HESI A2 Health Information Systems Complete Test Preparation Test Bank

HESI A2 Health Information Systems Complete Test Preparation Test BankGetting Started CONGRATULATIONS! By deciding to take the Health Education Systems (HESI A2) Exam, you have taken the first step toward a great fu ...

HESI A2 Health Information Systems Complete Test Preparation Test BankGetting Started CONGRATULATIONS! By deciding to take the Health Education Systems (HESI A2) Exam, you have taken the first step toward a great future! Of course, there is no point in taking this important examination unless you intend to do your very best in order to earn the highest grade you possibly can. That means getting yourself organized and discovering the best approaches, methods and strategies to master the material. Yes, that will require real effort and dedication on your part but if you are willing to focus your energy and devote the study time necessary, before you know it you will be opening that letter of acceptance to the school of your dreams. We know that taking on a new endeavour can be a little scary, and it is easy to feel unsure of where to begin. That’s where we come in. This study guide is designed to help you improve your test-taking skills, show you a few tricks of the trade and increase both your competency and confidence. The Health Education Systems A2 Exam The HESI A2 exam is composed of modules and not all schools use all of the modules. It is therefore very important that you find out what modules your school will use! That way you won’t waste valuable study time learning something that isn’t on your exam! The HESI A2 Modules are: Math, Vocabulary, Reading Comprehension, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, Basic Scientific principals and Anatomy and Physiology. You don`t have to worry because these sections are included in the Practice Test Questions. However, to maximize your study time, it is very important to check which modules your university offers before studying everything under the sun! While we seek to make our guide as comprehensive as possible, it is important to note that like all entrance exams, the HESI A2 Exam might be adjusted at some future point. New material might be added, or content that is no longer relevant or applicable might be removed. It is always a good idea to give the materials you receive when you register to take the HESI a careful review.Practice Test Questions Set 1 Section I – Reading Comprehension Questions: 45 Time: 45 Minutes Section II – Mathematics Questions: 50 Time: 60 Minutes Section III – Part 1 - English Grammar (optional) Questions: 50 Time: 50 Minutes Section III - Part II – Vocabulary Questions: 50 Time: 50 Minutes Section IV – Part I – Science (optional) Questions: 50 Time: 50 minutes Section IV – Part II – Anatomy & Physiology (optional) Questions: 50 Time: 50 minutes The practice test portion presents questions that are representative of the type of question you should expect to find on the HESI. For the best results, take this Practice Test as if it were the real exam. Set aside time when you will not be disturbed, and a location that is quiet and free of distractions. Read the instructions carefully, read each question carefully, and answer to the best of your ability. Use the bubble answer sheets provided. When you have completed the Practice Test, check your answer against the Answer Key and read the explanation provided. NOTE: The Science, Anatomy and Physiology and English sections are optional. Check with your school for exam details. Answer Sheet – Section 1 - Reading ComprehensionAnswer Sheet – Section II - Math Answer Sheet – Section III Part I - English GrammarAnswer Sheet – Section III Part II – Vocabulary Answer Sheet – Section IV Part I – Biology and ChemistryAnswer Sheet – Section IV Part I – Anatomy and Physiology SECTION I - READING COMPREHENSION. Directions: The following questions are based on a number of reading passages. Each passage is followed by a series of questions. Read each passage carefully, and then answer the questions based on it. You may reread the passage as often as you wish. When you have finished answering the questions based on one passage, go right on to the next passage. Choose the best answer based on the information given and implied. Questions 1 – 4 refer to the following passage. Passage 1 - Infectious Disease An infectious disease is a clinically evident illness resulting from the presence of pathogenic agents, such as viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, multi-cellular parasites, and unusual proteins known as prions. Infectious pathologies are also called communicable diseases or transmissible diseases, due to their potential of transmission from one person or species to another by a replicating agent (as opposed to a toxin). Transmission of an infectious disease can occur in many different ways. Physical contact, liquids, food, body fluids, contaminated objects, and airborne inhalation can all transmit infectingagents. Transmissible diseases that occur through contact with an ill person, or objects touched by them, are especially infective, and are sometimes referred to as contagious diseases. Communicable diseases that require a more specialized route of infection, such as through blood or needle transmission, or sexual transmission, are usually not regarded as contagious. The term infectivity describes the ability of an organism to enter, survive and multiply in the host, while the infectiousness of a disease indicates the comparative ease with which the disease is transmitted. An infection however, is not synonymous with an infectious disease, as an infection may not cause important clinical symptoms. 1 1. What can we infer from the first paragraph in this passage? a. Sickness from a toxin can be easily transmitted from one person to another. b. Sickness from an infectious disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another. c. Few sicknesses are transmitted from one person to another. d. Infectious diseases are easily treated. 2. What are two other names for infections’ pathologies? a. Communicable diseases or transmissible diseases b. Communicable diseases or terminal diseases c. Transmissible diseases or preventable diseases d. Communicative diseases or unstable diseases 3. What does infectivity describe? a. The inability of an organism to multiply in the host b. The inability of an organism to reproduce c. The ability of an organism to enter, survive and multiply in the host d. The ability of an organism to reproduce in the host 4. How do we know an infection is not synonymous with an infectious disease? a. Because an infectious disease destroys infections with enough time. b. Because an infection may not cause important clinical symptoms or impair host function. c. We do not. The two are synonymous. d. Because an infection is too fatal to be an infectious disease. Questions 5 – 8 refer to the following passage. Passage 2 - Viruses A virus (from the Latin virus meaning toxin or poison) is a small infectious agent that can replicate only inside the living cells of other organisms. Most viruses are too small to be seen directly with a microscope. Viruses infect all types of organisms, from animals and plants to bacteria and single-celled organisms. Unlike prions and viroids, viruses consist of two or three parts: all viruses have genes madefrom either DNA or RNA, all have a protein coat that protects these genes, and some have an envelope of fat that surrounds them when they are outside a cell. (Viroids do not have a protein coat and prions contain no RNA or DNA.) Viruses vary from simple to very complex structures. Most viruses are about one hundred times smaller than an average bacterium. The origins of viruses in the evolutionary history of life are unclear: some may have evolved from plasmids— pieces of DNA that can move between cells—while others may have evolved from bacteria. Viruses spread in many ways; plant viruses are often transmitted from plant to plant by insects that feed on sap, such as aphids, while animal viruses can be carried by blood-sucking insects. These disease-bearing organisms are known as vectors. Influenza viruses are spread by coughing and sneezing. HIV is one of several viruses transmitted through sexual contact and by exposure to infected blood. Viruses can infect only a limited range of host cells called the “host range”. This can be broad as when a virus is capable of infecting many species or narrow. 2 5. What can we infer from the first paragraph in this selection? a. A virus is the same as bacterium b. A person with excellent vision can see a virus with the naked eye c. A virus cannot be seen with the naked eye d. Not all viruses are dangerous 6. What types of organisms do viruses infect? a. Only plants and humans b. Only animals and humans c. Only disease-prone humans d. All types of organisms 7. How many parts do prions and viroids consist of? a. Two b. Three c. Either less than two or more than three d. Less than two 8. What is one common virus spread by coughing and sneezing? a. AIDS b. Influenza c. Herpes d. Tuberculosis Questions 9 – 11 refer to the following passage. Passage 3 – Clouds The first stage of a thunderstorm is the cumulus stage, or developing stage. In this stage, masses of moisture are lifted upwards into the atmosphere. The trigger for this lift can be insulation heating the ground producing thermals, areas where two winds converge, forcing airupwards, or where winds blow over terrain of increasing elevation. Moisture in the air rapidly cools into liquid drops of water, which appears as cumulus clouds. As the water vapor condenses into liquid, latent heat is released which warms the air, causing it to become less dense than the surrounding dry air. The warm air rises in an updraft through the process of convection (hence the term convective precipitation). This creates a low-pressure zone beneath the forming thunderstorm. In a typical thunderstorm, approximately 5×108 kg of water vapor is lifted, and the amount of energy released when this condenses is about equal to the energy used by a city of 100,000 in a month. 3 9. The cumulus stage of a thunderstorm is the a. The last stage of the storm b. The middle stage of the storm formation c. The beginning of the thunderstorm d. The period after the thunderstorm has ended 10. One of the ways the air is warmed is a. Air moving downwards, which will creates a high-pressure zone b. Air cooling and becoming less dense, causing it to rise c. Moisture moving downward toward the earth d. Heat created by water vapor condensing into liquid 11. Identify the correct sequence of events a. Warm air rises, water droplets condense, creating more heat, and the air rises further. b. Warm air rises and cools, water droplets condense, causing low pressure. c. Warm air rises and collects water vapor, the water vapor condenses as the air rises, which creates heat, and causes the air to rise further. d. None of the above. Questions 12 – 14 refer to the following passage. Passage 4 – US Weather Service The United States National Weather Service classifies thunderstorms as severe when they reach a predetermined level. Usually, this means the storm is strong enough to inflict wind or hail damage. In most of the United States, a storm is considered severe if winds reach over 50 knots (58 mph or 93 km/h), hail is ¾ inch (2 cm) diameter or larger, or if meteorologists report funnel clouds or tornadoes. In the Central Region of the United States National Weather Service, the hail threshold for a severe thunderstorm is 1 inch (2.5 cm) in diameter. Though a funnel cloud or tornado indicates the presence of a severe thunderstorm, the various meteorological agencies would issue a tornado warning rather than a severe thunderstorm warning in this case. Meteorologists in Canada define a severe thunderstorm as either having tornadoes, wind gusts of 90 km/h or greater, hail 2 centimeters in diameter or greater, rainfall more than 50 millimeters in 1 hour, or 75 millimeters in 3 hours.Severe thunderstorms can develop from any type of thunderstorm. 3 12. What is the purpose of this passage? a. Explaining when a thunderstorm turns into a tornado b. Explaining who issues storm warnings, and when these warnings should be issued c. Explaining when meteorologists consider a thunderstorm severe d. None of the above 13. It is possible to infer from this passage that a. Different areas and countries have different criteria for determining a severe storm b. Thunderstorms can include lightning and tornadoes, as well as violent winds and large hail c. If someone spots both a thunderstorm and a tornado, meteorological agencies will immediately issue a severe storm warning d. Canada has a much different alert system for severe storms, with criteria that are far less 14. What would the Central Region of the United States National Weather Service do if hail was 2.7 cm in diameter? a. Not issue a severe thunderstorm warning. b. Issue a tornado warning. c. Issue a severe thunderstorm warning. d. Sleet must also accompany the hail before the Weather Service will issue a storm warning. Questions 15 – 18 refer to the following passage. Passage 5 – Clouds A cloud is a visible mass of droplets or frozen crystals floating in the atmosphere above the surface of the Earth or other planetary bodies. Another type of cloud is a mass of material in space, attracted by gravity, called interstellar clouds and nebulae. The branch of meteorology which studies clouds is called nephrology. When we are speaking of Earth clouds, water vapor is usually the condensing substance, which forms small droplets or ice crystal. These crystals are typically 0.01 mm in diameter. Dense, deep clouds reflect most light, so they appear white, at least from the top. Cloud droplets scatter light very efficiently, so the further into a cloud light travels, the weaker it gets. This accounts for the gray or dark appearance at the base of large clouds. Thin clouds may appear to have acquired the color of their environment or background. 4 1 5. What are clouds made of? a. Water droplets. b. Ice crystals. c. Ice crystals and water droplets. d. Clouds on Earth are made of ice crystals and water droplets. 16. The main idea of this passage isa. Condensation occurs in clouds, having an intense effect on the weather on the surface of the earth. b. Atmospheric gases are responsible for the gray color of clouds just before a severe storm happens. c. A cloud is a visible mass of droplets or frozen crystals floating in the atmosphere above the surface of the Earth or other planetary body. d. Clouds reflect light in varying amounts and degrees, depending on the size and concentration of the water droplets. 17. The branch of meteorology that studies clouds is called a. Convection b. Thermal meteorology c. Nephology d. Nephelometry 18. Why are clouds white on top and grey on the bottom? a. Because water droplets inside the cloud do not reflect light, it appears white, and the further into the cloud the light travels, the less light is reflected making the bottom appear dark. b. Because water droplets outside the cloud reflect light, it appears dark, and the further into the cloud the light travels, the more light is reflected making the bottom appear white. c. Because water droplets inside the cloud reflects light, making it appear white, and the further into the cloud the light travels, the more light is reflected making the bottom appear dark. d. None of the above. Questions 19 - 22 refer to the following recipe. Chocolate Chip Cookies 3/4 cup sugar 3/4 cup packed brown sugar 1 cup butter, softened 2 large eggs, beaten 1 teaspoon vanilla extract 2 1/4 cups all-purpose flour 1 teaspoon baking soda 3/4 teaspoon salt 2 cups semisweet chocolate chips If desired, 1 cup chopped pecans, or chopped walnuts. Preheat oven to 375 degrees. Mix sugar, brown sugar, butter, vanilla and eggs in a large bowl. Stir in flour, baking soda, and salt. The dough will be very stiff. Stir in chocolate chips by hand with a sturdy wooden spoon. Add the pecans, or other nuts, if desired. Stir until the chocolate chips and nuts are evenly dispersed. Drop dough by rounded tablespoonfuls 2 inches apart onto a cookie sheet.Bake 8 to 10 minutes or until light brown. Cookies may look underdone, but they will finish cooking after you take them out of the oven. 19. What is the correct order for adding these ingredients? a. Brown sugar, baking soda, chocolate chips b. Baking soda, brown sugar, chocolate chips c. Chocolate chips, baking soda, brown sugar d. Baking soda, chocolate chips, brown sugar 20. What does sturdy mean? a. Long b. Strong c. Short d. Wide 21. What does disperse mean? a. Scatter b. To form a ball c. To stir d. To beat 22. When can you stop stirring the nuts? a. When the cookies are cooked. b. When the nuts are evenly distributed. c. As soon as the nuts are added. d. After the chocolate chips are added. Questions 23 – 25 refer to the following passage. Passage 7 – Caterpillars Butterfly larvae, or caterpillars, eat enormous quantities of leaves and spend practically all their time in search of food. Although most caterpillars are herbivorous, a few species eat other insects. Some larvae form mutual associations with ants. They communicate with ants using vibrations transmitted through the soil, as well as with chemical signals. The ants provide some degree of protection to the larvae and they in turn gather honeydew secretions. 