the body relax.
Ex: Muscle
relaxation in
urination.
“rest and digest”
*vagus nerve slows down heart
rate
Sympathetic system System that helps
body react quickly “fight or flight”
Nervous tissue is one of the four main tissue types of the body.
Circle the correct response:
Donnie triggers the sympathetic / parasympathetic system when he hears someone knocking on the door
at 3am.
Sarah triggers the sympathetic / parasympathetic system when she finished eating a hamburger meal.
Tara triggers the sympathetic / parasympathetic system when she sits down and watches TV.
Darrel triggers the sympathetic / parasympathetic system when he goes to bed.
John triggers the sympathetic / parasympathetic system when he goes on a first date.
Joanna triggers the sympathetic / parasympathetic system when she is about to deliver a speech for the
first time in her life.
Corine triggers the sympathetic / parasympathetic system when she breaks suddenly.
Tara triggers the sympathetic / parasympathetic system when she goes to the movies and eats popcorn
with her husband.
Lesson 9: Nervous System53
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Cerebellum directs motor control, balance, and
equilibrium (ex. muscle coordination)
Cerebrum assists with motor control and cognitive
functions such as learning
Medulla Oblongata
brain stem of the brain which connects the
spinal cord to the brain; controls autonomic
functions (parasympathetic, sympathetic)
Olfactory Nerve sensory component for sense of smell
Optic Nerve registers visual information
Vagus Nerve slows down heart rate
Hypothalamus controls body temperature, fatigue, hunger,
thirst
Lesson 9: Fill in the blank.
Cerebellum54
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Cerebrum assists with motor control and cognitive
functions such as learning
Medulla Oblongata
sensory component for sense of smell
registers visual information
slows down heart rate
Hypothalamus
Lesson 9: Practice 1 Nervous System
1. Which of these system triggers the “fight or flight” response?
A. Parasympathetic
B. Sympathetic
2. During urination, the ___ is triggered.
A. Parasympathetic
B. Sympathetic
3. During defecation, the ___ is triggered.
A. Parasympathetic
B. Sympathetic
4. Thinking on your feet is congruent with:55
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A. Parasympathetic
B. Sympathetic
5. Which of these systems triggers the “rest and digest” response?
A. Parasympathetic
B. Sympathetic
6. Which of these systems triggers when a person is about to give a speech to millions of
people for the first time?
A. Parasympathetic
B. Sympathetic
7. ____ is to watching TV after a big meal as ___ is running after a thief.
A. Parasympathetic; sympathetic
B. Sympathetic; parasympathtic
8. A soldier at a war is most likely to trigger which system more often?
A. Parasympathetic
B. Sympathetic
9. Sally goes to school and falls asleep in class. Which system is in action?
A. Parasympathetic
B. Sympathetic
10.____ lowers the heart rate and ____ raises the heart rate.
A. Parasympathetic; sympathetic
B. Sympathetic; parasympathtic
11.____connects the brainstem to the brain.
A. Medulla
B. Cerebrum56
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Lesson 10: Senses57
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)
** The cornea is
transparent and is
anterior to the iris
and pupil. It is
avascular.58
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Lesson 10: Senses Fill in the Blank59
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Lesson 10: Practice 1 Senses
1. What bone is associated with the auditory sense?
A. occipital B. temporal C. mandible
D. scaphoid
2. Where are the hair (sensory) cells located?
A. auricle
B. ear canal
C. organ of corti
D. stapes
3. What is the term for the white part of the eye?
A. sclera
B. lens
C. cornea
D. pupil
4. The ____ is transparent and in front of the iris and pupil.
A. sclera B. malleus
C. cornea
D. auricle
5. Does not have any blood supply as it gets its oxygen directly from the air:
A. sclera B. malleus
C. cornea
D. auricle
6. The ear bones stapes, incus, and malleus are inferior to the:
A. auricle B. cochlea
C. sclera
D. semicircular canals
Lesson 11: Immune/Lymphatic System60
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T cells
lymphocyte (white blood cell) produced
in the bone marrow, then moves into the
thymus, which is what the “t” stands for
B cells lymphocyte which is produced in the bone
marrow, surveillance for pathogens
Thymus
an organ which lies behind the sternum
and in front of the trachea: t cells are
stored here, at its largest during childhood
Basophil white blood cells with granules, least
common of all other granulocytes
Eosinophil “acidic loving” granulocytes
Neutrophil most common type of granulocyte
Plasma/Thrombocytes platelets, cell fragments that do not have a
nucleus, helps with blood clots
Lesson 11 Fill in the Blank.
T cells61
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lymphocyte which is produced in the
bone marrow, surveillance for pathogens
Thymus
white blood cells with granules, least
common of all other granulocytes
Eosinophil
most common type of granulocyte
Plasma/Thrombocytes
Lesson 11: Practice 1 Immune/Lymphatic System
1. Which of the following is an agranulocyte?
A. basophil
B. neutrophil
C. t cell
D. thrombocytes
2. Which of the following is a granulocyte?
A. thrombocyte
B. lymphocyte
C. basophil62
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D. b cells
3. The most common type of granulocyte is the:
A. thrombocyte
B. lymphocyte
C. neutrophil
D. basophil
4. ____ is produced in the bone marrow then moves to thymus.
A. t cells
B. b cells
C. thrombocytes
D. lymphocytes
5. _____ lack a nucleus and assist with blood clots.
A. lymphocytes
B. basophils C. eosinophils
D. platelets
Lesson 12: Reproductive System
1. Spermatogenesis Process of a baby sperm cell maturing into a
full, mature sperm63
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2. Spermatocytes Baby sperm cells
3. Sperm/Spermatozoa Fully mature male reproductive cells
4. Flagellum Tail which leads movement in a sperm
5. Ovaries Organ which produces eggs
6. Fertilization
The joining of a sperm and ovum which
begins at the fallopian tube then moves to
the uterus
7. Meiosis
This type of cell division only occurs in the
reproductive system; contains different
chromosomes each from a parent
8. Mitosis
This type of cell division occurs in almost
every other body system; it’s one cell
dividing in to two identical daughter cells
9. Oocytes Baby egg cells
10. Corpus Luteum What is left over of the egg at the end of the
menstrual cycle64
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Lesson 12: Fill in the Blank.
