NBSTSA A/B, Questions with answers, Questions Bank. 100% accurate answers.

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NBSTSA A/B, Questions with answers, Questions Bank. 100% accurate answers. 1. During a laparoscopic appendectomy, the appendix is perforated, in contents begins spilling into the abdomen. Which... of the following should the surgical technologist anticipate as the next step? A. Suction the fluid B. Continue removing the appendix as planned C. Place a Kelly clamp over the perforation D. Close the wound and terminate the procedure - ✔✔-A. suction the fluid from the abdomen Suctioning the fluid from the abdomen as soon as possible will help limit post-op complications such as infection or peritonitis (redness and swelling of the lining of your belly or abdomen.) 2. A carotid endarterectomy has just been finished and the dressing is on. The surgical technologist begins removing all sharps and non-disposable's from the drapes before pushing everything back. According to best practice, which of the following should be the next step? A. Push the back table, Mayo, and basin back and tear it down B. Pull the drapes off and put them on the back table in case they are needed again C. Push the back table, mayo, and basin back and keep sterile until the patient is transported to PACU D. Leave the back table, mail, and basin close to patient in case they are needed again. - ✔✔-C. Push the back table, mayo, and basin back and keep sterile until the patient is transported to PACU the back table must remain sterile until the vascular patient leaves the room 3. Which of the following should be prepared for a mastoid dressing? A. Several squared gauze sponges B. Rolled gauze and an abdominal pad C. Several fluffed sponges and rolled gauze D. Gauze sponges and a Velcro strap - ✔✔-C. Several fluffed sponges and rolled gauze Complex ear procedures require the use of a mastoid dressing, the surgical tech will prepare several fluffed sponges with Kerlix &/or Kling (rolled gauze) 4. Which of the following is a first step in applying the pneumatic tourniquet? A. Wrapping the limb sequentially with an Esmarch bandage from distal to proximal B. Applying the pneumatic tourniquet to the limb and immediately inflating it C. Prepping the the limb with Chloraprep, including the determined location of the tourniquet D. Padding the limb where the tourniquet is wrapped with Webril - ✔✔-D. Padding the limb where the tourniquet is to be wrapped with Webril Webril is wrapped first in order to provide protection to the area in which the tourniquet is placed and inflated 5. When performing a dilation and curettage, which of the following instrument is used to grasp the cervix? A. Sims B. Auvard C. Schroeder D. Bozeman - ✔✔-C. Schroeder Schroeder is a tenaculum w/ a single tooth used to grasp the cervix 6. How many lobes do the right and left lung have, respectively? A. Three, two B. Two, three C. Three, Three D. two, two - ✔✔-A. three, two The right lung has an upper, lower, and middle lobe. the left lung has only an upper and lower lobe b/c of the position of the heart 7. When a break in aseptic technique occurs, the surgical technologist should first notify the A. Circulating nurse B. Contaminating team member C. OR supervisor D. anesthesia provider - ✔✔-B. contamination team member Any break in technique must be corrected and each person is responsible for taking appropriate action to correct the error 8. Which of the following pathological conditions may be caused by an excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain? A. Hydrocephalus B. encephalocele C. Cranial bifida D. craniosynostosis - ✔✔-A. hydrocephalus hydrocephalus is excessive production of a build-up of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain or ventricles 9. If unexpected heavy blood loss occurs during an abdominal procedure, the surgical technologist should request additional A. lap sponges B. raytech sponges C. kitners D. cottonoids - ✔✔-A. Lap sponges Lap sponges are used to provide pressure on bleeding vessels or to absorb excess blood 10. Growth in the length of a long bone occurs at the A. diaphysis B. medullary canal C. Epiphysis plate D. Articular Cartilage - ✔✔-C. Epiphysis plate Epiphyseal plate, or growth plate, is the center for ossification (natural process of bone formation) at each extremity of a longe bone 11. In which of the following situations can a DNR order be continued in an unconscious patient for a surgical procedure? A. the patient durable POA requested to be continued B. patient's family requested to be continued C. Surgeon requested to be continued D. the CRNA request it to be continued - ✔✔-A. patience durable POA (power of attorney) request it to be continued Many hospitals have a policy to resend the DNR during surgery. The patient assigned power of attorney is legally permitted to make medical decisions when incapacitated 12. A surgeon asked for warm irrigation after a right hemicolectomy. Which of the following