5 23. What do most larvae spend their time looking for? a. Leaves b. Insects c. Leaves and insects d. Honeydew secretions 24. What benefit do larvae get from association with ants?a. They do not receive any benefit b. Ants give them protection c. Ants give them food d. Ants give them honeydew secretions 25. Do ants or larvae benefit most from association? a. Ants benefit most. b. Larvae benefit most. c. Both benefit the same. d. Neither benefits. Questions 26 – 30 refer to the following passage. Passage 8 – Navy Seals The United States Navy’s Sea, Air and Land Teams, commonly known as Navy SEALs, are the U.S. Navy’s principal special operations force, and a part of the Naval Special Warfare Command (NSWC) as well as the maritime component of the United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM). The unit’s acronym (“SEAL”) comes from their capacity to operate at sea, in the air, and on land – but it is their ability to work underwater that separates SEALs from most other military units in the world. Navy SEALs are trained and have been deployed in a wide variety of missions, including direct action and special reconnaissance operations, unconventional warfare, foreign internal defence, hostage rescue, counter-terrorism and other missions. All SEALs are members of either the United States Navy or the United States Coast Guard. In the early morning of May 2, 2011 local time, a team of 40 CIA-led Navy SEALs completed an operation to kill Osama bin Laden in Abbottabad, Pakistan about 35 miles (56 km) from Islamabad, the country’s capital. The Navy SEALs were part of the Naval Special Warfare Development Group, previously called “Team 6”. President Barack Obama later confirmed the death of bin Laden. The unprecedented media coverage raised the public profile of the SEAL community, particularly the counter-terrorism specialists commonly known as SEAL Team 6. 6 26. Are Navy SEALs part of USSOCOM? a. Yes b. No c. Only for special operations d. No, they are part of the US Navy 27. What separates Navy SEALs from other military units? a. Belonging to NSWC b. Direct action and special reconnaissance operations c. Working underwater d. Working for other military units in the world28. What other military organizations do SEALs belong to? a. The US Navy b. The Coast Guard c. The US Army d. The Navy and the Coast Guard 29. What other organization participated in the Bin Laden raid? a. The CIA b. The US Military c. Counter-terrorism specialists d. None of the above 30. What is the new name for Team 6? a. They were always called Team 6 b. The counter-terrorism specialists c. The Naval Special Warfare Development Group d. None of the above Questions 31 – 34 refer to the following passage. Passage 9 - Gardening Gardening for food extends far into prehistory. Ornamental gardens were known in ancient times, a famous example being the Hanging Gardens of Babylon, while ancient Rome had dozens of gardens. The earliest forms of gardens emerged from the people’s need to grow herbs and vegetables. It was only later that rich individuals created gardens for purely decorative purposes. In ancient Egypt, rich people created ornamental gardens to relax in the shade of the trees. Egyptians believed that gods liked gardens. Commonly, walls surrounded ancient Egyptian gardens with trees planted in rows. The most popular tree species were date palms, sycamores, fig trees, nut trees, and willows. In addition to ornamental gardens, wealthy Egyptians kept vineyards to produce wine. The Assyrians are also known for their beautiful gardens in what we know today as Iraq. Assyrian gardens were very large, with some of them used for hunting and others as leisure gardens. Cypress and palm were the most popular trees in Assyrian gardens. 7 31. Why did wealthy people in Egypt have gardens? a. For food. b. To relax in the shade. c. For ornamentation. d. For hunting. 32. What did the Egyptians believe about gardens? a. They believed gods loved gardens.b. They believed gods hated gardens. c. The didn’t have any beliefs about gods and Gardens. d. They believed gods hated trees. 33. What kinds of trees did the Assyrians like? a. The Assyrians liked date palms, sycamores, fig trees, nut trees, and willows. b. The Assyrians liked Cypresses and palms. c. The Assyrians didn’t like trees. d. The Assyrians liked hedges and vines. 34. Which came first, gardening for vegetables or ornamental gardens? a. Ornamental gardens came before vegetable gardens. b. Vegetable gardens came before ornamental gardens. c. Vegetable and ornamental gardens appeared at the same time. d. The passage does not give enough information. Questions 35 – 38 refer to the following passage. Passage 10 - Gardens Ancient Roman gardens are known for their statues and sculptures, which were never missing from the lives of Romans. Romans designed their gardens with hedges and vines as well as a wide variety of flowers, including acanthus, cornflowers and crocus, cyclamen, hyacinth, iris and ivy, lavender, lilies, myrtle, narcissus, poppy, rosemary and violet. Flower beds were popular in the courtyards of the rich Romans. The Middle Ages was a period of decline in gardening. After the fall of Rome, gardening was only for the purpose of growing medicinal herbs and decorating church altars. Islamic gardens were built after the model of Persian gardens, with enclosed walls and watercourses dividing the garden into four. Commonly, the center of the garden would have a pool or pavilion. Mosaics and glazed tiles used to decorate elaborate fountains are specific to Islamic gardens. 7 35. What is a characteristic feature of Roman gardens? a. Statues and Sculptures. b. Flower beds. c. Medicinal Herbs. d. Courtyard gardens. 36. When did gardening decline? a. Before the Fall of Rome. b. Gardening did not decline. c. Before the Middle Ages. d. After the Fall of Rome. 37. What kind of gardening was done during the Middle Ages?a. Gardening with hedges and vines. b. Gardening with a wide variety of flowers. c. Gardening for herbs and church alters. d. Gardening divided by watercourses. 38. What is a characteristic feature of Islamic Gardens? a. Statues and Sculptures. b. Decorative tiles and fountains. c. Herbs. d. Flower beds. Questions 39 – 42 refer to the following passage. Passage 11 - Coral Reefs Coral reefs are underwater structures made from calcium carbonate secreted by corals. Corals are colonies of tiny animals found in marine waters that contain few nutrients. Most coral reefs are built from a type of coral called stony corals or Scleractinia, which in turn consist of polyps that cluster in groups. The polyps are like tiny sea anemones, which they are closely related. But unlike sea anemones, coral polyps secrete hard carbonate exoskeletons which support and protect their bodies. Reefs grow best in warm, shallow, clear, sunny and agitated waters. They are most commonly found in shallow tropical waters, but deep water and cold water corals also exist on smaller scales in other areas. Often called “rainforests of the sea”, coral reefs form some of the most diverse ecosystems on Earth. They occupy less than one tenth of one percent of the world’s ocean surface, about half the area of France, yet they provide a home for twenty-five percent of all marine species. Paradoxically, coral reefs flourish even though they are surrounded by ocean waters that provide few nutrients. 8 39. Why are coral reefs called rainforests of the sea? a. Because they are so colorful. b. Because they are a diverse ecosystem. c. Because they look like rainforests. d. Because occupy less than one tenth of one percent of the world’s ocean surface. 40. What marine animal are corals closely related to? a. Sea Anemones. b. Polyps. c. Sea Polyps. d. Anemones and Polyps. 41. Where are coral reefs found? a. In freshwater with few nutrients. b. In marine water with a lot of nutrients. c. In marine waters with few nutrients.d. In marine water with no nutrients. 42. Where do corals reefs grow? a. Hot deep water. b. Clear, warm still water. c. Warm agitated water. d. Warm, clear, shallow and agitated water. Questions 43 – 45 refer to the following passage. Coral Reefs II Most coral reefs were formed after the last glacial period 10,000 years ago when melting ice caused the sea level to rise and flood the continental shelves. As communities established themselves on the shelves, the reefs grew upwards, pacing the rising sea levels. Reefs that rose too slowly became drowned reefs, covered by so much water there was insufficient light. Different types of coral reefs grow in the deep sea away from the continental shelves, around oceanic islands and as atolls. The vast majority of these islands are volcanic in origin. The few exceptions have tectonic origins where plate movements have lifted the deep ocean floor on the surface. 8 43. When did most coral reefs form? a. Before the last glacial period. b. After the last glacial period. c. Before the sea level rose. d. When the sea level rose. 44. What can you say about how fast coral reefs grew? a. They grew at the same rate as the rising sea levels. b. They grew faster than the rising sea levels. c. They grew slower than the rising sea levels. d. They grew before the sea levels rose. 45. What happened to the coral reefs that did grow at the proper rate? a. They died due to lack of light. b. They died due to lack of water. c. They didn’t die. d. They adapted to grow faster. Section II – Math 1. What is 1/3 of 3/4? a. 1/4 b. 1/3 c. 2/3 d. 3/42. What fraction of $75 is $1500? a. 1/14 b. 3/5 c. 7/10 d. 1/20 3. 3.14 + 2.73 + 23.7 = a. 28.57 b. 30.57 c. 29.56 d. 29.57 4. A woman spent 15% of her income on an item and ends up with $120. What percentage of her income is left? a. 12% b. 85% c. 75% d. 95% 5. Express 0.27 + 0.33 as a fraction. a. 3/6 b. 4/7 c. 3/5 d. 2/7 6. What is (3.13 + 7.87) X 5? a. 65 b. 50 c. 45 d. 55 7. Reduce 2/4 X 3/4 to lowest terms. a. 6/12 b. 3/8 c. 6/16 d. 3/4 8. 2/3 – 2/5 = a. 4/10 b. 1/15 c. 3/7d. 4/15 9. 2/7 + 2/3 = a. 12/23 b. 5/10 c. 20/21 d. 6/21 10. 2/3 of 60 + 1/5 of 75 = a. 45 b. 55 c. 15 d. 50 11. 8 is what percent of 40? a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25% 12. 9 is what percent of 36? a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25% 13. Three tenths of 90 equals: a. 18 b. 45 c. 27 d. 36 14. .4% of 36 is a. 1.44 b. .144 c. 14.4 d. 144 15. The physician ordered 5 mg Coumadin; 10 mg/tablet is on hand. How many tablets will you give? a. .5 tablets b. 1 tabletc. .75 tablets d. 1.5 tablets 16. The physician ordered 20 mg Tylenol/kg of body weight; on hand is 80 mg/tablet. The child weighs 12 kg. How many tablets will you give? a. 1 tablet b. 3 tablets c. 2 tablets d. 4 tablets 17. The physician ordered 20 mg Tylenol/kg of body weight; on hand is 80 mg/tablet. The child weighs 44 lb. How many tablets will you give? a. 5 tablets b. 5.5 tablets c. 4.5 tablets d. 3 tablets 18. The physician ordered 3,000 units of heparin; 5,000 U/mL is on hand. How many milliliters will you give? a. 0.5 ml b. 0.6 ml c. 0.75 ml d. 0.8 ml 19. The physician orders 60 mg Augmentin; 80 mg/mL is on hand. How many milliliters will you give? a. 1 ml b. 0.5 ml c. 0.75 ml d. 0.95 ml 20. The physician ordered 16 mg Ibuprofen/kg of body weight; on hand is 80 mg/tablet. The child weighs 15 kg. How many tablets will you give? a. 3 tablets b. 2 tablets c. 1 tablet d. 2.5 tablets 21. The physician orders 1000 mg Benbadryl liquid; 1 g/tsp is on hand. How many teaspoons will you give? a. .75 tsp b. 1.5 tspc. 1 tsp d. 1.25 tsp 22. The physician ordered 10 units of regular insulin and 200 U/mL is on hand. How many milliliters will you give? a. .45 ml b. .75 ml c. .25 ml d. .05 ml 23. If y = 4 and x = 3, solve yx3 a. -108 b. 108 c. 27 d. 4 24. Convert 0.007 kilograms to grams a. 7 grams b. 70 grams c. 0.07 grams d. 0.70 grams 25. Convert 16 quarts to gallons a. 1 gallons b. 8 gallons c. 4 gallons d. 4.5 gallons 26. Convert 2 teaspoons to milliliters. a. 4.3 milliliters b. 9 milliliters c. 9.86 milliliters d. 4 milliliters 27. Convert 200 meters to kilometers a. 50 kilometers b. 20 kilometers c. 12 kilometers d. 0.2 kilometers 28. Convert 72 inches to feet a. 12 feetb. 6 feet c. 4 feet d. 17 feet 29. Convert 3 yards to feet a. 18 feet b. 12 feet c. 9 feet d. 27 feet 30. Convert 45 kg. to pounds. a. 10 pounds b. 100 pounds c. 1,000 pounds d. 110 pounds 31. Convert 0.63 grams to mg. a. 630 g. b. 63 mg. c. 630 mg. d. 603 mg. 32. 5x + 3 = 7x -1. Find x a. 1/3 b. ½ c. 1 d. 2 33. 5x+2(x+7) = 14x – 7. Find x a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 34. 12t -10 = 14t + 2. Find t a. -6 b. -4 c. 4 d. 6 35. 5(z+1) = 3(z+2) + 11. Z=? a. 2b. 4 c. 6 d. 12 36. The price of a book went up from $20 to $25. What percent did the price increase? a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. 25% 37. The price of a book decreased from $25 to $20. What percent did the price decrease? a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. 25% 38. After taking several practice tests, Brian improved the results of his GRE test by 30%. Given that the first time he took the test Brian answered 150 questions correctly, how many questions did he answer correctly on the second test? a. 105 b. 120 c. 180 d. 195 39. In local baseball team, 4 players (or 12.5% of the team) have long hair and the rest have short hair. How many short-haired players are there on the team? a. 24 b. 28 c. 32 d. 50 40. In the time required to serve 43 customers, a server breaks 2 glasses and slips 5 times. The next day, the same server breaks 10 glasses. How many customers did she serve? a. 25 b. 43 c. 86 d. 215 41. A square lawn has an area of 62,500 square meters. What will is the cost of building fence around it at a rate of $5.5 per meter?a. $4000 b. $4500 c. $5000 d. $5500 42. Mr. Brown bought 5 cheese burgers, 3 drinks, and 4 fries for his family, and a cookie pack for his dog. If the price of all single items is the same at $1.30 and a 3.5% tax is added, what is the total cost of dinner for Mr. Brown? a. $16 b. $16.9 c. $17 d. $17.5 43. The length of a rectangle is twice of its width and its area is equal to the area of a square with 12 cm. sides. What will be the perimeter of the rectangle to the nearest whole number? a. 36 cm b. 46 cm c. 51 cm d. 56 cm 44. There are 15 yellow and 35 orange balls in a basket. How many more yellow balls must be added to make the yellow balls 65%? a. 35 b. 50 c. 65 d. 70 45. A farmer wants to plant 65,536 trees in such a way that number of rows must be equal to the number of plants in a row. How many trees should he plant in a row? a. 1684 b. 1268 c. 668 d. 256 46. A distributor purchased 550 kilograms of potatoes for $165. He distributed these at a rate of $6.4 per 20 kilograms to 15 shops, $3.4 per 10 kilograms to 12 shops and the remainder at $1.8. If his distribution cost is $10, what will be his profit? a. $10.4 b. $24.60 c. $14.9 d. $23.447. A farmer wants to plant trees around the outside boundaries of his rectangular field of dimensions 650 meters × 780 meters. Each tree requires 5 meters of free space all around it from the stem. How many trees can he plant? a. 572 b. 568 c. 286 d. 282 48. A farmer wants to plant trees at the outside boundaries of his rectangular field of dimensions 650 meters × 780 meters. Each tree requires 5 meter of free space all around it from the stem. How much free area will be left? a. 478,800 m2 b. 492,800 m2 c. 507,625 m2 d. 518,256 m2 49. How much pay does Mr. Johnson receive if he gives half of his pay to his family, $250 to his landlord, and has exactly 3/7 of his pay left over? a. $3600 b. $3500 c. $2800 d. $1750 50. A boy has 4 red, 5 green and 2 yellow balls. He chooses two balls randomly. What is the probability that one is red and other is green? a. 2/11 b. 19/22 c. 20/121 d. 9/11 Section III – Part 1 - English 1. Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. Don would never have thought of that book, but you could have reminded him. b. Don would never of thought of that book, but you could have reminded him. c. Don would never have thought of that book, but you could of have reminded him. d. Don would never of thought of that book, but you could of reminded him. 2. Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. The mother would not of punished her daughter if she could have avoided it. b. The mother would not have punished her daughter if she could of avoided it.c. The mother would not of punished her daughter if she could of avoided it. d. The mother would not have punished her daughter if she could have avoided it. 3. Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. There was scarcely no food in the pantry, because nobody ate at home. b. There was scarcely any food in the pantry, because nobody ate at home. c. There was scarcely any food in the pantry, because not nobody ate at home. d. There was scarcely no food in the pantry, because not nobody ate at home. 4. Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. Although you may not see nobody in the dark, it does not mean that nobody is there. b. Although you may not see anyone in the dark, it does not mean that not nobody is there. c. Although you may not see anyone in the dark, it does not mean that no one is there. d. Although you may not see nobody in the dark, it does not mean that not nobody is there. 5. Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. Michael has lived in that house for forty years, while I has owned this one for only six weeks. b. Michael have lived in that house for forty years, while I have owned this one for only six weeks. c. Michael have lived in that house for forty years, while I has owned this one for only six weeks. d. Michael has lived in that house for forty years, while I have owned this one for only six weeks. 6. Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. The older children have already eat their dinner, but the baby has not yet eaten anything. b. The older children have already eaten their dinner, but the baby has not yet ate anything. c. The older children have already eaten their dinner, but the baby has not yet eaten anything. d. The older children have already eat their dinner, but the baby has not yet ate anything. 7. Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. If they had gone to the party, he would have gone, too. b. If they had went to the party, he would have gone, too. c. If they had gone to the party, he would have went, too. d. If they had went to the party, he would have went, too. 8. Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. He should have went to the appointment; instead, he went to the beach. b. He should have gone to the appointment; instead, he went to the beach. c. He should have went to the appointment; instead, he gone to the beach. d. He should have gone to the appointment; instead, he gone to the beach.9. Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. Lee pronounced it’s name incorrectly; it’s an impatiens, not an impatience. b. Lee pronounced its name incorrectly; its an impatiens, not an impatience. c. Lee pronounced it’s name incorrectly; its an impatiens, not an impatience. d. Lee pronounced its name incorrectly; it’s an impatiens, not an impatience. 10. Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. Its important for you to know its official name; its called the Confederate Museum. b. It’s important for you to know it’s official name; it’s called the Confederate Museum. c. It’s important for you to know its official name; it’s called the Confederate Museum. d. Its important for you to know it’s official name; it’s called the Confederate Museum. 11. The Ford Motor Company was named for Henry Ford, __________. a. which had founded the company. b. who founded the company. c. whose had founded the company. d. whom had founded the company. 12. Thomas Edison __________ since he invented the light bulb, television, motion pictures, and phonograph. a. has always been known as the greatest inventor b. was always been known as the greatest inventor c. must have had been always known as the greatest inventor d. will had been known as the greatest inventor 13. The weatherman on Channel 6 said that this has been the __________. a. most hottest summer on record b. most hottest summer on record c. hottest summer on record d. hotter summer on record 14. Although Joe is tall for his age, his brother Elliot is __________ of the two. a. the tallest b. more tallest c. the tall d. the taller 15. When Kiss came to town, all of the tickets __________ before I could buy one. a. will be sold out b. had been sold out c. were being sold outd. was sold out 16. The rules of most sports __________ more complicated than we often realize. a. are b. is c. was d. has been 17. Neither of the Wright Brothers __________ that they would be successful with their flying machine. a. have any doubts b. has any doubts c. had any doubts d. will have any doubts 18. The Titanic __________ mere days into its maiden voyage. a. has already sunk b. will already sunk c. already sank d. sank 19. __________ won first place in the Western Division? a. Who b. Whom c. Which d. What 20. There are now several ways to listen to music, including radio, CDs, and Mp3 files __________ you can download onto an MP3 player. a. on which b. who c. whom d. which 21. As the tallest monument in the United States, the St. Louis Arch __________. a. has rose to an impressive 630 feet. b. is risen to an impressive 630 feet. c. rises to an impressive 630 feet. d. was rose to an impressive 630 feet. 22. The tired, old woman should __________ on the sofa. a. lieb. lays c. laid d. lain 23. Did the students understand that Thanksgiving always __________ on the fourth Thursday in November? a. fallen b. falling c. has fell d. falls 24. Collecting stamps, __________ and listening to shortwave radio were Rick’s main hobbies. a. building models, b. to build models, c. having built models, d. build models, 25. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. The ceremony had an emotional effect on the groom, but the bride was not affected. b. The ceremony had an emotional affect on the groom, but the bride was not affected. c. The ceremony had an emotional effect on the groom, but the bride was not effected. d. The ceremony had an emotional affect on the groom, but the bride was not affected. 26. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Anna was taller then Luis, but then he grew four inches in three months. b. Anna was taller then Luis, but than he grew four inches in three months. c. Anna was taller than Luis, but than he grew four inches in three months. d. Anna was taller than Luis, but then he grew four inches in three months. 27. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Their second home is in Boca Raton, but there not their for most of the year. b. They’re second home is in Boca Raton, but they’re not there for most of the year. c. Their second home is in Boca Raton, but they’re not there for most of the year. d. There second home is in Boca Raton, but they’re not there for most of the year. 28. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. They’re going to graduate in June; after that, their best option will be to go there. b. There going to graduate in June; after that, their best option will be to go there. c. They’re going to graduate in June; after that, there best option will be to go their. d. Their going to graduate in June; after that, their best option will be to go there 29. Choose the sentence with the correct usage.a. You’re mistaken; that is not you’re book. b. Your mistaken; that is not your book. c. You’re mistaken; that is not your book. d. Your mistaken; that is not you’re book. 30. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. You’re classes are on the west side of campus, but you’re living on the east side. b. Your classes are on the west side of campus, but your living on the east side. c. Your classes are on the west side of campus, but you’re living on the east side. d. You’re classes are on the west side of campus, but you’re living on the east side. 31. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Disease is highly prevalent in poorer nations; the most dominant disease is malaria. b. Disease are highly prevalent in poorer nations; the most dominant disease is malaria. c. Disease is highly prevalent in poorer nations; the most dominant disease are malaria. d. Disease are highly prevalent in poorer nations; the most dominant disease are malaria. 32. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Although I would prefer to have dog, I actually own a cat. b. Although I would prefer to have a dog, I actually own cat. c. Although I would prefer to have a dog, I actually own a cat. d. Although I would prefer to have dog, I actually own cat. 33. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. The principal of the school lived by one principle: always do your best. b. The principle of the school lived by one principle: always do your best. c. The principal of the school lived by one principal: always do your best. d. The principle of the school lived by one principal: always do your best. 34. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Even with an speed limit sign clearly posted, an inattentive driver may drive too fast. b. Even with a speed limit sign clearly posted, a inattentive driver may drive too fast. c. Even with an speed limit sign clearly posted, a inattentive driver may drive too fast. d. Even with a speed limit sign clearly posted, an inattentive driver may drive too fast. 35. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Except for the roses, she did not accept John’s frequent gifts. b. Accept for the roses, she did not except John’s frequent gifts. c. Accept for the roses, she did not accept John’s frequent gifts. d. Except for the roses, she did not except John’s frequent gifts. 36. Choose the sentence with the correct usage.a. Although he continued to advise me, I no longer took his advice. b. Although he continued to advice me, I no longer took his advise. c. Although he continued to advise me, I no longer took his advise. d. Although he continued to advice me, I no longer took his advise. 37. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. In order to adopt to the climate, we had to adopt a different style of clothing. b. In order to adapt to the climate, we had to adapt a different style of clothing. c. In order to adapt to the climate, we had to adopt a different style of clothing. d. In order to adapt to the climate, we had to adapt a different style of clothing. 38. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. When he’s between friends, Robert seems confident, but between you and me, he is really very shy. b. When he’s among friends, Robert seems confident, but among you and me, he is really very shy. c. When he’s between friends, Robert seems confident, but among you and me, he is really very shy. d. When he’s among friends, Robert seems confident, but between you and me, he is really very shy. 39. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. I will be finished at ten in the morning, and will be arriving at home at about 6:30. b. I will be finished at about ten in the morning, and will be arriving at home at 6:30. c. I will be finished at about ten in the morning, and will be arriving at home at about 6:30. d. I will be finished at ten in the morning, and will be arriving at home at 6:30. 40. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Beside the red curtains and pillows, there was a red rug beside the couch. b. Besides the red curtains and pillows, there was a red rug beside the couch. c. Besides the red curtains and pillows, there was a red rug besides the couch. d. Beside the red curtains and pillows, there was a red rug besides the couch. 41. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Although John can swim very well, the lifeguard may not allow him to swim in the pool. b. Although John may swim very well, the lifeguard may not allow him to swim in the pool. c. Although John can swim very well, the lifeguard cannot allow him to swim in the pool. d. Although John may swim very well, the lifeguard may not allow him to swim in the pool. 42. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Her continuous absences caused a continual disruption at the office. b. Her continual absences caused a continuous disruption at the office.c. Her continual absences caused a continual disruption at the office. d. Her continuous absences caused a continuous disruption at the office. 43. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. During the famine, the Irish people had to emigrate to other countries; many of them immigrated to the United States. b. During the famine, the Irish people had to immigrate to other countries; many of them immigrated to the United States. c. During the famine, the Irish people had to emigrate to other countries; many of them emigrated to the United States. d. During the famine, the Irish people had to immigrate to other countries; many of them emigrated to the United States. 44. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. His home was farther than we expected; farther, the roads were very bad. b. His home was farther than we expected; further, the roads were very bad. c. His home was further than we expected; further, the roads were very bad. d. His home was further than we expected; farther, the roads were very bad. 45. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. The volunteers brought groceries and toys to the homeless shelter; the latter were given to the staff, while the former were given directly to the children. b. The volunteers brought groceries and toys to the homeless shelter; the former was given to the staff, while the latter was given directly to the children. c. The volunteers brought groceries and toys to the homeless shelter; the groceries were given to the staff, while the former was given directly to the children. d. The volunteers brought groceries and toys to the homeless shelter; the latter was given to the staff, while the groceries were given directly to the children. 46. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Vegetables are a healthy food; eating them can make you more healthful. b. Vegetables are a healthful food; eating them can make you more healthful. c. Vegetables are a healthy food; eating them can make you more healthy. d. Vegetables are a healthful food; eating them can make you more healthy. 47. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. After you lay the books on the counter, you may lay down for a nap. b. After you lie the books on the counter, you may lay down for a nap. c. After you lay the books on the counter, you may lie down for a nap. d. After you lay the books on the counter, you may lay down for a nap. 48. Choose the sentence with the correct usage.a. After you lay the books on the counter, you may lay down for a nap. b. After you lie the books on the counter, you may lay down for a nap. c. After you lay the books on the counter, you may lie down for a nap. d. After you lay the books on the counter, you may lay down for a nap. 49. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Once the chickens had layed their eggs, they lay on their nests to hatch them. b. Once the chickens had lay their eggs, they lay on their nests to hatch them. c. Once the chickens had laid their eggs, they lay on their nests to hatch them. d. Once the chickens had laid their eggs, they laid on their nests to hatch them. 50. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Mrs. Foster taught me many things, but I learned the most from Mr. Wallace. b. Mrs. Foster learned me many things, but I was taught the most by Mr. Wallace. c. Mrs. Foster learned me many things, but I learned the most from Mr. Wallace. d. Mrs. Foster taught me many things, but I was learned the most from Mr. Wallace. Section III – Part II – Vocabulary Choose the word that matches the given definition. 1. VERB To build up or strengthen in relation to morals or religion. a. Sanctify b. Amplify c. Edify d. Wry 2. NOUN Exit or way out. 1. Door-jamb 2. Egress 3. Regress 4. Furtherance 3. ADJECTIVE Private, personal. 1. Confidential 2. Hysteric 3. Simplistic 4. Promissory 4. NOUN Serious criminal offence that is punishable by death or imprisonment above a year.1. Trespass 2. Hampers 3. Felony 4. Obligatory 5. VERB To encourage or incite troublesome acts. 1. Comment 2. Foment 3. Integument 4. Atonement 6. ADJECTIVE Dignified, solemn that is appropriate for a funeral. 1. Funereal 2. Prediction 3. Wailing 4. Vociferous 7. NOUN Warmth and kindness of disposition. 1. Seethe 2. Geniality 3. Desists 4. Predicate 8. ADJECTIVE Polite and well mannered. 1. Chivalrous 2. Hilarious 3. Genteel 4. Governance 9. VERB To encourage, stimulate or incite and provoke. 1. Push 2. Force 3. Threaten 4. Goad 10. ADJECTIVE Shocking, terrible or wicked. 