Spermatogenesis
Baby sperm cells
Fully mature male reproductive cells
Flagellum
Organ which produces eggs
Fertilization
Meiosis65
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Mitosis
Oocytes
What is left over of the egg at the end of the
menstrual cycle66
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Lesson 12 Practice 1 Reproductive System
1. What is the process by which spermatocytes develop into spermatozoa?
A. Ovulation B.
Spermatogenesis
C. Reproduction
D. Meiosis
2. ____ is cell division in which a cell divides into two identical daughter cells.
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
3. The sperm wiggles and heads over to the egg. How did it move?
A. It uses villi
B. It uses microvilli C. It uses spermatocytes
D. It uses its flagellum
4. The sperm penetrates the ___ to form zygote (fertilized egg).
A. Uterus B.
Ovaries
C. Ovum
D. Gonads
5. The ____ develops into a fully mature ___. A. Meiosis; mitosis
B. Oocyte; ovum
C. Spermatocyte; spermatogenesis
D. Spermatozoa; spermatocyte
6. The zygote (fertilized egg) will divide and produce more cells by:
A. Meiosis
B. Mitosis
7. The menstrual cycle no longer occurs when a ___ has been formed and has attached to the
uterus.
A. Zygote
B. Spermatozoa
C. Oocyte
D. Ovum
HESI A&P Full Practice Test:
1. Which of the following is found in the
chest?
A. Metacarpals
B. Metatarsals
C. Sacrum
D. Sternum
2. Which of the following makes up the
upper teeth of a person’s mouth?
A. Mandible67
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B. Maxilla
C. Clavicle
D. Scapula
3. Which of the following are wrist bones?
A. Tarsals
B. Carpals
C. Phalanges
D. Calcaneus
4. Which one is NOT part of the vertebral
spine?
A. Thoracic
B. Clavicle
C. Cervical
D. Lumbar
5. Which of the following is found in the
foot?
A. Talus
B. Tibia
C. Patella
D. Radius
6. Which of the following is NOT found
in the foot?
A. Metacarpals
B. Metatarsals
C. Phalanges
D. Calcaneus
7. Which of the following is found in the
lower leg?
A. Femus
B. Fibula
C. Humerus
D. Sternum
8. Which bone is bigger in thickness?
A. Tibia
B. Fibula
9. Which bone is more likely to break
easily?
A. Tibia
B. Fibula
10. What bone does not belong with the
others?
A. Humeus
B. Fibula
C. Ulna
D. Radius
11. Which of the following is in closer range
to the scapula?
A. Clavicle
B. Tibia
C. Carpals
D. Ulna
12. The calcaneus bone is found in the:
A. Arm
B. Leg
C. Head
D. Foot
13. How many thoracic and where are they
found?
A. 12 found in the neck area B.
12 found in the chest area
C. 13 found in the neck
area
D. 13 found in the chest
area 14. The latissimus dorsi is
found in the ___.
A. Leg B.
Head
C. Arm
D. Back
15. The deltoid is in the ____.
A. Shoulder
B. Head
C. Chest
D. Back
16. The Sartorius is found in the ____.
A. Leg B. Head
C. Arm
D. Back
17. The sternocleidomastoid is found in the
_.
A. Shoulder
B. Neck
C. Head
D. Chest
18. The ___ is found in the face.68
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A. Tibialis Anterior
B. Deltoid
C. Masseter
D. Triceps Brachii
19. The pectoralis major is found in the
____.
A. Face B. Neck C. Shoulder
D. Chest
20. The rectus femoris is found in the ____.
A. Upper leg B. Lower leg
C. Upper arm
D. Lower arm
21. The biceps crachii is found in the ____.
A. Upper leg B. Lower leg
C. Upper arm
D. Lower arm
22. The trapezius is located in the ____.
A. Upper back B. Lower back
C. Abdomen
D. Thigh
23. Which if these is part of the
quadriceps?
A. Rectus femoris
B. Biceps femoris
C. Gracilis
D. Sartorius
24. Which of these is NOT part of the
quadriceps?
A. Biceps femoris B. Vastus medialis
C. Vastus intermedialis
D. Vastus lateralis
25. Which of these is found in the thigh?
A. Gastrocnemius B. Adductor longus
C. Pectroralis major
D. Serratus anterior
26. The spine is ___ to the sternum.
A. Superior
B. Anterior
C. Inferior
D. Posterior
27. The small intertines are ___ to the
stomach.
A. Dorsal B. Ventral
C. Superior
D. Inferior
28. The muscles are ___ to the skin.
A. Dorsal
B. Deep
C. Distal
D. Proximal
29. The ulna is ___ to the radius.
A. Medial
B. Lateral
C. Superior
D. Inferior
30. The patella is ____ to the femur.
A. Superficial
B. Dorsal
C. Proximal
D. Distal
31. The spine is ____ to the heart.
A. Inferior
B. Ventral
C. Dorsal
D. Anterior
32. The coccyx is ____ to the sacrum.
A. Inferior B. Posterior
C. Dorsal
D. Superficial
33. The aortic valve lies between the aorta
and ____ ventricle.
A. Right
B. Left
34. Old and used blood comes from the
vena cava to the right atrium and then
through the:
A. Right ventricle
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Tricuspid valve
35. Right ventricle is to
semilunar/pulmonary valve as left
ventricle is to ____.
A. Aorta B. Inferior vena cava
C. Aortic valve
D. Superior vena cava69
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36. Which if these is correct of the blood
flow?
A. Right ventricle to bicuspid valve
B. Right atrium to right ventricle
C. Left ventricle to the
semilunar/pulmonary valve
D. Semilunar/pulmonary valve out of
the pulmonary artery
37. Which if these are released when a boy
reaches puberty?
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. Testosterone
D. Prolactin 38. ____ triggers
childbirth.
A. Prolactin
B. Progesterone
C. LH
D. Oxytocin
39. When this hormone is released, it aids the
uterus to maintain the pregnancy:
A. Insulin B. Prolactin
C. Progesterone
D. Adh
40. When a kidney unit called a nephron needs
more electrolytes like salt, which hormone
is triggered?