best describes the reason for irrigation at this point in the procedure? A. clean out the area of any loose tissue B. to maintain the core body temperature C. Do you eliminate any infection-causing microbes D. new aid visual inspection for leakage - ✔✔-D. aid visual inspection for leakage A watertight seal of all anastomoses is essential to prevent peritonitis. Irrigation aids and visually inspecting the seal 13. The rate per hour in air exchanges in the standard OR suite is A. 5-10 B. 15-25 C. 30-35 D. 40-50 - ✔✔-B. 15-25 14. If there is any question related to handling a specific type of specimen, which of the following department should be consulted? A. histology B. laboratory C. Pathology D. Radioology - ✔✔-C. Pathology The pathology department receives all tissue samples and other specimens from surgery 15. A patient's dentures are removed in the operating room. Which of the following is a proper procedure for the care of the dentures? A. Return them to the patient's unit and leave them at the nurses station B. Place them in a labeled cup and keep them with a patient's chart C. Wrap them in a paper towel and give them to the anesthesiologist D. Ask the circulator to return them to the patient's room - ✔✔-B. place them in a labeled cup and keep them with a patient's chart Using this method the dentures will be returned to the correct patient because they will be sent to the PACU 16. A patient is scheduled for laser removal of condyloma acuminata. As a safety precaution, the surgical technologist should have which of the following special equipment open and available? A. smoke evacuator B. suction tip C. Pulse Lavage D. endo-catch bag - ✔✔-A. smoke evacuator Smoke plume contains intact or fragmented bacteria and viruses; disease transmission through smoke plume is a known risk. Smoke evacuator's removes smoke at the rate of 100 to 150 ft./min. at the side of generation 17. Apart from trauma cases, which of the following incisions would be best for sigmoid surgery? A. vertical midline B. vertical paramedian C. oblique subcostal D. lower transverse - ✔✔-B. verticale paramedian Verticle paramedian incisions, similar to median incisions, are used to provide access to any organ in the abdominal cavity; however, in cases of trauma, a median incision would be used. Lower left paramedian incisions are excellent for use in sigmoid surgery 18. Kidneys help regulate the blood levels of several ions, including A. bicarbonate, water, and protein B. protein, sodium, and bicarbonate C. Potassium, protein, and sodium D. sodium, potassium, and calcium - ✔✔-D. sodium, potassium, and calcium Regulated by renal excretion 19. Which of the following is the most effective mechanical method of controlling bleeding occurring from needle holes and vessel anastomoses? A. pledget B. Suction C. Ligature D. Clamp - ✔✔-A. Pledget A pledget is a small square of Teflon sutured over a hole in a vessel; it exerts external pressure over any small needle holes to prevent bleeding and to promote clotting 20. Which of the following tags indicates the least critical of patients in a triage situation? A. yellow B. Black C. Red D. Green - ✔✔-D. Green Green indicates minor injuries 21. During a craniotomy, removal of the bone flap is followed by A. incision of the Dura matter B. opening the Galea aponeurotica C. Application of the Raney clips D. repairing the Dura matter - ✔✔-A. incision of the Dura matter Dura mater is the first protective membranous layer over the brain and lies immeditely beneath the bone (cranium) 22. After gowning and gloving, a surgeon activates the DuraPrep applicator and performs the initial skin prep for surgery. Which of the following is the best action to take at this time? A. assistant surgeon and draping the patient B. regown and re-glove the surgeon C. pass of Bovie and suction D. inform the supervisor - ✔✔-B. re-gown and re-glove the surgeon The surgeon walked up to a non-sterile area and prepped the patient 23. A specimen obtained from frozen section is generally removed from the sterile field intraoperatively because it A. needs to be labeled by the circulator B. is sent to pathology immediately C. Will contaminate the sterile field D. needs to be placed in formalin solution - ✔✔-B. sent to pathology immediately special preparation & examination of the tissue can determine whether it is malignant if nodes are involved, & if margins are clear of malignant cells. Sending a frozen section will give the physician an immediate diagnosis & will be able to treat the patient correctly 24. A surgeon is preparing to close the abdomen. Which of the following closing supplies should be a surgical technologist have ready for closing a fascial layer? A. 0 suture and toothed tissue forceps B. 7-0 Vicryl and tooth tissue forceps C. Retention sutures and tooth tissue forceps D. Staples and Adson with teeth - ✔✔-A. 0 suture and tooth tissue forceps During the closure of the fascia, a 0 or 2-0 suture is most often used on patients who are