1. Pleasantries2. Heinous 3. Shrewd 4. Provencal 11. NOUN A person of thing that tells or announces the coming of someone or something. 1. Harbinger 2. Evasion 3. Apostate 4. Coquette 12. ADJECTIVE Similar or identical. 1. Soluble 2. Assembly 3. Conclave 4. Homologous 13. ADJECTIVE Common, not honorable or noble. 1. Princely 2. Ignoble 3. Shameful 4. Sham 14. ADJECTIVE Irrelevant not having substance or matter. 1. Immaterial 2. Prohibition 3. Prediction 4. Brokerage 15. ADJECTIVE Perfect, no faults or errors. a. Impeccable b. Formidable c. Genteel d. Disputation 16. VERB Place side by side for contrast or comparison. 1. Peccadillo2. Fallible 3. Congeal 4. Juxtapose 17. NOUN Ruling council of a military government. 1. Sophist 2. Counsel 3. Virago 4. Junta 18. NOUN Someone who takes more time than necessary. 1. Demagogue 2. Haggard 3. Laggard 4. Investiture 19. ADJECTIVE Lacking enthusiasm, strength or energy. 1. Hapless 2. Languid 3. Ubiquitous 4. Promiscuous 20. NOUN A person of influence, rank or distinction. 1. Consummate 2. Sinister 3. Accolade 4. Magnate 21. NOUN A lingering disease or ailment of the human body. 1. Treatment 2. Frontal 3. Malady 4. Assiduous 22. ADJECTIVE Quick and light in movement. 1. Quickest 2. Nimble3. Rapacious 4. Perspicuities 23. ADJECTIVE A loud unpleasant noise. 1. Nosy 2. Racket 3. Ravage 4. Noisome 24. ADJECTIVE Relating to a wedding or marriage. 1. Nefarious 2. Fluctuate 3. Nuptial 4. Flatulence 25. ADJECTIVE Open display or apparent. 1. Ostensible 2. Complacent 3. Revealing 4. Harrowing 26. NOUN A sheet of paper that can be folded into 8 leaves. 1. Octagon 2. Harangue 3. Octavo 4. Wreckage 27. ADJECTIVE Appearing weak or pale. 1. Pallid 2. Palliative 3. Deviant 4. Expatiate 28. NOUN A picture or series of pictures representing a continuous scene. 1. Accolade 2. Obdurate 3. Panorama4. Personification 29. NOUN A self contradictory statement that can only be true if its false and vice versa. 1. Inbred 2. Paradox 3. Attribute 4. Fealty 30. ADJECTIVE Often complaining. 1. Querulous 2. Complaint 3. Compound 4. Vestige 31. Choose the best definition of mollify. 1. To anger 2. To modify 3. To irritate 4. To soothe 32. Choose the best definition of redundant. 1. Backup 2. Necessary repetition 3. Unnecessary repetition 4. No repetition 33. Choose the best definition of bicker. 1. Chat 2. Discuss 3. Argue 4. Debate 34. Choose the best definition of sombre. 1. Gothic 2. Black 3. Serious 4. Evil35. Choose the best definition of maverick. 1. Rebel 2. Conformist 3. Unconventional 4. Conventional 36. Choose the best definition of tenuous. 1. Strong 2. Tense 3. Firm 4. Weak 37. Choose the best definition of pandemonium. 1. Chaos 2. Orderly 3. Quiet 4. Noisy 38. Choose the best definition of perpetual. 1. Continuous 2. Slowly 3. Over a very long time 4. Motion 39. Choose the best definition of denigrate. 1. Compliment 2. Belittle 3. Praise 4. Admire 40. Choose the best definition of mundane. 1. Exciting 2. Continuous 3. Unforgiving 4. Ordinary 41. Choose the best definition of importune.1. To find an opportunity 2. To ask all the time. 3. Cannot find an opportunity 4. None of the above 42. Choose the best definition of volatile. 1. Not explosive 2. Catches fire easily 3. Does not catch fire 4. Explosive 43. Choose the best definition of plaintive. 1. Happy 2. Mournful 3. Faint 4. Plain 44. Choose the best definition of nexus. 1. A connection 2. A telephone switch 3. Part of a computer 4. None of the above 45. Choose the best definition of conjoin. 1. A connection 2. To marry 3. Weld together 4. To join together 46. Choose the best definition of petrify. 1. Turn into a fossil 2. Turn to stone 3. Turn into wood 4. Turn into glass 47. Choose the best definition of inherent. 1. To receive money in a will2. An essential part of 3. To receive money from a will 4. None of the above 48. Choose the best definition of torpid. 1. Fast 2. Rapid 3. Sluggish 4. Violent 49. Choose the best definition of gregarious. 1. Sociable 2. Introverted 3. Large 4. Solitary 50. Choose the best definition of alloy. 1. To mix with something superior 2. To mix 3. To mix with something inferior 4. To purify Section III – Science 1. Electricity is a general term encompassing a variety of phenomena resulting from the presence and flow of electric charge. Which of the following statements about electricity is/are true? a. Electrically charged matter is influenced by, and produces, electromagnetic fields. b. Electric current is a movement or flow of electrically charged particles. c. Electric potential is a fundamental interaction between the magnetic field and the presence and motion of an electric charge. d. An influence produced by an electric charge on other charges in its vicinity is an electric field. 2. Which of the following is/are not included in Ohm’s Law? a. Ohm’s Law defines the relationships between (P) power, (E) voltage, (I) current, and (R) resistance. b. One ohm is the resistance value through which one volt will maintain a current of one ampere. c. Using Ohm’s Law, voltage is determined using V = IR, with I equaling current and R equaling resistance.d. An ohm (Ω) is a unit of electrical voltage. 3. The property of a conductor that restricts its internal flow of electrons is: a. Friction b. Power c. Current d. Resistance 4. In physics, ____________ is the force that opposes the relative motion of two bodies in contact. a. Resistance b. Abrasiveness c. Friction d. Antagonism 5. What is the difference, of any, between kinetic energy and potential energy? a. Kinetic energy is the energy of a body that results from heat while potential energy is the energy possessed by an object that is chilled b. Kinetic energy is the energy of a body that results from motion while potential energy is the energy possessed by an object by virtue of its position or state, e.g., as in a compressed spring. c. There is no difference between kinetic and potential energy; all energy is the same. d. Potential energy is the energy of a body that results from motion while kinetic energy is the energy possessed by an object by virtue of its position or state, e.g., as in a compressed spring. 6. What are considered the four fundamental forces of nature? a. Gravity, electromagnetic force, weak nuclear force, and strong nuclear force b. Gravity, electromagnetic force, negative nuclear force, and positive nuclear force c. Polarity, electromagnetic force, weak nuclear force, and strong nuclear force d. Gravity, chemical magnetic force, weak nuclear force, and strong nuclear force 7. Starting with the weakest, arrange the fundamental forces of nature in order of strength. a. Gravity, Weak Nuclear Force, Electromagnetic Force, Strong Nuclear Force b. Weak Nuclear Force, Gravity, Electromagnetic Force, Strong Nuclear Force c. Strong Nuclear Force, Weak Nuclear Force, Electromagnetic Force, Gravity d. Gravity, Strong Nuclear Force, Weak Nuclear Force, Electromagnetic Force 8. What is the difference between Strong Nuclear Force and Weak Nuclear Force? a. The Strong Nuclear Force is an attractive force that binds protons and neutrons and maintains the structure of the nucleus, and the Weak Nuclear Force is responsible for theradioactive beta decay and other subatomic reactions. b. The Strong Nuclear Force is responsible for the radioactive beta decay and other subatomic reactions, and the Weak Nuclear Force is an attractive force that binds protons and neutrons and maintains the structure of the nucleus. c. The Weak Nuclear Force is feeble and the Strong Nuclear Force is robust. d. The Strong Nuclear Force is a negative force that releases protons and neutrons and threatens the structure of the nucleus, and the Weak Nuclear Force is an attractive force that binds protons and neutrons and maintains the structure of the nucleus. 9. The Law of Conservation of Mass states that: a. No detectable gain but, depending on the substances used, some loss can occur in chemical reactions. b. No detectable gain or loss occurs in chemical reactions. c. No detectable loss but some gain occurs in chemical reactions. d. Depending on the substances used, substantial gain or loss can occur in chemical reactions. 10. What is the difference, if any, between convection and heat radiation? a. Thermal radiation is the transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement of fluids; convection is electromagnetic radiation emitted from all matter due to its possessing thermal energy. b. Convection is the transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement of fluids; thermal radiation is nuclear energy emitted from all matter due to its possessing thermal energy. c. Convection is the transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement of fluids; thermal radiation is electromagnetic radiation emitted from all matter due to its possessing thermal energy. d. Convection is the transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement of fluids; thermal radiation is the barely detectable light emitted from all matter due to its possessing thermal energy. 11. In ________ cells, the cell cycle is the cycle of events involving cell division, including ______, ________, and _________. a. Prokaryotic, meiosis, cytokinesis, and interphase b. Eukaryotic, meiosis, cytokinesis, and interphase c. Eukaryotic, mitosis, kinematisis, and interphase d. Eukaryotic, mitosis, cytokinesis, and interphase 12. Which, if any, of the following statements about prokaryotic cells is false? a. Prokaryotic cells include such organisms as E. coli and Streptococcus. b. Prokaryotic cells lack internal membranes and organelles. c. Prokaryotic cells break down food using cellular respiration and fermentation. d. All of these statements are true.13. __________ is a nucleic acid that carries the genetic information in the cell and is capable of self-replication. a. RNA b. Triglyceride c. DNA d. DAR 14. The complementary bases found in DNA are ______ and _______ or _______ and ________. a. Adenine and thymine or cytosine and guanine b. Cytosine and thymine or adenine and guanine c. Adenine and cytosine or thymine and guanine d. None of the above 15. A/an ________ is the basic structural unit of nucleic acids (DNA or RNA); their sequence determines individual hereditary characteristics. a. Gene b. Nucleotide c. Phosphate d. Nitrogen base 16. _________________ is a ______________ that plays an important role in the creation of new _________. a. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a chain of nucleotides that plays an important role in the creation of new proteins. b. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a chain of nucleotides that plays an important role in the creation of new proteins. c. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a cluster of enzymes that plays an important role in the creation of new proteins. d. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a chain of nucleotides that plays an important role in the creation of new genes. 17. Which, if any, of the following statements are false? a. A mutation is a permanent change in the DNA sequence of a gene. b. Mutations in a gene’s DNA sequence can alter the amino acid sequence of the protein encoded by the gene. c. Mutations in DNA sequences usually occur spontaneously. d. Mutations in DNA sequences are caused by exposure to environmental agents such as sunshine. 18. _______ reactions occur in every cell and use _______ to convert glucose to energy; _______organisms such as many bacteria can release energy without the use of ________.a. Aerobic reactions occur in every cell and use oxygen to convert glucose to energy; anaerobic organisms such as many bacteria can release energy without the use of oxygen. b. Anaerobic reactions occur in every cell and use oxygen to convert glucose to energy; aerobic organisms such as many bacteria can release energy without the use of oxygen. c. Aerobic reactions occur in every cell and use exercise to convert glucose to energy; anaerobic organisms such as many bacteria can release energy without the use of exercise. d. Analogic reactions occur in every cell and use oxygen to convert glucose to energy; anaerobic organisms such as many bacteria can release energy without the use of oxygen. 19. _________ are a collection of similar cells that group together to perform a specialized function. a. Ephithelia b. Organs c. Systems d. Tissues 20. ________ tissue serves as membranes lining organs and helping to keep the body’s organs separate, in place and protected; an example is the outer layer of the skin. a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Nerve d. Protein 21. Tissue that adds support and structure to the body and frequently contains fibrous strands of collagen is _________ tissue. a. Epithelial b. Muscle c. Nerve d. Connective 22. _________ tissue is a specialized tissue that can contract and contains the specialized proteins actin and myosin that slide past one another and allow movement. a. Epithelial b. Muscle c. Nerve d. Connective 23. ___________ tissue contains two types of cells: neurons and glial cells and has the ability to generate and conduct electrical signals in the body. a. Nerve b. Connective c. Epitheliald. Muscle 24. A/an _________ is a group of tissues that perform a specific function or group of functions. a. System b. Tissue c. Group d. Organ 25. Among animals, examples of ________ are the heart, lungs, brain, eye, stomach, and bones; plant ______ include the roots, stems, leaves, flowers, seeds and fruits. a. Systems b. Organs c. Tissues d. Phylum 26. Our bodies have _____ different _______, including _________, _________, and __________. a. Our bodies have 5 different systems, including circulatory, digestive, and lymphatic. b. Our bodies have 11 different systems, including circulatory, digestive, and heart. c. Our bodies have 11 different systems, including circulatory, digestive, and lymphatic. d. Our bodies have 12 different systems, including circulatory, bowel, and lymphatic. 27. The ________ system absorbs excess fluid, preventing tissues from swelling, defends the body against microorganisms and harmful foreign particles, and facilitates the absorption of fat. a. Vascular b. Digestive c. Circulatory d. Lymphatic 28. The _______ system consists of ______, _____, and _______ that transport _______ to and from all tissues a. The vascular system consists of arteries, veins, and capillaries that transport oxygen to and from all tissues. b. The lymphatic system consists of arteries, veins, and capillaries that transport oxygen to and from all tissues. c. The vascular system consists of arteries, stratums, and capillaries that transport oxygen to and from all tissues. d. The vascular system consists of arteries, veins, and ducts that transport oxygen to and from all tissues. 29. What are the differences, if any, between arteries, veins, and capillaries?a. Veins carry oxygenated blood away from the heart, arteries return oxygen-depleted blood to the heart, and capillaries are thin-walled blood vessels in which gas/ nutrient/ waste exchange occurs. b. Capillaries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart, veins return oxygen-depleted blood to the heart, and capillaries are thin-walled blood vessels in which gas/ nutrient/ waste exchange occurs. c. There are no differences; all perform the same function in different parts of the body. d. Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart, veins return oxygen-depleted blood to the heart, and capillaries are thin-walled blood vessels in which gas/ nutrient/ waste exchange occurs. 30. The ___________ is the primary organ of the digestive tract, and may be subdivided into three segments, the ________, the ________, and the _______. a. The stomach is the primary organ of the digestive tract, and may be subdivided into three segments, the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. b. The small intestine is the primary organ of the digestive tract, and may be subdivided into three segments, the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. c. The large intestine is the primary organ of the digestive tract, and may be subdivided into three segments, the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. d. The small intestine is the primary organ of the digestive tract, and may be subdivided into three segments, the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ilex. 31. The _______system defends our bodies against infections and disease through three types of response systems: the ________ response, the _________ response, and the _______ response. a. The vascular system defends our bodies against infections and disease through three types of response systems: the anatomic response, the inflammatory response, and the immune response. b. The immune system defends our bodies against infections and disease through three types of response systems: the anatomic response, the inflammatory response, and the immune response. c. The immune system defends our bodies against infections and disease through three types of response systems: the automatic response, the flammatory response, and the immune response. d. The epithelial system defends our bodies against infections and disease through three types of response systems: the anatomic response, the inflammatory response, and the immune response. 