A. Adh B. Aldosterone
C. Progesterone
D. FSH
41. If the level of Adh is high, how will the
urine come out?
A. Concentrated
B. Diluted
42. Which of these is the correct order of urine
formation?
A. Filtration, secretion, reabsorption B.
Reabsorption, secretion, filtration
C. Filtration, reabsorption, secretion
D. Secretion, filtration, reabsorption
43. ____ occurs when water and electrolytes
are filtered from the bool to the nephron.
A. Reabsorption
B. Filtration
C. Secretion
44. This layer of epidermis is the most
superficial:
A. Stratum basale
B. Stratum corneum
C. Stratum spinosum
D. Stratum granulum
45. Which layer is deep to the stratum
spinosum?
A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum basale
46. ____ happens when nutrients are passed
from the small intestines to the blood.
A. Chemical digestion
B. Physical digestion
C. Absorption
D. Peristalsis
47. ____ occurs in the small intestine. A.
Peristalsis
B. Segmentation
48. ____ are extremely tiny extensions that
increase surface area and are found in the
small intestine.
A. Villi B. Cilia
C. Lipids
D. Chyme
49. Which of these triggers the “fight or flight”
response?
A. Parasympathetic
B. Sympathetic
50. ____ is cell division in which a cell divides
into two identical daughter cells.
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
51. The ____ develops into a fully mature
____.
A. Meiosis; mitosis
B. Egg; oocyte C. Spermatocyte;
spermatozoa
D. Spermatozoa; spermatogenesis70
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52. What are the four main tissue types of the
body?
A. Muscle, skeletal, epithelial,
reproductive
B. Muscle, epithelial, nervous,
connective
C. Skeletal, epithelial, nervous,
connective
D. Optical, reproductive, digestive,
nervous71
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Answer 19. B 10. B 2. D 3. A
Key: 20. B 11. A 3. A 4. A
Lesson 1 21. A 12. D 4. C 5. B
Practice 1,
Skeletal 22.C 13. B 5. B 6. D
System
23. A 14. A 6. C 7. D
1. C
24. C 15. D 7. A 8. B
2. A
25. C 16. D 8. C 9. A
3. C
26. C 17. A 9. B 10. D
4. C
27. C 18. A 10. C 11. C
5. B
28. A 19. D 11. D 12. A
6. A
29. C 20. B 12. C 13. C
7. D
Lesson 1 21. A 13. B 14. A
8. A Practice 2,
Skeletal 22. D 14. C Lesson 2
9. C System 23. D 15. B Directional Practice 2
10. B 1. D 24. C 16. A Terms
1. C
11. B 2. B 25. A 17. B
2. C
12. A 3. B 26. D 18. A
3. C72
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13. B 4. B 27. C 19. B
4. B
14. A 5. A 28. B Lesson 2
15. B 6. A Lesson 1 Directional Practice 1, 56. A . B
16. B 7. B Practice 3, Terms
Skeletal 7. D
17. A 8. A System 1. C
8. B
18. C 9. B 1. B 2. D
9. B 12. A Muscular 6. D 4. A
System
10. C 13. B 1. D 7. B 5. C
11. D 2. A 8. D 6. D
Lesson 3
12. B Practice 1 3. A 9. C 7. C
13. C Muscular 4. B 10. B 8. B
System
14. C 1. D 5. C Lesson 4 9. C
Practice 2 15. A 2.
C 6. D Circulatory 10. B
16. C 3. B 7. A System 1. B Lesson 5
17. A 4. B 8. C 2. B Practice 2
Lesson 2 5. D 9. A 3. D Endocrine System
Practice 3
Directional 6. A 10. A 4. D 1. C73
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Terms 7. B 11. A 5. A 2. B
1. C
8. A
2. C 12. B 6. A 3. A
9. C
3. D 13. D 7. B 4. B
10. A
4. B 14. A 8. D 5. B
11. B
5. C Lesson 4 9. C 6. C
12. B Practice 1 7. A
6. B Circulatory 10. D
13. A System 8. A 7. B 1. A Lesson
5
14. B Practice 1 9. C
8. A 2. B Endocrine
15. A
9. B 3. B System 1. A
16. C
10. B 4. B 2. A
Lesson 3
11. A Practice 2 5. D 3. D
Lesson 6 9. D Lesson 9 Lesson 11 6. A
Practice 1 Practice 1 Practice 1
Urinary Lesson 8 Nervous Immune 7. B
System Practice 1 System System 8. A
1. B Digestive 1. B 1. C
System 9. B
2. C 1. C 2. A 2. C
10. B
3. A 2. D 3. A 3. C
11. A74
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4. A 3. C 4. B 4. A
5. A 4. A 5. A 5. D 12. D
6. A 5. B 6. B Lesson 12 13. B
Practice 1
7. C 6. D 7. A Reproductive 14. D
8. A 7. C 8. B System
1. B 15. A
9. B 9. A
2. A
10. A 10. A 16. A
3. D
Lesson 7 Lesson 8 11. A 17. B
Practice 1 Practice 2 4. C 18. C
Integumentary Digestive Lesson 10 5. B
System System Practice 1 19. D
1. B 1. C Senses System 6. B
20. A
2. B 2. B 1. B 7. A 21. C
3. A 3. A 2. C A&P Practice 22. A
4. C 4. C 3. A Test 23. A
5. B 5. A 4. C 1. D 24. A
2. B
6. D 6. B 5. C 25. B
3. B
7. B 7. B 6. D 26. D
4. B75
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8. D 8. B 27. D
5. A
28. B 52. B
29. A
30. D
31. C
32. A
33. B
34. D
35. C
36. D
37. C
38. D
39. C
40. B
41. A
42. C
43. B
44. B
45. D
46. C
47. B
48. B
49. B
50. A76
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51. C© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
BONUS:
Ready For The
HESI A2
Anatomy and Physiology© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
Companion Guide and Practice Questions with
Answer Rationale
HESI A2 Anatomy & Physiology Practice Test
1. What is a clear, watery fluid found in the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye?
A. Vitreous humor
B. Ciliary body
C. Lacrimal gland
D. Aqueous humor
2. What is correct about the aqueous humor?
A. It balances absorption and pressure in the anterior chamber
B. It is secreted by the epithelium of the ciliary bodies
C. Its inability to circulate freely can cause elevated intraocular pressure D. All of the above
3. All of the following are phagocytes EXCEPT:
A. Neutrophil
B. Lymphocytes
C. Eosinophil
D. Monocytes
4. When a person is seen walking in heels, the ankle is described as being in what position?
A. Plantar flexion
B. Dorsiflexion
C. Eversion
D. Abduction
5. Which of the following statements best illustrates a correct anatomical position?
A. Standing erect without moving
B. Standing up with palms held unnaturally forward with thumbs pointing away from the body
C. Standing up with palms held unnaturally forward with thumbs pointing towards the body D. Both
standing and lying down without moving
6. A frontal section divides the body into:
A. Right and left parts
B. Anterior and posterior parts
C. Midsagittal and median section
D. Superior and inferior parts
7. Which of the following is seen mostly inside the epiphyses of each long bone?
A. Yellow marrow© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
B. Cartilage
C. Spongy bone
D. Compact bone
8. Which of the following is true about the trochanter?
A. It is attached to the lower part of the radius
B. It is attached to the lower part of ulna
C. It is attached to the upper part of the tibia
D. it is attached to the upper part of the femur
9. Which of the following statements is true about bone markings?
A. Bone markings are projections, depressions and openings found in the surface of the bones
B. They serve as sites of muscle, ligament and tendon attachment
C. The openings serve as passages of blood vessels and nerves D. All of the above
10. In order to achieve normal bone growth and development, the following factors are essential EXCEPT:
A. High fat diet
B. Growth hormone
C. Sex hormones
D. Vitamins A, C, and D
11. A person who suffered a traumatic injury in the inguinal area is most likely to die due to hemorrhage because
of a severed:
A. Femoral artery
B. Popliteal artery
C. Carotid artery
D. Brachial artery
12. Which of the following is correct about the epicardium?
A. It is the pacemaker of the heart
B. It lines the heart’s chambers
C. It is the visceral epicardium
D. It is also known as the parietal pericardium
13. The nursing student was instructed to palpate the carotid artery. Where is the carotid artery located?
A. Halfway between the shoulder and the hand; the middle of the inner arm
B. Upper neck between the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the trachea
C. The inner thigh; at the mid-inguinal point
D. In front of the tragus of the ear and up along the temple.© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
14. What artery supplies blood to the structures of the neck and face?
A. Axillary artery
B. Brachial artery
C. Internal carotid artery
D. External carotid artery
15. Which of the following is correct about the cerumen?
A. It provides protection to the ear from bacteria, fungus, insects and water
B. It can lead to dizziness and motion sickness if impacted
C. It is produced by the vibrations in the ear drum D. It is found in the ear drum
16. Chemoreceptor stimulation is associated with regulation of:
A. Breathing
B. Pain control
C. Temperature
D. Blood pressure
17. The three chambers, or scalae, that make up the interior of the cochlea are:
A. Upper Vestibular Canal, Lower Tympanic Canal, and Cochlear Duct
B. Perilymph, Endolymph and Cochlear Duct
C. Upper Vestibular Canal, Lower Tympanic Canal, and Organ of Corti D. Lower Tympanic Canal,
Cochlear Duct and Organ of Corti
18. The other name for ear drum is:
A. Cochlea
B. Organ of Corti
C. Tympanic membrane
D. Outer ear
19. Fertilization usually occurs in the:
A. Uterus
B. Fallopian tubes
C. Ovaries
D. Zygote
20. The life span of a normal RBC is approximately:
A. 120 days
B. 13 to 20 days
C. 8 to 9 days
D. 30 days
21. The red blood cell, _______, carries oxygen to and from the tissues and contains the pigment hemoglobin.© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
A. Leukocyte
B. Monocyte
C. Granulocyte
D. Erythrocyte
22. The ovaries produce and release the following hormones:
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. Estrogen and Progesterone
C. Melatonin
D. Calcitonin
23. The hormone that is secreted by the pituitary gland:
A. Cortisol
B. Oxytocin
C. Adrenaline
D. Insulin
24. The mitral valve lies between the:
A. Right atrium and the right ventricle
B. Left atrium and left ventricle
C. Just below the tricuspid valve
D. Opposite to the pulmonic valve
25. The following are functions of skeletal muscles in the body, except:
A. Structure
B. Movement
C. Heat
D. Posture
26. Which muscle type is considered voluntary?
A. Smooth
B. Cardiac
C. Epimysium
D. Skeletal
27. Which of the following is not true about the occipital lobe? A. It is responsible for processing visual
information
B. It is responsible for hearing and memory
C. Lesions to this area can cause visual hallucinations
D. It is located in the rearmost portion of the skull
28. The olfactory nerve contains sensory fibers relating to:© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
A. Smell
B. Vision
C. Hearing
D. Digestion
29. A pea-sized structure located at the base of the brain, just below the hypothalamus is called the:
A. Adrenal gland
B. Pineal gland
C. Pituitary gland
D. Thyroid gland
30. The spinal cord is made up of the following order of vertebrae:
A. Thoracic, Cervical, Lumbar, Sacrum B.
Sacral, Lumbar, Cervical, Thoracic
C. Cervical, Lumbar, Thoracic, Sacrum D.
Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacrum
31. Which is the most important risk factor for ankle sprains?
A. A history of previous ankle sprain
B. The frequency of driving
C. Athlete's foot
D. A short Achilles tendon
32. The tibia is _____ to the phalanges.
A. Dorsal
B. Proximal
C. Distal
D. Ventral
33. During vigorous activity such as exercise, the body temperature increases. Which of the following actions
takes place in the body to keep it at homeostasis?