not obese, and a toothed forceps are also used 25. During a procedure, a hole is noticed in the surgical technologist's glove. What should your surgical technologist do next? A. continue the case B. change the glove using the open gloving technique C. Change the glove using the closed gloving technique D. brake scrub, re-scrub, gown, and glove - ✔✔-B. change the glove using the open gloving technique preferred b/c gown cuffs are considered unsterile 26. Which of the following instruments should be included in a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) setup? A. lithotrite B. urethrotome C. Resectoscope D. Randall Stone - ✔✔-C. Resectoscope Used to cut and coagulate prostate tissue 27. Which of the following terms describes airway assessment by listening with a stethoscope? A. observation B. perfusion C. Auscultation D. palpation - ✔✔-C. Auscultation Listening to the lungs, heart, or add them in through the stethoscope 28. Which of the following techniques promotes safety and protection of surgical technologists during the intraoperative phase? A. securing the electrosurgical pencil to the drapes with a Kelly clamp after every use B. recapping hypodermic needles C. establishing a neutral zone D. using PPE, except an endoscopic procedures - ✔✔-C. Establishing a neutral zone Neutral zones are established to provide hands-free passing of sharps and instruments 29. Which of the following verifies that autoclave sterilization has occurred? A. Chemical indicator B. Julian date C. Heat-sensitive tape D. Biological indicator - ✔✔-D. Biological indicator A biological indicator is a test using living spores resistant to heat. It is the best method to check the effectiveness of sterilization 30. The following instruments is used and otorhinolaryngology surgery? A. Heaney B. Baron C. Doyen D. Poole - ✔✔-B. Baron Baron suction tip is very small and is used for ear procedures 31. An organization that regulates the production of biological sterilization test packs in-house is A. CDC B. ANSI C. AAMI D. SDS - ✔✔-C. AAMI Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation (AAMI) controls regulation of sterile processing 32. For an open hemicolectomy, a surgical technologist is preparing a second mayo stand for the placement of dirty surgical instruments. Which of the following instruments is most likely to be placed on the second mayo stand? A. Penrose drain B. Bakes dilators C. Allis Forcep D. Richardson retractor - ✔✔-C. Allis Forcep The second mayo stand designated for dirty instruments, the Allis forceps would be used at the start of anastomosis by holding onto a tubular structure that has been severed and is ready for anastomosis 33. When loading items in a gravity-displaced steam sterilizer, heavy packs should be placed A. at the periphery of the load. B. on their sides. C. on the top rack. D. centered on the middle rack. - ✔✔-A. at the periphery of the load Heavy packs should be placed at the periphery of the load where steam enters the chamber 34. A liver laceration is identified during an emergency exploratory laparotomy. A surgical technologist should prepare a suture attached to which of the following types of needles? A. tapered B. reverse cutting C. blunt D. conventional cutting - ✔✔-C. Blunt The least traumatic of all suture needles. It has a round shaft and a blunt tip rather than puncturing the tissue, it pushes aside as it slides through it. It is primarily used for soft and spongy tissue such as the liver, kidneys, and spleen. 35. Which of the following instruments is used to thread a vascular graft from one incision to another? A. Hemostat B. Tunneler C. Debakey D. Randall Stone forcep - ✔✔-B. Tunneler A variety of tunnelers exist that are specific for tunneling vascular graphs that don't allow twisting or kinking 36. Which of the following combination of medications are commonly used during a MAC? A. Nerve conduction blockade with supplement analgesics, sedative, or amnesics B. Induction agents, anticholinergics, and antiemetics C. Hemostatics, ringer's solution, analgesics, amnesiacs or sedatives D. Tranquilizers, gastric acid management, or lubricants - ✔✔-A. Nerve conduction blockade with supplement analgesics, sedative, or amnesics 37. Which of the following items must the surgical technologist have available after a thyroidectomy? A. Lap sponges, hemostatic clamps, and elctrocautery B. Endotracheal tube, hemostatic clamps, and scalpel C. knife handle, scalpel blade, and nasogastric tube D. Scalpel, hemostatic clamps, and tracheostomy tube - ✔✔-D. Scalpel, hemostatic clamps, and tracheostomy tube have available in case of patient airway compromise to prepare for an emergency tracheotomy 38. Which of the following is the name of the avascular strip of tissue at the midline which runs from the xiphoid process to the pubis? A. Linea Semilunaris B. Linea Alba C. Arcuate line D. Midaxillary line - ✔✔-B. Linea Alba Stretches from xiphoid process to pubis and is the joining of rectus muscles at the