32. The musculoskeletal system is composed of all of the bones, cartilage, muscles, joints, tendons and ligaments in a person’s body. a. Musculoskeletal b. Muscular c. Skeletald. Connective 33. The _______________ is a muscular tube lined by a special layer of cells, called ________; its primary purpose is to break food down into _______, which can be absorbed into the body to provide energy. a. The epithelium tract is a muscular tube lined by a special layer of cells, called gastric; its primary purpose is to break food down into nutrients, which can be absorbed into the body to provide energy. b. The gastrointestinal tract is a muscular tube lined by a special layer of cells, called ileum; its primary purpose is to break food down into oxygen, which can be absorbed into the body to provide energy. c. The gastrointestinal tract is a muscular tube lined by a special layer of cells, called epithelium; its primary purpose is to break food down into nutrients, which can be absorbed into the body to provide energy. d. The esophageal tract is a muscular tube lined by a special layer of cells, called epithelium; its primary purpose is to break food down into nutrients, which can be absorbed into the body to provide energy. 34. The _________________ states that, in a chemical change, ________ can be neither _____ nor ________, but only changed from _______________. a. The Law of the Preservation of Matter states that, in a chemical change, energy can be neither created nor destroyed, but only changed from one form to another. b. The Law of the Conservation of Energy states that, in a chemical change, energy can be neither created nor destroyed, but only changed from one atomic number to another. c. The Law of the Conservation of Energy states that, in a chemical change, energy can be neither created nor destroyed, but only changed from one form to another. d. The Law of the Conservation of Energy states that, in a chemical change, energy can be neither duplicated nor destroyed, but only changed from one form to another. 35. A _________ is a process that transforms one set of chemical substances to another; the substances used are known as ________ and those formed are _________. a. A chemical change is a process that transforms one set of chemical substances to another; the substances used are known as products and those formed are reactants. b. A biological change is a process that transforms one set of chemical substances to another; the substances used are known as reactants and those formed are products. c. A chemical change is a process that transforms one set of chemical substances to another; the substances used are known as reactants and those formed are products. d. A chemical variation is a process that transforms one set of chemical substances to another; the substances used are known as reactants and those formed are products. 36. ________ is the series of chemical reactions resulting in the ______ of organic compounds, and _________ is the series of chemical reactions that _________ larger molecules. a. Anabolism is the series of chemical reactions resulting in the synthesis of inorganiccompounds, and catabolism is a series of chemical reactions that break down larger molecules. b. Anabolism is the series of chemical reactions resulting in the synthesis of organic compounds, and catabolism is a series of chemical reactions that combine larger molecules. c. Catabolism is the series of chemical reactions resulting in the synthesis of organic compounds, and anabolism is a series of chemical reactions that break down larger molecules. d. Anabolism is the series of chemical reactions resulting in the synthesis of organic compounds, and catabolism is a series of chemical reactions that break down larger molecules. 37. A(n) _______ is a chemical involved in, but not changed by, a chemical reaction by which chemical bonds are ________ and reactions ____________. a. A propellant is a chemical involved in, but not changed by, a chemical reaction by which chemical bonds are weakened and reactions accelerated. b. A reagent is a chemical involved in, but not changed by, a chemical reaction by which chemical bonds are strengthened and reactions accelerated. c. A catalyst is a chemical involved in, but not changed by, a chemical reaction by which chemical bonds are weakened and reactions slowed. d. A catalyst is a chemical involved in, but not changed by, a chemical reaction by which chemical bonds are weakened and reactions accelerated. 38. _________ is the most abundant element in the Earth’s crust and appears on the Atomic Table as the letter ____. a. Nitrogen, N b. Oxygen, O c. Silicon, Si d. Sodium, Na 39. ___________________ states that when two elements combine with each other to form more than one compound, the weights of one element that combine with a fixed weight of the other are in a ratio of small whole numbers. a. The Law of Multiple Proportions b. The Law of Definite Proportions c. The Law of the Conservation of Energy d. The Law of Averages 40. ___________________ stats that every chemical compound contains fixed and constant proportions (by weight) of its constituent elements. a. The Law of Multiple Proportions b. The Law of the Preservation of Matter c. The Law of the Conservation of Energy d. The Law of Definite Proportions 41. ___________ states that, in a given _____, __________ can have the ___________. a. The Law of Definite Proportions states that, in a given atom, no two electrons can have thesame set of four quantum numbers. b. The Pauli Exclusion Principle states that, in a given atom, no four electrons can have the same set of two quantum numbers. c. The Pauli Exclusion Principle states that, in a given molecule, no two electrons can have a different set of four quantum numbers. d. The Pauli Exclusion Principle states that, in a given atom, no two electrons can have the same set of four quantum numbers. 42. According to the tenets of Dalton’s atomic theory, which of the following is true: a. All matter is made up of tiny, interconnected particles called atoms. b. All atoms of an element are alike in weight, and this weight is specific to the kind of atom. c. Atoms can be subdivided, created, or destroyed. d. In chemical reactions, atoms are not combined, separated, or rearranged. 43. Atoms of _________ __________ combine in ________ ________ ratios to form chemical ________. a. Atoms of different elements combine in simple whole-number ratios to form chemical compounds. b. Atoms of different components combine in simple fractional ratios to form chemical compounds. c. Atoms of the same element combine in simple whole-number ratios to form chemical compounds. d. Atoms of different elements combine in simple whole-number ratios to form chemical mixtures. 44. Which of the following statements about the periodic table of the elements are true? a. On the periodic table, the elements are arranged according to their atomic mass. b. The way in which the elements are arranged allows for predictions about their behavior. c. The vertical columns of the table are called rows. d. The horizontal rows of the table are called groups. 45. ___________ ________ is the minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom or ion in the gas phase. a. Ionization energy b. Valence energy c. Atomic energy d. Ionic energy 46. A(an) ________ _________ is one half the distance between nuclei of atoms of the same element, when the atoms are bound by a single covalent bond or are in a metallic crystal. a. Ionic radiusb. Metallic radius c. Covalent radius d. Atomic radius 47. What are the differences, if any, between anions and cations? a. An anion is a negatively charged ion, and a cation is a positively charged ion. b. Anions are typically formed by nonmetals, and metals usually form cations. c. A & B d. None of the Above. 48. The radius of atoms obtained from ________ bond lengths is called the _______ radius; the radius from interatomic distances in metallic crystals is called the _______ radius. a. The radius of atoms obtained from valent bond lengths is called the valent radius; the radius from interatomic distances in metallic crystals is called the metallic radius. b. The radius of atoms obtained from covalent bond lengths is called the covalent radius; the radius from interatomic distances in nonmetallic crystals is called the nonmetallic radius. c. The radius of atoms obtained from covalent bond lengths is called the covalent radius; the radius from interatomic distances in metallic crystals is called the metallic radius. d. The radius of atoms obtained from covalent bond lengths is called the covalent radius; the radius from interatomic distances in ionic crystals is called the ionic radius. 49. A(an) ________ _______ is a regular variation in element properties with ________ atomic number that is ultimately due to ________ variations in atomic structure. a. A episodic trend is a regular variation in element properties with increasing atomic number that is ultimately due to regular variations in atomic structure. b. A periodic trend is a regular variation in element properties with decreasing atomic number that is ultimately due to regular variations in atomic structure. c. A periodic trend is a regular variation in element properties with increasing atomic number that is ultimately due to irregular variations in atomic structure. d. A periodic trend is a regular variation in element properties with increasing atomic number that is ultimately due to regular variations in atomic structure. 50. Which of the following statements about nonmetals are false? a. A nonmetal is a substance that conducts heat and electricity poorly. b. The majority of the known chemical elements are nonmetals. c. A nonmetal is brittle or waxy or gaseous. d. All of the above are true. Anatomy and Physiology 1. Fluid balance might be negatively impacted when the_____ fail. a. Kidneysb. Ears c. Nose d. Legs 2. Fluid balance is important, because ________ comprises about 60-70% of a person’s weight. a. Calcium b. Water c. Iron d. Bone 3. As a person moves from adolescence to later adulthood, his metabolism a. Begins to get higher b. Begins to get lower. c. Stabilizes d. Fluctuates wildly 4. “Met” refers to a. Mitosis b. The person’s heart rate c. The person’s blood pressure d. The person’s metabolic rate. 5. Fluid balance is important, because the human body loses water every day through urination, perspiration, feces, and a. Breathing b. Resting c. Meditating d. Outbursts of temper 6. The smallest unit of life in our bodies is the a. Atom b. Molecule c. Proton d. Cell 7. One of the functions of the cell membrane is to a. Divide into other cells. b. Control what moves into and out of the cell. c. Fight infection. d. Trap bacteria.8. The process of a larger cell dividing into two or more smaller cells is a. Cell division. b. Cell multiplication. c. Mitosis. d. Metabolism. 9. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase are all phases of a. Cell division. b. Infection. c. Mitosis. d. Adrenaline. 10. Mitosis is a scientific term that, in layman’s terms, just means a. Cellular disease. b. Nuclear cell division (division of the cell nucleus). c. Infection. d. Atomic fusion. 11. The stage of mitosis in which the chromatin condenses and becomes a chromosome is a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Anaphase d. Telophase 12. The stage of mitosis in which the chromosomes begin to align is ________________. a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Anaphase d. Telophase 13. The stage of mitosis in which the paired chromosomes separate, each going to an opposite pole of the cell, is _______________. a. Metaphase b. Prophase c. Anaphase d. Anaphase 14. The stage of mitosis in which the two chromosomes are cordoned into new nuclei within the daughter cells is ___________. a. Metaphase b. Prophasec. Anaphase d. Telophase 15. Squamous, cuboidal and columnar are three kinds of what kind of cell tissue? ____________ a. Epidermis b. Epithelial tissue c. Nerve tissue d. Muscle tissue 16. An important function of epithelial tissue is _______________________________. a. Strengthen the muscles. b. Acting as a protective barrier for the human body. c. Protect the nerves. d. nonexistent; it has been found to have no known function. 17. An important function of connective tissue is ___________. a. Acting as a protective barrier for the human body. b. Protect the muscles. c. Storage of energy. d. Strengthen the nerves. 18. Muscle tissue has the ability to __________, bringing out movement and the ability to work. a. Divide and conquer. b. Replicate at will. c. Relax and contract. d. Sleep. 19. Nervous tissue is specialized to a. Do work. b. Protect the body. c. Teach the person to relax. d. React to stimuli. 20. Cells known as ___________ make up nerve tissue. a. Neurons. b. Protons c. Molecules d. Atoms 21. The ________________ system protects the person’s body from damage.a. Circulatory b. Musculoskeletal c. Integumentary d. Digestive 22. The integumentary system comprises the ________ and its various appendages. a. Skeleton b. Brain c. Skin d. Heart 23. An example of appendages contained within the integumentary system are _____________. a. Lungs b. Hair and nails c. Nostrils d. Ears 24. In addition to protecting the body, an example of a benefit of the integumentary system is its function of __________________. a. Circulating blood. b. Digesting food. c. Processing information. d. Regulating temperature. 25. How many layers of skin are contained within the human integumentary system (skin)? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four PRACTICE TEST 1 - ANSWER KEY Section 1 – Reading Comprehension 1. B We can infer from this passage that sickness from an infectious disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another. From the passage, “Infectious pathologies are also called communicable diseases or transmissible diseases, due to their potential of transmission from one person or species to another by a replicating agent (as opposed to a toxin).”2. A Two other names for infectious pathologies are communicable diseases and transmissible diseases. From the passage, “Infectious pathologies are also called communicable diseases or transmissible diseases, due to their potential of transmission from one person or species to another by a replicating agent (as opposed to a toxin).” 3. C Infectivity describes the ability of an organism to enter, survive and multiply in the host. This is taken directly from the passage, and is a definition type question. Definition type questions can be answered quickly and easily by scanning the passage for the word you are asked to define. “Infectivity” is an unusual word, so it is quick and easy to scan the passage looking for this word. 4. B We know an infection is not synonymous with an infectious disease because an infection may not cause important clinical symptoms or impair host function. 5. C We can infer from the passage that, a virus is too small to be seen with the naked eye. Clearly, if they are too small to be seen with a microscope, then they are too small to be seen with the naked eye. 6. D Viruses infect all types of organisms. This is taken directly from the passage, “Viruses infect all types of organisms, from animals and plants to bacteria and single-celled organisms.” 7. C The passage does not say exactly how many parts prions and viroids consist of. It does say, “Unlike prions and viroids, viruses consist of two or three parts ...” so we can infer they consist of either less than two or more than three parts. 8. B A common virus spread by coughing and sneezing is Influenza. 9. C The cumulus stage of a thunderstorm is the beginning of the thunderstorm. This is taken directly from the passage, “The first stage of a thunderstorm is the cumulus, or developing stage.” 10. D The passage lists four ways that air is heated. One of the ways is, heat created by water vapor condensing into liquid. 11. A The sequence of events can be taken from these sentences: As the moisture carried by the [1] air currents rises, it rapidly cools into liquid drops of water,which appear as cumulus clouds. As the water vapor condenses into liquid, it [2] releases heat, which warms the air. This in turn causes the air to become less dense than the surrounding dry air and [3] rise further. 