A. Blood flow decreases
B. Sweating increases
C. Shivering increases
D. Shivering decreases
34. The part of the brain that is involved in primary auditory perception and holds the primary auditory cortex. A.
Frontal lobe
B. Occipital lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. Parietal lobe.
35. The large vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower and middle body into the right atrium of the
heart is called the:
A. Superior vena cava
B. Pulmonary arteries© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
C. Pulmonary veins
D. Inferior vena cava
36. The vessel that carries oxygenated blood back to the heart and left atrium is:
A. Superior vena cava
B. Pulmonary arteries
C. Pulmonary veins
D. Capillaries
37. According to the abdominopelvic regions, to the right side of the umbilical area is the:
A. Right iliac region
B. Right lumbar region
C. Right hypochondriac region
D. Epigastric area
38. The following are examples of a negative feedback loop EXCEPT:
A. Childbirth
B. Sweating
C. Body temperature drops
D. Body temperature rises
39. The optic cranial nerve:
A. Affects taste
B. Affects sight
C. Affects hearing
D. Affects facial expression
40. Which of the two divisions would be found in the dorsal cavity?
A. Thoracic and Cranial
B. Cranial and Spinal
C. Spinal and Abdominal
D. Cranial and Abdominal
41. Which of the following leukocytes phagocytize microorganisms and foreign substances?
A. Neutrophils
B. Erythrocytes
C. RBC
D. Osteocytes
42. The belly button is _____ to the spinal cord.
A. Posterior
B. Dorsal
C. Ventral© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
D. Superior
43. After fertilization, the placenta produces this hormone which is what pregnancy tests detect:
A. HCG
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. Luteinizing hormone
44. The anatomical region of the armpit is called:
A. Antecubital
B. Acromial
C. Abdominal
D. Axillary
45. The anatomical region where the carotid arteries and jugular veins are located:
A. Axillary
B. Cervical
C. Acromial
D. Coxal
46. The nursing student is correct to say that the frenulum is part of the:
A. Eyes and ears
B. Esophagus
C. Trachea
D. Lips and gums
47. Which of these descriptions of the heart's location is correct? A. The heart lies obliquely in the
mediastinum.
B. Its base is directed anteriorly and slightly superiorly.
C. Two-thirds of the heart's mass lies to the right of the midline of the sternum.
D. All of these
48. What happens if the sinoatrial node fails?
A. The heart will stop
B. The ventricles will contract, but the atria will stop
C. Another part of the heart, possibly the AV node, will become the pacemaker D. The heart will beat
faster
49. What is the process by which molecules are moving from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower
concentration to become evenly distributed?
A. Active transport process
B. Diffusion
C. Passive transport process
D. Filtration
50. A professional athlete is complaining of pain in her coxal area. Where is her coxal bone located?
A. Behind the hip area© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
B. In front of the thigh area
C. At the point of her shoulder
D. Posterior to the knee area
Answers and
Rationale
1. What is a clear, watery fluid found in the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye?
A. Vitreous humor
B. Ciliary body
C. Lacrimal gland
D. Aqueous humor
Answer: D© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
Rationale: Aqueous humor is a clear, watery fluid similar in composition to blood plasma and is commonly
found in the anterior and posterior chambers. The posterior cavity, located dorsal to the lens, contains the (A)
vitreous humor, a thick, clear, gelatinous fluid. The (B) ciliary body is the structure of the eye that releases the
aqueous humor. The (C) lacrimal gland continually secretes tears which moisten, lubricate, and protect the
surface of the eyes.
2. What is correct about the aqueous humor?
A. It balances absorption and pressure in the anterior chamber
B. It is secreted by the epithelium of the ciliary bodies
C. Its inability to circulate freely can cause elevated intraocular pressure D. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: All three choices describe how the aqueous fluid forms and circulates in the eye. The aqueous
humor’s inability to absorb could develop into an increased intraocular pressure which may lead to blindness
when the pressure is transmitted to the vitreous humor.
3. All of the following are phagocytes EXCEPT:
A. Neutrophil
B. Lymphocytes
C. Eosinophil
D. Monocytes
Answer: B
Rationale: (A) Neutrophils are capable of phagocytosis, or destruction of bacteria. (B) Lymphocytes offer
mediate immune responses, including antigen-antibody reactions. (C) Eosinophils are phagocytes that
protect you from parasites. (D) Monocytes are phagocytes that defend against bacteria and viruses.
4. When a person is seen walking in heels, the ankle is described as being in what position?
A. Plantar flexion
B. Dorsiflexion
C. Eversion
D. Abduction
Answer: A
Rationale: (A) Plantar flexion is the movement which decreases the angle between the sole of the foot and
the back of the leg, like ballerinas dancing. (B).Dorsiflexion decreases the angle between the dorsum of the© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
foot and the leg (C) Eversion is a turning outward or inside out, such as a turning of the foot outward at the
ankle. (D) Abduction refers to a motion that pulls a body part away from the midline, like abducting your
arms when you open them out like a bird.
5. Which of the following statements best illustrates a correct anatomical position?
A. Standing erect without moving facing down and thumbs pointing towards the body
B. Standing erect with palms facing forward and thumbs pointing away from the body
C. Standing erect with palms facing forward and thumbs pointing towards the body
D. Standing erect with palms facing down and thumbs pointing away from the body
Answer: B
Rationale: A correct anatomical position is exactly as described in answer choice B. This position is used as a
reference to describe sites, motions, body planes and regions.
6. A frontal section divides the body into:
A. Right and left parts
B. Anterior and posterior parts
C. Midsagittal and median section
D. Superior and inferior parts
Answer: B
Rationale: Frontal or coronal plane divide the body into front and back (also called dorsal and ventral or
posterior and anterior) sections. (A) describes the sagittal or lateral plane, a left to right cut. (C) explains that
the plane may be in the centre of the body and split it into two halves (midsagittal). (D) refers to transverse
planes, also known as the axial or horizontal planes, dividing the body into top and bottom parts. The top and
bottom sections also called the superior and inferior sections.
7. Which of the following is seen mostly inside the epiphyses of each long bone?
A. Yellow marrow
B. Cartilage
C. Spongy bone
D. Compact bone
Answer: C
Rationale: A typical long bone has epiphyses which are at the ends of the bone, and consist of internal
spongy bone covered by an outer layer of (D) compact bone. (A) Yellow marrow, which is mainly made up of
fat cells, are found inside a hollow medullary cavity of the tubular bone shaft and not the epiphyses. (B)
Cartilage is found between bones.© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
8. Which of the following is true about the trochanter? A. It is attached to the lower part of the radius
B. It is attached to the lower part of ulna
C. It is attached to the upper part of the tibia
D. it is attached to the upper part of the femur
Answer: D
Rationale: Trochanter is a very large, blunt, upper part of the femur which connects to the hip. (A) describes
a connection a bone in the lower arm. (B) also describes connection the arm and (C) describes a connection
to the lower leg, below the knee.