midline 39. A three-way Foley catheter is inserted following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) in order to A. Irrigation and aid in hemostasis B. Prevent the patient from getting out of bed C. Maintain accurate input and output records D. Keep the perineal area dry - ✔✔-A. Irrigation and aid in hemostasis Foley catheter is used for irrigation and drainage of the bladder. The inflated balloon helps with hemostasis 40. A patient is in the supine position for a procedure. After the arms are placed on arm boards, padding is placed under the elbows to decrease pressure on which of the following nerves? A. Brachial B. Ulnar C. Axillary D. Median - ✔✔-B. Ulnar Pressure on the medial aspect of the elbow can increase pressure on the ulnar nerve 41. Which of the following supplies should be pulled by the surgical technologist for a thoracic procedure? A. Water-sealed drainage system B. Passive drainage system C. Jackson-Pratt drainage system D. Andrews-Pynchon suction - ✔✔-A. Water-sealed drainage system The water-sealed drainage is used to pull fluid or air from the thoracic cavity after thoracic surgery or trauma to the thorax 42. The first sign of malignant hyperthermia is A. muscle twitching B. Change in blood pressure C. Unexplained tachycardia D. Hemorrahge - ✔✔-C. Unexplained tachycardia Unexplained tachycardia (heart rhythm over 100 bpm) is a first sign of malignant hyperthermia 43. Prior to the closure of an arteriotomy, which of the following solutions should the surgical technologist have ready for irrigation of the operative site? A. Lactated Ringer's B. Protamine Sulfate C. Sterile Water D. Heparinized Saline - ✔✔-D. Herparinized Saline Heparinized sailing would be used to irrigate the inside of an artery 44. Herniation of the rectum through a weakened posterior vaginal wall is known as A. rectocele B. cystocele C. variocele D. enterocoele - ✔✔-A. rectocele The rectal seal is herniation of the rectum through the posterior vaginal wall 45. If a surgeon request Gelfoam soaked with thrombin, the method to maintain hemostasis is A. Thermal B. mechanical C. chemical D. electrical - ✔✔-C. Chemical Pharmaceutical or biochemical methods of hemostasis uses an array of different chemicals such as gelfoam, thrombin, Epinephrine, silver nitrate, surgicel etc. 46. Immediately before a hemorrhoidectomy, which of the following procedures might be performed on the patient in the OR? A. cystoscopy B. culdoscopy C. proctoscopy D. laparoscopy - ✔✔-C. proctoscopy Proctoscopy is often done before hemorrhoidectomy to look for pathology in the rectum 47. During which of the following phases of infection do pathogens actively replicate, but the host shows no symptoms? A. convalescence B. prodromal pahse C. acute phase D. incubation - ✔✔-D. incubation Pathogens actively replicate during the incubation phase. This may be a short or long period of time, but the host will show no symptoms. This period is affected by the physical status of the host 48. Which of the following conditions should be treated first? A. obstructed airway B. closed cerebral injury C. shock due to hemorrhage D. sucking chest wound - ✔✔-A. obstructed airway First priority is to have in an obstructed airway 49. During a partial nephrectomy, the surgeon asked for a large chromic suture and gel foam. The surgeon would like the gel foam to be cut into pledget squares and loaded onto the suture. The main purpose for the use of gel foam and suture is to A. cauterize the tissue B. cause a fibrin and clot to form C. Seal or close tissue D. topically stop bleeding - ✔✔-D. topically stop bleeding Gelfoam is a hemostatic coagulant agent that promotes the stoppage of bleeding with pressure 50. Which of the following is a tonsillolith? A. a stone within the tonsil B. inflammation within the tonsil C. Removal of the tonsil D. an abscess of the tonsil - ✔✔-A. a stone within the tonsil The suffix -lith translates to stone 51. Which of the following should be the minimum exposure time in an immediate use sterilizer for unwrapped instruments? A. 1 minute B. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 7 minutes - ✔✔-B. 3 minutes Least amount of time needed for proper immediate use sterilization 52. The anesthesia care provider (ACP) is gathering supplies to initiate a Bier block for the surgical patient. Which of the following items does a surgical technologist give to the ACP to assist in displacing the blood? A. pneumatic tourniquet B. stockinette C. Esmarch bandage D. Coban - ✔✔-C. Esmarch bandage Used to displace blood by it being wrapped around the arm distally to proximal 53. Which of the following hormones regulate urine concentration based on reabsorption? A. ADH B. PTH C. ANP D. GFR - ✔✔-A. ADH (anti diuretic hormone) ADH is responsible for the dilution of urine. ADH may be secreted by the posterior pituitary gland and may be released if fluid level shift as little as 1% due to dehydratio [Show More]

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