12. C The purpose of this text is to explain when meteorologists consider a thunderstorm severe. The main idea is the first sentence, “The United States National Weather Service classifies thunderstorms as severe when they reach a predetermined level.” After the first sentence, the passage explains and elaborates on this idea. Everything is this passage is related to this idea, and there are no other major ideas in this passage that are central to the whole passage. 13. A From this passage, we can infer that different areas and countries have different criteria for determining a severe storm. From the passage we can see that most of the US has a criteria of, winds over 50 knots (58 mph or 93 km/h), and hail ¾ inch (2 cm). For the Central US, hail must be 1 inch (2.5 cm) in diameter. In Canada, winds must be 90 km/h or greater, hail 2 centimeters in diameter or greater, and rainfall more than 50 millimeters in 1 hour, or 75 millimeters in 3 hours. Option D is incorrect because the Canadian system is the same for hail, 2 centimeters in diameter. 14. C With hail above the minimum size of 2.5 cm. diameter, the Central Region of the United States National Weather Service would issue a severe thunderstorm warning. 15. D Clouds in space are made of different materials attracted by gravity. Clouds on Earth are made of water droplets or ice crystals. Choice D is the best answer. Notice also that Choice D is the most specific. 16. C The main idea is the first sentence of the passage; a cloud is a visible mass of droplets or frozen crystals floating in the atmosphere above the surface of the Earth or other planetary body. The main idea is very often the first sentence of the paragraph. 17. C Nephology, which is the study of cloud physics. 18. C This question asks about the process, and gives options that can be confirmed or eliminated easily. From the passage, “Dense, deep clouds reflect most light, so they appear white, at least from the top. Cloud droplets scatter light very efficiently, so the further into a cloud light travels, the weaker it gets. This accounts for the gray or dark appearance at the base of large clouds.” We can eliminate choice A, since water droplets inside the cloud do not reflect light is false.We can eliminate choice B, since, water droplets outside the cloud reflect light, it appears dark, is false. Choice C is correct. 19. A The correct order of ingredients is brown sugar, baking soda and chocolate chips. 20. B Sturdy: strong, solid in structure or person. In context, Stir in chocolate chips by hand with a sturdy wooden spoon. 21. A Disperse: to scatter in different directions or break up. In context, Stir until the chocolate chips and nuts are evenly dispersed. 22. B You can stop stirring the nuts when they are evenly distributed. From the passage, “Stir until the chocolate chips and nuts are evenly dispersed.” 23. A Larvae spend most of their time in search of food and their food is leaves. 24. B From the passage, the ants provide some degree of protection 25. C The association is mutual so both benefit. 26. A Navy SEALS are the maritime component of the United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM). 27. C Working underwater separates SEALs from other military units. This is taken directly from the passage. 28. D SEALs also belong to the Navy and the Coast Guard. 29. A The CIA also participated. From the passage, the raid was conducted by a “team of 40 CIA-led Navy SEALS.” 30. C From the passage, “The Navy SEALs were part of the Naval Special Warfare Development Group, previously called “Team 6”. “ 31. B This question is taken directly from the passage. 32. A The Egyptians believed gods loved gardens. 33. BCypresses and palms were the most popular trees in Assyrian Gardens. 34. B Vegetable gardens came before ornamental gardens. The earliest forms of gardens emerged from the people’s need to grow herbs and vegetables. It was only later that rich individuals created gardens for the purely decorative purpose. 35. A The ancient Roman gardens are known by their statues and sculptures … 36. D After the fall of Rome, gardening was only for medicinal purposes, AND gardening declined in the Middle Ages, so we can infer gardening declined after the fall of Rome. 37. C From the passage, “After the fall of Rome gardening was only done with the purpose of growing medicinal herbs and decorating church altars,” so Choice C. 38. B From the passage, “Mosaics and glazed tiles used to decorate elaborate fountains are specific to Islamic gardens.” 39. B From the passage, “Often called “rainforests of the sea”, coral reefs form some of the most diverse ecosystems on Earth.” 40. A Read the passage carefully – “The polyps are like tiny sea anemones, to which they are closely related.” 41. C This question is designed to confuse by giving variation of the same information. Read the passage carefully for the correct answer. 42. D This question is designed to confuse by giving variation of the same information. Read the passage carefully for the correct answer. 43. B Designed to confuse by offering variations of the same information. Read the passage carefully for the correct time sequence. 44. A From the passage, “As communities established themselves on the shelves, the reefs grew upwards, pacing the rising sea levels. Reefs that rose too slowly became drowned reefs, covered by so much water that there was insufficient light.” Here, “pacing” is the key word, so Choice A, “at the same rate... “ From this we can infer that coral reefs grew at the same rate (pacing) as the rising water level. 45. A Reefs that grew too slowly died from a lack of light. From the passage, “Reefs that rose too slowly became drowned reefs, covered by so much water there was insufficient light.” Section II – Math Answer Key 1. A 1/3 X 3/4 = 3/12 = 1/42. D 75/1500 = 15/300 = 3/60 = 1/20 3. D 3.14 + 2.73 = 5.87 and 5.87 + 23.7 = 29.57 4. B Spent 15% - 100% - 15% = 85% 5. C 0.27 + 0.33 = 0.60 and 0.60 = 60/100 = 3/5 6. D 3.13 + 7.87 = 11 and 11 X 5 = 55 7. B 2/4 X 3/4 = 6/16, and lowest terms = 3/8 8. D 2/3-2/5 = 10-6 /15 = 4/15 9. C 2/7 + 2/3 = 6+14 /21 (21 is the common denominator) = 20/21 10. B 2/3 x 60 = 40 and 1.5 x 75 = 15, 40 + 15 = 55 11. C 8/40 = X/100 = 8 * 100 / 40X = 800/40 = X = 20 12. D 9/36 = X/100 = 9 * 100 / 36X = 900/36 = 25 13. C 3/10 * 90 = 3 * 90/10 = 27 14. B 4/100 * 36 = .4 * 36/100 = .144 15. A 5 mg/10/mg X 1 tab/1 = .5 tablets 16. B Step 1: Set up the formula to calculate the dose to be given in mg as per weight of the child:- Dose ordered X Weight in Kg = Dose to be given Step 2: 20 mg X 12 kg = 240 mg 240 mg/80 mg X 1 tab/1 = 240/80 = 3 tablets 17. A Set up the formula to calculate the dose to be given in mg as per weight of the child:- Dose ordered X Weight in Kg = Dose to be given Step 2: 20 mg X 20 kg = 400 mg (Convert 44 lb to Kg, 1 lb = 0.4536 kg, hence 44 lb = 19.95 kg approx. 20 kg) 400 mg/80 mg X 1 tab/1 = 400/80 = 5 tablets 18. B 3000 units/5000 units X 1 ml/1 = 3000/5000 = 0.6 ml 19. C 60 mg/80 mg X 1 ml/1 = 60/80 = 0.75 ml 20. A Dose ordered X Weight in Kg = Dose to be given16 mg X 15 kg = 240 mg 240 mg/80 mg X 1 tab/1 = 240/80 = 3 tablets 21. C (Convert 1 g = 1000 mg) 1000 mg/1000 mg X 1 tsp/1 = 1000/1000 = tsp 22. D 10 units/200 units X 1 ml/1 = 10/200 = 0.05 ml 23. B (4)(3)3 = (4)(27) = 108 24. A 1000g = 1kg., 0.007 = 1000 x 0.007 = 7g. 25. C 4 quarts = 1 gallon, 16 quarts = 16/4 = 4 gallons 26. C 1 teaspoon = 4.93 milliliters (U.S.), 2 tp = 4.93 x 2 = 9.86 ml. 27. D 1,000 meters = 1 kilometer, 200 m = 200/1,000 = 0.2 km. 28. B 12 inches = 1 ft., 72 inches = 72/12 = 6 feet 29. C 1 yard = 3 feet, 3 yards = 3 feet x 3 = 9 feet 30. B 0.45 kg = 1 pound, 1 kg. = 1/0.45 and 45 kg = 1/0.45 x 45 = 100 pounds 31. C 1 g = 1,000 mg. 0.63 g = 0.63 x 1,000 = 630 mg. 32. D To solve for x, 5x – 7x + 3 = -1 5x – 7x = -1 -3 -2x = -4 x = -4/ -2 x = 2 33. C To solve for x, first simplify the equation 5x + 2x + 14 = 14x – 7 7x + 14 = 4x -7 7x – 14x + 14 = -7 7x – 14x = -7 – 14 -7x = -21 x = -21/-7 x=3 34. A 5z + 5 = 3z +6 + 11 5z -3z + 5 =6 + 115z – 3z = 6 + 11 -5 2z = 17 – 5 2z = 12 z= 12/2 z= 6 35. C 5z + 5 = 3z +6 + 11 5z -3z + 5 =6 + 11 5z – 3z = 6 + 11 -5 2z = 17 – 5 2z = 12 z= 12/2 z= 6 36. D Price increased by $5 ($25-$20). The percent increase is 5/20 x 100 = 5 x 5=25% 37. C Price decreased by $5 ($25-$20). The percent increase = 5/25 x 100 = 5 x 4 =20% 38. D 30/100 x 150 = 3 x 15 = 45 (increase in number of correct answers). So the number of correct answers in second test = 150 + 45 = 195 39. B Let total number of players= X Let the number of players with long hair=Y and the number of players with short hair=Z Then X = 4+Z Y= 12% of X Z= X - 4 12.5% of X = 4 Converting from decimal to fraction gives 12.5%=125/10 x 1/100=125/1000, therefore 12.5% of =125/1000X=4 Solve for X by multiplying both sides by 1000/125, X=4 x 1000/125=32 Z = x – 4 Z = 32 – 4 z or number of short haired players = 28 40. D 2 glasses are broken for 43 customers so 1 glass breaks for every 43/2 customers served, therefore 10 glasses implies 43/2 x 10=215 41. D As the lawn is square, the length of one side will be = √62500 = 250 meters. Therefore, the perimeters will be: 250 × 4 = 1000 meters The total cost will be 1000 × 5.5 = $5500 42. D The price of all the single items is same and there are 13 total items. So the total cost will be 13 × 1.3 = $16.9. After 3.5 percent tax this amount will become 16.9 × 1.035 = $17.5. 43. CArea of the square = 12 × 12 = 144 cm2 Let x be the width, then 2x be the length of rectangle, so its area will be 2x2 and perimeter will be 2(2x+x)=6x According to the condition 2x2 = 144 X = 8.48 cm The perimeter will be Perimeter=6×8.48 =50.88 =51 cm. 44. B There are 50 balls in the basket now. Let x be the number of yellow balls to be added to make 65%. So the equation becomes X + 15 /X + 50 = 65/100 X = 50 45. D Let x be number of rows, and number of trees in a row. So equation becomes X2 = 65536 X = 256 46. B First calculate the number of stores to distribute 5 kg portions: 550 - (20 x 15) - (10 x 12) = 130. Then 130/5 = 26 shops. His distribution is then: 15 x 6.4 = $96, 12 x 3.4 = $40.8, 26 x 1.8 × 26 = $46.8, Total = $183.6. Then subtract the distribution costs: Total number of stores = 15 + 12 + 26 = 53, 53 x 3 = $159 distribution costs. Then calculate profit: $183.6 - 159 = $24.60 47. D Each tree will require a 10-meter diametric space around its stem. So 65 trees can be planted along 650-meter side. Similarly, 65 along the other side. However, along the 780 meter side, the first tree will be after 10 meters at both edges, so 76 trees can be planted long that side. Total number of trees then will be 65×2+76×2=282 48. A As one tree requires 10-meter diametric space, or, a 10-meter space on all four sides will be left. Therefore, the dimensions left are 630×760=478,800 m2. 49. B X/2 – 250 = 3X/7 X = $3500 50. A The probability that the 1st ball drawn is red = 4/11 The probability that the 2nd ball drawn is green = 5/10 The combined probability will then be 4/11 X 5/10 = 20/110 = 2/11 Section III English Answer Key 1. AThe third conditional is used for talking about an unreal situation (a situation that did not happen) in the past. For example, “If I had studied harder, [if clause] I would have passed the exam” [main clause]. This has the same meaning as, “I failed the exam, because I didn’t study hard enough.” 2. D The third conditional is used for talking about an unreal situation (a situation that did not happen) in the past. For example, “If I had studied harder, [if clause] I would have passed the exam” [main clause]. This has the same meaning as, “I failed the exam, because I didn’t study hard enough.” 3. B In double negative sentences, one of the negatives is replaced with “any.” 4. C In double negative sentences, one of the negatives is replaced with “any.” 5. D The present perfect tense cannot be used with specific time expressions such as yesterday, one year ago, last week, when I was a child, at that moment, that day, one day, etc. The present perfect tense is used with unspecific expressions such as ever, never, once, many times, several times, before, so far, already, yet, etc. 6. C The present perfect tense cannot be used with specific time expressions such as yesterday, one year ago, last week, when I was a child, at that moment, that day, one day, etc. The present perfect tense is used with unspecific expressions such as ever, never, once, many times, several times, before, so far, already, yet, etc. 7. A “Went” is used in the simple past tense. “Gone” is used in the past perfect tense. 8. B “Went” is used in the simple past tense. “Gone” is used in the past perfect tense. 9. D “It’s” is a contraction for it is or it has. “Its” is a possessive pronoun. 10. C “It’s” is a contraction for it is or it has. “Its” is a possessive pronoun. 11. B The sentence refers to a person, so “who” is the only correct option. 12. A The sentence requires the past perfect “has always been known.” Furthermore, this is the only grammatically correct choice. 13. C The superlative, “hottest,” is used when expressing a temperature greater than that of anything to which it is being compared. 14. D When comparing two items, use “the taller.” When comparing more than two items, use “the tallest.” 15. B The past perfect form is used to describe an event that occurred in the past and prior to another event.16. A The subject is “rules” so the present tense plural form, “are,” is used to agree with “realize.” 17. C The simple past tense, “had,” is correct because it refers to completed action in the past. 18. D The simple past tense, “sank,” is correct because it refers to completed action in the past. 19. A “Who” is correct because the question uses an active construction. “To whom was first place given?” is passive construction. 20. D “Which” is correct, because the files are objects and not people. 21. C The simple present tense, “rises,” is correct. 22. A “Lie” does not require a direct object, while “lay” does. The old woman might lie on the couch, which has no direct object, or she might lay the book down, which has the direct object, “the book.” 23. D The simple present tense, “falls,” is correct because it is repeated action. 24. A The present progressive, “building models,” is correct in this sentence; it is required to match the other present progressive verbs. 25. A “Affect” is a verb, while “effect” is a noun. 26. D “Than” is used for comparison. “Then” is used to indicate a point in time. 27. C “There” indicates a state of existence. “Their” is used for third person plural possession. “They’re” is the contracted form of “they are.” 28. A “There” indicates a state of existence. “Their” is used for third person plural possession. “They’re” is the contraction of “they are.” 29. C “Your” is the possessive form of “you.” “You’re” is the contraction of “you are.” 30. C “Your” is the possessive form of “you.” “You’re” is the contraction of “you are.” 31. A Disease is a singular noun. 32. C Both “dog” and “cat” in this sentence are singular nouns and require the article “a.” 33. A The word “principal” is a synonym for primary or major. “Principle” means a fundamental truth. 34. D The article “a” come before a noun that begins with a consonant, while “an” comes before a noun that begins with a vowel.35. A “Except” means to exclude something. “Accept” means to receive something, or to agree to an idea. 36. A “Advise” is a verb that means to offer advice, which is a noun. 37. C “Adapt” means to change or accommodate. “Adopt” means to accept, embrace, or to assume responsibility or ownership for something or someone. 38. D “Among” is used with more than two items, while “between” is limited to two items. 39. D “At” refers to a specific time or location, while “about” is approximate. 40. B “Beside” means next to, and “besides” means in addition to. 41. A “Can” is used when describing ability or capability. “May” is a request or the granting of permission. 42. B “Continuous” means a time period without interruption, or ongoing. “Continual” is used for actions that are frequent and repetitive, or that continue almost without interruption. 43. A “Emigrate” means to leave one’s country, usually in order to immigrate to another country to live. 44. A “Farther” is reserved for physical distance, and “further” is used for figurative distance, or to mean “in addition.” 45. B “Former” refers to the first of two things; “latter” to the second of two things. 46. D “Healthy” describes people or animals that are in good health. “Healthful” is generally used in formal speech or writing, and refers to things that are good for health. 47. C “Lie” does not require a direct object, while “lay” does. In this sentence, “lay” is followed by the direct object, “the books.” 