9. Which of the following statements are true about bone markings?
A. Bone markings are projections, depressions and openings found in the surface of the bones.
B. They serve as sites of muscle, ligament and tendon attachment
C. The openings serve as passages of blood vessels and nerves
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Bone markings are projections, depressions, and openings found on the surface of bones that
function as sites of muscle, ligament, and tendon attachment, as joint surfaces, and as openings for the
passage of blood vessels and nerves.
10. In order to achieve normal bone growth and development, the following factors are essential EXCEPT: A.
High fat diet
B. Growth hormone
C. Sex hormones
D. Vitamins A, C, and D
Answer: A
Rationale: Having a high fat diet has nothing to do with bone growth and development. (B) Growth
hormones stimulates division of cartilage cells in the epiphyseal disks, thereby lack or excess of these
hormones could result to dwarfism or gigantism. (C) Sex hormones promote formation of bone tissue. (D)
Vitamin A is necessary for osteoblast and osteoclast activity during normal development, Vitamin C is
required for collagen synthesis, and Vitamin D is necessary for proper absorption of calcium in the small
intestine. In the absence of this vitamin, calcium is poorly absorbed, and the inorganic salt portion of bone
matrix lacks calcium, which then softens and deforms bones.© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
11. A person who suffered a traumatic injury in the inguinal area is most likely to die due to a hemorrhage
because of a severed:
A. Femoral artery
B. Popliteal artery
C. Carotid artery
D. Brachial artery
Answer: A
Rationale: The inguinal area is around the groin area: near the lower abdomen and thigh. The femoral artery
is a large artery in the thigh and the main blood supply to the lower limb. (B) The popliteal artery is located in
the knee and the back of the leg. The carotid artery (C) is located in the neck. Brachial artery (D) is a major
blood vessel of the upper arm.
12. Which of the following is correct about the epicardium? A. It is the pacemaker of the heart
B. It lines the heart chambers
C. It is the visceral epicardium
D. It is also known as the parietal pericardium
Answer: C
Rationale: The inner part of the pericardium that closely envelops the heart is, as stated, the epicardium; it is
also called the visceral pericardium. The pacemaker of the heart is the sinoatrial node (A). The endocardium
is the innermost layer of tissue that lines the chambers of the heart (B). The parietal pericardium is the outer
layer of the pericardium which is a conical sac of fibrous tissue that surrounds the heart and the roots of the
great blood vessels (D).
13. The nursing student was instructed to palpate the carotid artery. Where is the carotid artery located?
A. Halfway between the shoulder and hand; in the middle of the inner arm
B. Upper neck between the sternomastoid and trachea
C. The inner thigh, at the mid-inguinal point
D. In front of the tragus of the ear and up along the temple
Answer: B© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
Rationale: The correct location of the carotid artery during palpation is at the upper neck between the
sternocleidomastoid and trachea. (A) describes the brachial artery. (C) describes the femoral artery. (D)
describes the temporal artery.
14. What artery supplies blood to the structures of the neck and face?
A. Axillary artery
B. Brachial artery
C. Carotid artery
D. Femoral artery
Answer: C
Rationale: The external carotid artery supplies the areas of the head and neck external to the cranium. (A)
supplies blood to the axilla (armpit) and the upper limb. (B) supplies blood to the elbow joint, the forearm,
and the hand. (D) The femoral artery supplies blood to the lower limb and is located in the thigh region.
15. Which of the following is correct about the cerumen?
A. It provides protection to the ear from bacteria, fungus, insects and water.
B. Impacted cerumen can lead to dizziness and motion sickness.
C. It is produced by the vibrations in the ear drum.
D. It is found in the inner ear drum.
Answer: A
Rationale: Cerumen, or earwax, can provide protection from bacteria, fungus, insects and water. (B)
Impacted cerumen can lead to hearing loss and not dizziness or motion sickness. (C) Cerumen earwax is
produced by glands and not vibrations. (D) Cerumen is made by the body in the outer ear canal, in front of
the eardrum, not inside.
16. Chemoreceptor stimulation is associated with regulation of:
A. Breathing© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
B. Pain control
C. Temperature
D. Blood pressure
Answer: A
Rationale: Breathing is regulated by the concentration of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the blood which is
what chemoreceptors detect. (B) The limbic system regulates pain. (C) The hypothalamus regulates body
temperature. (D) Baroreceptors regulate blood pressure.
17. The three chambers, or scalae, that make up the interior of the cochlea are:
A. Upper Vestibular Canal, Lower Tympanic Canal, and Cochlear Duct
B. Perilymph, Endolymph and Cochlear Duct
C. Upper Vestibular Canal, Lower Tympanic Canal, and Organ of Corti D. Lower Tympanic Canal,
Cochlear Duct and Organ of Corti
Answer: A
Rationale: The two large chambers include the upper vestibular canal and lower tympanic canal, and are
separated by a smaller chamber called the cochlear duct. (B) Perilymph and Endolymph are both fluids and
not chambers/cavities. (C) and (D) are incorrect because the organ of corti is not a chamber but an organ that
transfers sound.
18. The other name for eardrum is:
A. Cochlea
B. Organ of Corti
C. Tympanic membrane
D. Outer ear
Answer: C
Rationale: The eardrum is also called tympanic membrane. (A) is the auditory portion of the inner ear; Organ
of Corti (B) is the sensitive element in the inner ear and can be thought as the body’s microphone. The outer
ear (Choice D) consists of the pinna, or auricle, and the ear canal.
19. Fertilization usually occurs in the:
A. Uterus
B. Fallopian tubes
C. Ovaries
D. Zygote© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
Answer: B
Rationale: The fallopian tubes is the site of human fertilization. (A) The uterus is the location postfertilization
not the actual site of fertilization. (C) Ovaries produce ova or eggs. (D) A zygote is a diploid cell; an already
fertilized ovum.