48. C “Lie” does not require a direct object, while “lay” does. In this sentence, “lay” is followed by the direct object, “the books.” 49. C This is the correct choice. 50. B “Learn” means to receive and integrate knowledge or an experience. “Teach” means to impart knowledge to another. Section III Part II – Vocabulary1. C Edify VERB to instruct or improve morally or intellectually. 2. B Egress NOUN an exit or way out. 3. A Confidential ADJECTIVE kept secret within a certain circle of persons; not intended to be known publicly. 4. C Felony NOUN serious criminal offence that is punishable by death or imprisonment above a year. 5. B Foment VERB to encourage or incite troublesome acts. 6. A Funereal ADJECTIVE dignified, solemn that is appropriate for a funeral. 7. B Geniality NOUN warmth and kindness of disposition. 8. C Genteel ADJECTIVE polite and well mannered. 9. D Goad VERB to encourage, stimulate or incite and provoke. 10. B Heinous ADJECTIVE shocking, terrible or wicked. 11. A Harbinger NOUN a person of thing that tells or announces the coming of someone or something. 12. D Homologous ADJECTIVE similar or identical. 13. B Ignoble ADJECTIVE common, not honorable or noble. 14. A Immaterial ADJECTIVE irrelevant not having substance or matter. 15. A Impeccable ADJECTIVE perfect, no faults or errors. 16. D Juxtapose VERB place side by side for contrast or comparison. 17. D Junta NOUN ruling council of a military government. 18. CLaggard NOUN someone who takes more time than necessary. 19. B Languid ADJECTIVE lacking enthusiasm, strength or energy. 20. D Magnate NOUN a person of influence, rank or distinction. 21. C Malady NOUN a lingering disease or ailment of the human body. 22. B Nimble ADJECTIVE quick and light in movement. 23. B Racket NOUN a loud noise. 24. C Nuptial NOUN of or pertaining to wedding and marriage. 25. A Ostensible ADJECTIVE meant for open display; apparent. 26. C Octavo NOUN a sheet of paper 7 to 10 inches high and 4.5 to 6 inches wide, the size varying with the large original sheet used to create it. Made by folding the original sheet three times to produce eight leaves. 27. A Pallid ADJECTIVE appearing weak, pale, or wan. 28. C Panorama NOUN a picture or series of pictures representing a continuous scene. 29. B Paradox NOUN a self contradictory statement that can only be true if false and vice versa. 30. A Querulous ADJECTIVE often complaining; suggesting a complaint in expression; fretful, whining. 31. D Mollify VERB to ease a burden; make less painful; to comfort; soothe. 32. C Redundant ADJECTIVE repetitive or needlessly wordy. 33. C Bicker VERB to quarrel in a tiresome, insulting manner. 34. C Sombre ADJECTIVE dark; gloomy. 35. A Maverick NOUN showing independence in thoughts or actions. 36. D Tenuous ADJECTIVE thin in substance or consistency. 37. A Pandemonium NOUN chaos; tumultuous or lawless violence. 38. APerpetual ADJECTIVE continuing uninterrupted. 39. B Denigrate VERB to treat as worthless; belittle, degrade or disparage. 40. D Mundane ADJECTIVE ordinary; not new. 41. B Importune VERB to harass with persistent requests. 42. D Volatile ADJECTIVE explosive. 43. B Plaintive ADJECTIVE sorrowful, mournful or melancholic. 44. A Nexus NOUN a form of connection. 45. D Conjoin VERB to join together; to unite; to combine. 46. B Petrify VERB to harden organic matter by permeating with water and depositing dissolved minerals. 47. B Inherent ADJECTIVE naturally a part or consequence of something. 48. C Torpid ADJECTIVE lazy, lethargic or apathetic. 49. A Gregarious ADJECTIVE Describing one who enjoys being in crowds and socializing. 50. C Alloy VERB to mix or combine; often used of metals.9 Section IV – Science Answer Key 1. C Electric potential is a fundamental interaction between the magnetic field and the presence and motion of an electric charge. Electric potential is the capacity of an electric field to do work on an electric charge, typically measured in volts, while electromagnetism is a fundamental interaction between the magnetic field and the presence and motion of an electric charge 2. D An ohm (Ω) is a unit of electrical voltage is not true. Note: An ohm is a unit of electrical resistance. 3. D The property of a conductor that restricts its internal flow of electrons is resistance. 4. C In physics, friction is the force that opposes the relative motion of two bodies in contact. 5. B Kinetic energy is the energy of a body that results from motion while potential energy is the energy possessed by an object by virtue of its position or state, e.g., as in a compressed spring.6. A The four fundamental forces of nature are gravity, electromagnetic force, weak nuclear force, and strong nuclear force. Note: Electromagnetic force is more commonly known as electricity. 7. A Starting with the weakest, the fundamental forces of nature in order of strength are, Gravity, Weak nuclear force, Electromagnetic force, Strong nuclear force. Note: Although gravitational force is the weakest of the four, it acts over great distances. Electromagnetic force is of order 1039 times stronger than gravity.10 8. A The Strong Nuclear Force is an attractive force that binds protons and neutrons and maintains the structure of the nucleus, and the Weak Nuclear Force is responsible for the radioactive beta decay and other subatomic reactions. Note: The Weak Nuclear Force is so named because it is only effective for short distances. Nevertheless, it is through the Weak Nuclear Force that the sun provides us with energy by allowing one element to change into another element.18 9. B No detectable gain or loss occurs in chemical reactions. Note: No detectable gain or loss in mass occurs in chemical reactions. However, the state of a substance may change in a chemical reaction. For example, substances involving in a chemical reaction can change from solid states to gaseous states but the total mass will not change. 10. C Convection is the transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement of fluids; thermal radiation is electromagnetic radiation emitted from all matter due to its possessing thermal energy. Note: In physics, the term “fluid” means any substance that deforms under shear stress; it includes liquids, gases, plasmas, and some plastic solids. Sunlight is solar electromagnetic radiation generated by the hot plasma of the Sun, and this thermal radiation heats the Earth.11 11. D In Eukaryotic cells, the cell cycle is the cycle of events involving cell division, including mitosis, cytokinesis, and interphase. 12. D All of these statements are true. 13. C DNA is a nucleic acid that carries the genetic information in the cell and is capable of selfreplication. 14. A The complementary bases found in DNA are adenine and thymine or cytosine and guanine. 15. B A nucleotide is the basic structural unit of nucleic acids (DNA or RNA); their sequence determines individual hereditary characteristics. 16. B Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a chain of nucleotides that plays an important role in the creationof new proteins. 17. C Mutations in DNA sequences usually occur spontaneously is false. Note: Mutations result when the DNA polymerase makes a mistake, which happens about once every 100,000,000 bases. Actually, the number of mistakes that remain incorporated into the DNA is even lower than this because cells contain special DNA repair proteins that fix many of the mistakes in the DNA that are caused by mutagens. The repair proteins see which nucleotides are paired incorrectly, and then change the wrong base to the right one.12 18. A Aerobic reactions occur in every cell and use oxygen to convert glucose to energy; anaerobic organisms such as many bacteria can release energy without the use of oxygen. Note: The anaerobic process occurs in the cytoplasm and is only moderately efficient. The aerobic cycle takes place in the mitochondria and results in the greatest release of energy.13 19. D Tissues are a collection of similar cells that group together to perform a specialized function. 20. A Epithelial tissue serves as membranes lining organs and helping to keep the body’s organs separate, in place and protected; an example is the outer layer of the skin. 21. D Tissue that adds support and structure to the body and frequently contains fibrous strands of collagen is connective tissue. Note: Some examples of connective tissue include the inner layers of skin, tendons, ligaments, cartilage, bone and fat tissue. In addition to these more recognizable forms of connective tissue, blood is also considered a form of connective tissue.14 22. B Muscle tissue is a specialized tissue that can contract and contains the specialized proteins actin and myosin that slide past one another and allow movement. 23. A Nerve tissue contains two types of cells: neurons and glial cells and has the ability to generate and conduct electrical signals in the body. 24. D An organ is a group of tissues that perform a specific function or group of functions. 25. B Among animals, examples of organs are the heart, lungs, brain, eye, stomach, and bones; plant organs include the roots, stems, leaves, flowers, seeds and fruits. 26. C Our bodies have 11 different systems, including circulatory, digestive, and lymphatic. Note: Other systems include the endocrine, immune, muscular, nervous, reproductive, respiratory, skeletal, and urinary systems.15 27. D The Lymphatic system absorbs excess fluid, preventing tissues from swelling, defends the body against microorganisms and harmful foreign particles, and facilitates the absorption of fat. 28. AThe vascular system consists of arteries, veins, and capillaries that transport oxygen to and from all tissues. Note: The cardiovascular system refers to the heart (cardio) and blood vessels (vascular). The circulatory system is a more general term encompassing the blood, blood vessels, heart, lymph, and lymph vessels. 29. D Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart, veins return oxygen-depleted blood to the heart, and capillaries are thin-walled blood vessels in which gas/ nutrient/ waste exchange occurs. Note: An easy way to remember the difference between an artery and a vein is that Arteries carry Away from the heart. 30. B The small intestine is the primary organ of the digestive tract, and may be subdivided into three segments, the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. 31. B The immune system defends our bodies against infections and disease through three types of response systems: the anatomic response, the inflammatory response, and the immune response. 32. A The musculoskeletal system is composed of all of the bones, cartilage, muscles, joints, tendons and ligaments in a person’s body. Note: Some people view the musculoskeletal system as two body systems in one or two systems that work very closely together, with one being the muscular system and the other being the skeletal system.16 33. C The gastrointestinal tract is a muscular tube lined by a special layer of cells, called epithelium; its primary purpose is to break food down into nutrients, which can be absorbed into the body to provide energy. 34. C The Law of the Conservation of Energy states that, in a chemical change, energy can be neither created nor destroyed, but only changed from one form to another. 35. C A chemical change is a process that transforms one set of chemical substances to another; the substances used are known as reactants and those formed are products. 36. D Anabolism is the series of chemical reactions resulting in the synthesis of organic compounds, and catabolism is a series of chemical reactions that break down larger molecules. 37. D A catalyst is a chemical involved in, but not changed by, a chemical reaction by which chemical bonds are weakened and reactions accelerated. Note: Enzymes function as organic catalysts and allow many chemical reactions to occur within the homeostatic constraints of a living system. Enzymes can act rapidly, as in the case of carbonic anhydrase (enzymes typically end in the -ase suffix), which causes the chemicals to react 107 times faster than without the enzyme present. 38. BOxygen is the most abundant element in the Earth’s crust and appears on the Atomic Table as the letter ‘O’. 39. A The Law of Multiple Proportions states that when two elements combine with each other to form more than one compound, the weights of one element that combine with a fixed weight of the other are in a ratio of small whole numbers. 40. D The Law of Definite Proportions states that every chemical compound contains fixed and constant proportions (by weight) of its constituent elements. Note: Although many experimenters had long assumed the truth of the principle in general, the French chemist Joseph-Louis Proust first accumulated conclusive evidence for it in a series of researches on the composition of many substances, especially the oxides of iron (1797).17 41. C The Pauli Exclusion Principle states that, in a given molecule, no two electrons can have a different set of four quantum numbers. 42. B According to the tenets of Dalton’s atomic theory, All atoms of an element are alike in weight, and this weight is specific to the kind of atom. 43. A Atoms of different elements combine in simple whole-number ratios to form chemical compounds. 44. B The following statement about the periodic table is true, the way in which the elements are arranged allows predictions to made about their behavior. 45. A Ionization energy is the minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom or ion in the gas phase. 46. D An atomic radius is one-half the distance between nuclei of atoms of the same element, when the atoms are bound by a single covalent bond or are in a metallic crystal. 47. A & B are correct. An anion is a negatively charged ion, and a cation is a positively charged ion. Anions are typically formed by nonmetals, and metals usually form cations. 48. C The radius of atoms obtained from covalent bond lengths is called the covalent radius; the radius from interatomic distances in metallic crystals is called the metallic radius. 49. D A periodic trend is a regular variation in element properties with increasing atomic number that is ultimately due to regular variations in atomic structure. 50. D All of these statements are true. Anatomy and Physiology 1. AKidneys are responsible for regulating fluid balance. 2. B Fluid balance is important, because water comprises about 60-70% of a person’s weight. 3. B Metabolism slows with aging. 4. D “Met” refers to the person’s metabolic rate. 5. A Fluid balance is important, because the human body loses water every day through urination, perspiration, feces, and breathing. 6. D The smallest unit of life in our bodies is the cell. 7. B The cell membrane or plasma membrane is a biological membrane that separates the interior of all cells from the outside environment. The cell membrane is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules and controls the movement of substances in and out of cells.18 8. A Cell division is the process by which a parent cell divides into two or more daughter cells. Cell division is usually a small segment of a larger cell cycle. 9. C Mitosis is the process by which a eukaryotic cell separates the chromosomes in its cell nucleus into two identical sets in two separate nuclei. The process of mitosis is fast and highly complex. The sequence of events is divided into stages corresponding to the completion of one set of activities and the start of the next. These stages are interphase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.19 10. B Mitosis is the process by which a eukaryotic cell separates the chromosomes in its cell nucleus into two identical sets in two separate nuclei.19 11. A Prophase, is a stage of mitosis in which the chromatin condenses (it becomes shorter and fatter) into a highly ordered structure called a chromosome in which the chromatin becomes visible.20 12. B Metaphase is a stage of mitosis in the eukaryotic cell cycle in which condensed & highly coiled chromosomes, carrying genetic information, align in the middle of the cell before being separated into each of the two daughter cells. Preceded by events in prometaphase and followed by anaphase, microtubules formed in prophase have already found and attached themselves to kinetochores in metaphase21 13. D Anaphase, from the ancient Greek ἀνά (up) and φάσις (stage), is the stage of mitosis or meiosis when chromosomes move to opposite poles of the cell. Anaphase begins with the regulated triggering of the metaphase-to-anaphase transition. Metaphase ends with the destruction of cyclin, which is required for the function of metaphasecyclin-dependent kinases (M-Cdks). Anaphase is initiated with the cleavage of securin, a protein that inhibits the protease known as separase. Separase then cleaves cohesin, a protein responsible for holding sister chromatids together.22 14. D Telophase is a stage in both meiosis and mitosis in a eukaryotic cell. During telophase, the effects of prophase and prometaphase events are reversed. Two daughter nuclei form in the cell. The nuclear envelopes of the daughter cells are formed from the fragments of the nuclear envelope of the parent cell. As the nuclear envelope forms around each pair of chromatids, the nucleoli reappear.23 15. B Epithelium is one of the four basic types of animal tissue, along with connective tissue, muscle tissue and nervous tissue. Epithelial tissues line the cavities and surfaces of structures throughout the body, and form many glands. Functions of epithelial cells include secretion, selective absorption, protection, transcellular transport and detection of sensation. Simple epithelial tissues are generally classified by the shape of their cells. The four major classes of simple epithelium are: (1) simple squamous; (2) simple cuboidal; (3) simple columnar; (4) pseudostratified.24 16. B Epithelial tissue acts as a protective barrier for the human body. 17. C The functions of connective tissue are, Storage of energy, Protection of organs, Providing structural framework for the body and Connection of body tissues. 