20. The life span of a normal RBC is approximately:
A. 120 days
B. 13 to 20 days
C. 8 to 9 days
D. 30 days
Answer: B
Rationale: The lifespan of a normal RBC is approximately 120 days. As it ages, the cell becomes rigid and
fragile and finally succumbs to phagocytosis in the spleen or liver and is broken down into globin and heme.
21. The red blood cell, _________, carries oxygen to and from the tissues and contains the pigment
hemoglobin.
A. Leukocyte
B. Monocyte
C. Granulocyte
D. Erythrocyte
Answer: D
Rationale: The erythrocyte transports oxygen to the tissues. (A) leukocytes are white blood cells that protect
against infections. (B) monocytes protect against parasites (C) granulocytes are white blood cells
characterized by granules in their cytoplasm.
22. The ovaries produce and release the following hormone(s):
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. Estrogen and progesterone
C. Melatonin
D. Calcitonin
Answer: B© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
Rationale: The ovaries produces estrogen and progesterone. (A)The pituitary gland produces luteinizing
hormone (LH). (C) The pineal gland produces melatonin. (D) Thyroid gland calcitonin.
23. The hormone that is secreted by the pituitary gland:
A. Cortisol
B. Oxytocin
C. Adrenaline
D. Insulin
Answer: B
Rationale: The hormones released by the posterior pituitary lobe is oxytocin. (A) is produced by the adrenal
cortex (C) is produced by the adrenal medulla and (D) is produced by the pancreas.
24. The mitral valve lies between the:
A. Right atrium and the right ventricle
B. Left atrium and left ventricle
C. Just below the tricuspid valve`
D. Opposite to the pulmonic valve
Answer: B
Rationale: The mitral valve, also known as the bicuspid valve or left atrioventricular valve, is a dual-flap valve
in the heart that lies between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
25. The following are functions of skeletal muscles in the body, except:
A. Structure
B. Movement
C. Heat
D. Posture
Answer: A
Rationale: Skeletal Muscles move body parts or the body as a whole. They’re responsible for both voluntary
and reflex movements. Skeletal muscles also maintain posture and generate body heat.© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
26. Which muscle type is considered voluntary?
A. Smooth
B. Cardiac
C. Epimysium
D. Skeletal
Answer: D
Rationale: Voluntary muscles are muscles that can be moved at will. The musculoskeletal system consists
mostly of skeletal muscle.
27. Which of the following is not true about the occipital lobe?
A. It is responsible for processing visual information
B. It is responsible for hearing and memory
C. Lesions to this area can cause visual hallucinations D. It is located in the rearmost portion of the
skull
Answer: B
Rationale: Temporal lobe is responsible for hearing and memory. The rest of the choices are true about the
occipital lobe.
28. The olfactory nerve contains sensory fibers relating to:
A. Smell
B. Vision
C. Hearing
D. Digestion
Answer: A
Rationale: The olfactory nerve processes our sense of smell. (B) The optic nerve directs vision activity. (C)
The vestibulocochlear nerve directs auditory/hearing function (D) The vagus nerve deals with digestion and
the GI tract.
29. A pea-sized structure located at the base of the brain, just below the hypothalamus is called the:
A. Adrenal gland
B. Pineal gland
C. Pituitary gland
D. Thyroid gland
Answer: C© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
Rationale: The pituitary gland is a pea-sized structure located at the base of the brain, just below the
hypothalamus. (A) is located at the top of each kidney. (B), also known as the "pineal body," is located in the
center of the brain, which is a fluid-filled space in the brain. (D) is located towards the front (ventral) of the
neck.
30. The spinal cord is made up of the following order of vertebrae:
A. Thoracic, Cervical, Lumbar, Sacrum B. Sacral, Lumbar, Cervical, Thoracic
C. Cervical, Lumbar, Thoracic, Sacrum
D. Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacrum
Answer: D
Rationale: The spinal cord starts with the cervical vertebrae, then the thoracic vertebrae, then the (lower
back) lumbar vertebrae, and finally ends with the sacrum.
31. Which is the most important risk factor for ankle sprains?
A. A history of previous ankle sprain
B. The frequency of driving
C. Athlete's foot
D. A short Achilles tendon
Answer: A
Rationale: Once you've sprained your ankle, or had another type of ankle injury, you're more likely to sprain
it again.
32. The tibia is _____ to the phalanges.
A. Dorsal
B. Proximal
C. Distal
D. Ventral
Answer: B
Rationale: The tibia is proximal (closest to the center of the body) in comparison to the phalanges. (A) means
behind. (C) is not correct because the phalanges are distal (farthest away from the center of the body) (D)
means in front of and the tibia bone is not in front of the phalanges.
33. During vigorous activity such as exercise, the body temperature increases. Which of the following actions
takes place in the body to keep it at homeostasis?
A. Blood flow decreases© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
B. Sweating increases
C. Shivering increases
D. Shivering decreases
Answer: B
Rationale: Sweating/perspiration is an attempt of the body to release heat in order cool the body and return
to homeostasis.
34. The part of the brain that is involved in primary auditory perception and holds the primary auditory cortex
is the:
A. Frontal lobe
B. Occipital lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. Parietal lobe.
Answer: C
Rationale: The temporal lobe is involved in primary auditory perception, such as hearing, and holds the
primary auditory cortex. (A) The frontal lobe carries out higher mental processes such as thinking, decision
making, and planning. (B) Occipital lobe is involved in processing visual formation. (D) parietal lobes can be
divided into two functional regions. One involves sensation and perception and the other is concerned with
integrating sensory input.
35. The large vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower and middle body into the right atrium of
the heart is the:
A. Superior vena cava
B. Pulmonary arteries
C. Pulmonary veins
D. Inferior vena cava
Answer: D
Rationale: Inferior vena cava is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower and middle body
into the right atrium of the heart. (A) also carries deoxygenated blood but it is coming from the upper body.
(B) moves the blood outside the heart and is one of the last steps of the flow (C) carries fully fresh
oxygenated blood to the heart.
36. The vessel that carry oxygenated blood back to the heart and left atrium are:
A. Superior vena cava
B. Pulmonary arteries
C. Pulmonary veins© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
D. Capillaries
Answer: C
Rationale: Oxygenated blood returns by way of venules and veins to the pulmonary veins, which carry it back
to the heart’s left atrium. (A) carries deoxygenated blood. (B) takes blood from the right ventricle to the
outside the heart (D) are tiny, think branch-like vessels and transfers blood to tissues.
37. According to the abdominopelvic regions, to the right side of the umbilical area is the:
A. Right iliac region
B. Right lumbar region
C. Right hypochondriac region
D. Epigastric area
Answer: B
Rationale: Right lumbar lies beside the umbilical area. Right iliac region (A) is located at the right side of the
hypogastric region. Right hypochondriac region (C) lies beside the epigastric region. (D) is in the stomach
region, above the abdomen.
38. The following are examples of a negative feedback loop EXCEPT:
A. Childbirth
B. Sweating
C. Body temperature drops
D. Body temperature rises
Answer: A
Rationale: Positive feedback loops enhances or amplifies symptoms, in a way, they become worse in order to
reach equilibrium again. In a negative feedback loop, the body tries to buffer, stop, or resist change in order
to balance it out back to homeostasis (if your body is hot, the negative feedback loop would try to cool your
body and vice versa).
39. The optic cranial nerve:
A. Affects taste
B. Affects sight
C. Affects hearing© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
D. Affects facial expression
Answer: B
Rationale: (A) The facial nerve affects taste. (C) The vestibulocochlear nerve transmits sound and hearing. (D)
The trigeminal and facial nerves perform facial expressions.
40. Which of the two divisions would be found in the dorsal cavity?
A. Thoracic and Cranial
B. Cranial and Spinal
C. Spinal and Abdominal
D. Cranial and Abdominal
Answer: B
Rationale: Dorsal (posterior/behind) body cavities are well protected by bones and consist of the cranial and
spinal cavities. (A) (C) (D) include regions like the abdominal and thoracic areas which are to the front
(ventral) section of the body.
41. Which of the following leukocytes phagocytize microorganisms and foreign substances?
A. Neutrophils
B. Erythrocytes
C. RBC
D. Osteocytes
Answer: A
Rationale: Neutrophils are white blood cells also known as leukocytes that fight infections/foreign harmful
substances) (B) and (C) are red blood cells (RBC) (D) and bone cells.
42. The belly button is _____ to the spinal cord and the
A. Posterior
B. Dorsal
C. Ventral
D. Superior
Answer: C
Rationale: The belly button is in front of (ventral/anterior) to the spinal cord. (A) and (B) mean behind,
towards the back of the body (D) means above or on top of.© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
43. After fertilization, the placenta produces this hormone which is what pregnancy tests detect:
A. HCG
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. Luteinizing hormone
Answer: A
Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin is a hormone produced by the placenta after
fertilization/implantation. (B) Estrogen is responsible for developing and regulating the female reproductive
system. (C) Progesterone causes menstrual periods. (D) Luteinizing hormone relates to ovary/egg function.
44. The anatomical region of the armpit is called:
A. Antecubital
B. Acromial
C. Abdominal
D. Axillary
Answer: D
Rationale: Axillary region is the area of the upper chest surrounding the axilla, or armpit, lateral to the
pectoral region. Antecubital region (A) relates to the region of the arm in front of the elbow. Acromial region
(B) encompasses the shoulder. Abdominal region (C) is defined as any of the subdivisions of the abdominal
region.
45. The anatomical region where the carotid arteries and jugular veins are located:
A. Axillary
B. Cervical
C. Acromial
D. Coxal
Answer: B
Rationale: The cervical region, or neck, contains the cervical vertebrae that connects the skull to critical
structures such as the carotid arteries and jugular veins. (A) relates to armpit (C) is the shoulder region and
(D) is in relation to the trunk and hip area.
46. The nursing student is correct to say that the frenulum is part of the:
A. Eyes and ears
B. Esophagus
C. Trachea
D. Lips and gums© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
Answer: D
Rationale: The frenulum is a small fold or ridge of tissue that supports or checks the motion of the part to
which it is attached, in particular a fold of skin beneath the tongue, or between the lip and the gum.
47. Which of these descriptions of the heart's location is correct? A. The heart lies obliquely in the
mediastinum.
B. Its base is directed anteriorly and slightly superiorly.
C. Two-thirds of the heart's mass lies to the right of the midline of the sternum. D. All of these
Answer: A
Rationale: Enclosed within the mediastinum, the medial cavity of the thorax, the heart extends obliquely
from the second rib to the fifth intercostal space. It rests on the superior surface of the diaphragm, lies
posterior to the sternum and anterior to the vertebral column.
48. What happens if the sinoatrial node fails? A. The heart will stop.
B. The ventricles will contract, but the atria will stop.
C. Another part of the heart, possibly the AV node, will become the pacemaker.
D. The heart will beat faster.
Answer: C
Rationale: If the sinoatrial node fails, in a normal heart, the atrioventricular node should take over the
pacemaker function. But the speed and rate of the atrioventricular node is lower than that of the sinoatrial
node. Hence, the heart rate will be lower.
49. What is the process by which molecules are moving from an area of higher concentration to an area of
lower concentration to become evenly distributed?
A. Active transport process
B. Diffusion
C. Passive transport process
D. Filtration
Answer: B
Rationale: Diffusion is the process by which molecules are moving from an area of higher concentration to an
area of lower concentration to become evenly distributed. In active transport processes (A), the cell provides
the metabolic energy ATP that drives the transport process. Passive transport processes (C) substances are© 2017 All Rights Reserved. www.ReadyForTheHESI.org
transported across the membrane without energy input from the cell. Filtration (D) is the process by which
water and solutes are forced through a membrane or capillary wall by fluid or hydrostatic pressure.
50. A professional athlete is complaining of pain in her coxal area. Where is her coxal bone located?
A. Behind the hip area
B. In front of the thigh area
C. At the point of her shoulder
D. Posterior to the knee area
Answer: A
Rationale: The coccyx, also known as the tailbone, is fused to the sacrum (hip) bone(B) is the femoral/thigh
region. Point of shoulder (C) is the acromial region and does not contain the coccyx bone. Posterior knee area
(D) is called the popliteal region and hosts the knee cap.
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