18. C Muscle tissue has the ability to relax and contract, bringing out movement and the ability to work. 19. D Nervous tissue is specialized to react to stimuli. 20. A Neurons make up nerve tissue. 21. C The integumentary system is the organ system that protects the body from damage, comprising the skin and its appendages, including hair, scales, feathers, and nails. 22. C The integumentary system comprises the skin and its various appendages, including hair, scales, feathers, and nails. 23. B The appendages of the integumentary system are hair, scales, feathers, and nails. 24. D The integumentary system has a variety of functions; it may serve to waterproof, cushion, and protect the deeper tissues, excrete wastes, and regulate temperature, and is the attachment site for sensory receptors to detect pain, sensation, pressure, and temperature. 25. C The human skin (integumentary) is composed of a minimum of 3 major layers of tissue, the Epidermis, the Dermis and Hypodermis.Practice Test Questions Set 2 Section I – Reading Comprehension Questions: 45 Time: 45 Minutes Section II – Math Questions: 50 Time: 50 Minutes Section III – Part I - English Grammar Questions: 50 Time: 50 Minutes Section III – Part II – Vocabulary Questions: 50 Time: 50 Minutes Section IV – Science – Part I – Chemistry & Biology Questions: 50 Time: 50 Minutes Section IV – Science – Part II – Anatomy & Physiology Questions: 25 Time: 25 Minutes The practice test portion presents questions that are representative of the type of question you should expect to find on the HESI. However, they are not intended to match exactly what is on the HESI. For the best results, take this Practice Test as if it were the real exam. Set aside time when you will not be disturbed, and a location that is quiet and free of distractions. Read the instructions carefully, read each question carefully, and answer to the best of your ability. Use the bubble answer sheets provided. When you have completed the Practice Test, check your answer against the Answer Key and read the explanation provided. NOTE: The Science, Anatomy and Physiology and English sections are optional. Check with your school for exam details. Section I – Reading Comprehension Answer SheetSection II – Math – Answer Sheet Section III – Answer Sheet English GrammarSection III Part II – Vocabulary Answer Sheet Section IV – Science Part I - Chemistry & BiologySection I - Reading Comprehension Questions 1-4 refer to the following passage. Passage 1 - The Respiratory System The respiratory system’s function is to allow oxygen exchange through all parts of the body. The anatomy or structure of the exchange system, and the uses of the exchanged gases, varies depending on the organism. In humans and other mammals, for example, the anatomical features of the respiratory system include airways, lungs, and the respiratory muscles. Molecules of oxygen and carbon dioxide are passively exchanged, by diffusion, between the gaseous external environment and the blood. This exchange process occurs in the alveolar region of the lungs. Other animals, such as insects, have respiratory systems with very simple anatomical features, and in amphibians even the skin plays a vital role in gas exchange. Plants also have respiratory systems but the direction of gas exchange can be opposite to that of animals. The respiratory system can also be divided into physiological, or functional, zones. These include the conducting zone (the region for gas transport from the outside atmosphere to just above the alveoli), the transitional zone, and the respiratory zone (the alveolar region where gas exchange occurs). 25 1. What can we infer from the first paragraph in this passage? a. Human and mammal respiratory systems are the same b. The lungs are an important part of the respiratory system c. The respiratory system varies in different mammals d. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are passive exchanged by the respiratory system 2. What is the process by which molecules of oxygen and carbon dioxide are passively exchanged?a. Transfusion b. Affusion c. Diffusion d. Respiratory confusion 3. What organ plays an important role in gas exchange in amphibians? a. The skin b. The lungs c. The gills d. The mouth 4. What are the three physiological zones of the respiratory system? a. Conducting, transitional, respiratory zones b. Redacting, transitional, circulatory zones c. Conducting, circulatory, inhibiting zones d. Transitional, inhibiting, conducting zones Questions 5-8 refer to the following passage. ABC Electric Warranty ABC Electric Company warrants that its products are free from defects in material and workmanship. Subject to the conditions and limitations set forth below, ABC Electric will, at its option, either repair or replace any part of its products that prove defective due to improper workmanship or materials. This limited warranty does not cover any damage to the product from improper installation, accident, abuse, misuse, natural disaster, insufficient or excessive electrical supply, abnormal mechanical or environmental conditions, or any unauthorized disassembly, repair, or modification. This limited warranty also does not apply to any product on which the original identification information has been altered, or removed, has not been handled or packaged correctly, or has been sold as second-hand. This limited warranty covers only repair, replacement, refund or credit for defective ABC Electric products, as provided above. 5. I tried to repair my ABC Electric blender, but could not, so can I get it repaired under this warranty? a. Yes, the warranty still covers the blender b. No, the warranty does not cover the blender c. Uncertain. ABC Electric may or may not cover repairs under this warranty 6. My ABC Electric fan is not working. Will ABC Electric provide a new one or repair this one? a. ABC Electric will repair my fanb. ABC Electric will replace my fan c. ABC Electric could either replace or repair my fan can request either a replacement or a repair. 7. My stove was damaged in a flood. Does this warranty cover my stove? a. Yes, it is covered. b. No, it is not covered. c. It may or may not be covered. d. ABC Electric will decide if it is covered 8. Which of the following is an example of improper workmanship? a. Missing parts b. Defective parts c. Scratches on the front d. None of the above Questions 9 – 12 refer to the following passage. Passage 3 – Mythology The main characters in myths are usually gods or supernatural heroes. As sacred stories, rulers and priests have traditionally endorsed their myths and as a result, myths have a close link with religion and politics. In the society where a myth originates, the natives believe the myth is a true account of the remote past. In fact, many societies have two categories of traditional narrative—(1) “true stories”, or myths, and (2) “false stories”, or fables. Myths generally take place during a primordial age, when the world was still young, prior to achieving its current form. These stories explain how the world gained its current form and why the culture developed its customs, institutions, and taboos. Closely related to myth are legend and folktale. Myths, legends, and folktales are different types of traditional stories. Unlike myths, folktales can take place at any time and any place, and the natives do not usually consider them true or sacred. Legends, on the other hand, are similar to myths in that many people have traditionally considered them true. Legends take place in a more recent time, when the world was much as it is today. In addition, legends generally feature humans as their main characters, whereas myths have superhuman characters. 26 9. We can infer from this passage that a. Folktales took place in a time far past, before civilization covered the earth b. Humankind uses myth to explain how the world was created c. Myths revolve around gods or supernatural beings; the local community usually accepts these stories as not true d. The only difference between a myth and a legend is the time setting of the story 10. The main purpose of this passage is a. To distinguish between many types of traditional stories, and explain the back-ground of some traditional story categoriesb. To determine whether myths and legends might be true accounts of history c. To show the importance of folktales how these traditional stories made life more bearable in harder times d. None of the Above 11. How are folktales different from myths? a. Folktales and myth are the same b. Folktales are not true and generally not sacred and take place anytime c. Myths are not true and generally not sacred and take place anytime d. Folktales explained the formation of the world and myths do not 12. How are legends and myth similar? a. Many people believe legends and myths are true, myths take place in modern day, and legends are about ordinary people b. Many people believe legends and myths are true, legends take place in modern day, and legends are about ordinary people c. Many people believe legends and myths are true, legends take place in modern day, and myths are about ordinary people d. Many people believe legends and myths are not true, legends take place in mod-ern day, and legends are about ordinary people Questions 13-18 refer to the following passage. Passage 4 – Myths, Legend and Folklore Cultural historians draw a distinction between myth, legend and folktale simply as a way to group traditional stories. However, in many cultures, drawing a sharp line between myths and legends is not that simple. Instead of dividing their traditional stories into myths, legends, and folktales, some cultures divide them into two categories. The first category roughly corresponds to folktales, and the second is one that combines myths and legends. Similarly, we can not always separate myths from folktales. One society might consider a story true, making it a myth. Another society may believe the story is fiction, which makes it a folktale. In fact, when a myth loses its status as part of a religious system, it often takes on traits more typical of folktales, with its formerly divine characters now appearing as human heroes, giants, or fairies. Myth, legend, and folktale are only a few of the categories of traditional stories. Other categories include anecdotes and some kinds of jokes. Traditional stories, in turn, are only one category within the much larger category of folklore, which also includes items such as gestures, costumes, and music. 26 13. The main idea of this passage is that a. Myths, fables, and folktales are not the same thing, and each describes a specific type of story b. Traditional stories can be categorized in different ways by different people c. Cultures use myths for religious purposes, and when this is no longer true, the people forget and discard these mythsd. Myths can never become folk tales, because one is true, and the other is false 14. The terms myth and legend are a. Categories that are synonymous with true and false b. Categories that group traditional stories according to certain characteristics c. Interchangeable, because both terms mean a story that is passed down from generation to generation d. Meant to distinguish between a story that involves a hero and a cultural message and a story meant only to entertain 15. Traditional story categories not only include myths and legends, but a. Can also include gestures, since some cultures passed these down before the written and spoken word b. In addition, folklore refers to stories involving fables and fairy tales c. These story categories can also include folk music and traditional dress d. Traditional stories themselves are a part of the larger category of folklore, which may also include costumes, gestures, and music 16. This passage shows that a. There is a distinct difference between a myth and a legend, although both are folktales b. Myths are folktales, but folktales are not myths c. Myths, legends, and folktales play an important part in tradition and the past, and are a rich and colorful part of history d. Most cultures consider myths to be true Questions 17-19 refer to the following passage. Passage 5 – Insects Humans regard certain insects as pests and attempt to control them with insecticides and many other techniques. Some insects damage crops by feeding on sap, leaves or fruits, a few bite humans and livestock, alive and dead, to feed on blood and some are capable of transmitting diseases to humans, pets and live-stock. Many other insects are considered ecologically beneficial and a few provide direct economic benefit. Silkworms and bees, for example, have been domesticated for the production of silk and honey, respectively. 27 17. How do humans control insects? a. By training them b. Using insecticides and other techniques c. In many different ways d. Humans do not control insects 18. Why do humans control insects? a. Because they do not like them b. Because they damage cropsc. Because they damage buildings d. Because they damage the soil 19. How do insects damage crops? a. By feeding on crops b. By transmitting disease c. By laying eggs on crops d. None of the above Questions 20-24 refer to the following passage. Passage 6 – Trees I Trees are an important part of the natural landscape because they prevent erosion and protect ecosystems in and under their branches. Trees also play an important role in producing oxygen and reducing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, as well as moderating ground temperatures. Trees are important elements in landscaping and agriculture, both for their visual appeal and for their crops, such as apples, and other fruit. Wood from trees is a building material, and a primary energy source in many developing countries. Trees also play a role in many of the world’s mythologies. 28 20. What are two reasons trees are important in the natural landscape? a. They prevent erosion and produce oxygen b. They produce fruit and are important elements in landscaping c. Trees are not important in the natural landscape d. Trees produce carbon dioxide and prevent erosion 21. What kind of ecosystems do trees protect? a. Trees do not protect ecosystems b. Weather sheltered ecosystems c. Ecosystems around the base and under the branches d. All of the above 22. Which of the following is true? a. Trees provide a primary food source in the developing world b. Trees provide a primary building material in the developing world c. Trees provide a primary energy source in the developing world d. Trees provide a primary oxygen source in the developing world 23. Why are trees important for agriculture? a. Because of their crops b. Because they shelter ecosystems c. Because they are a source of energy d. Because of their visual appeal24. What do trees do to the atmosphere? a. Trees produce carbon dioxide and reduce oxygen b. Trees product oxygen and carbon dioxide c. Trees reduce oxygen and carbon dioxide d. Trees produce oxygen and reduce carbon dioxide Questions 25-28 refer to the following passage. Passage 7 – Trees II With an estimated 100,000 species, trees represent 25 percent of all living plant species. The majority of tree species grow in tropical regions of the world and many of these areas have not been surveyed by botanists, making species diversity poorly understood. The earliest trees were tree ferns and horsetails, which grew in forests in the Carboniferous period. Tree ferns still survive, but the only surviving horsetails are no longer in tree form. Later, in the Triassic period, conifers and ginkgos, appeared, followed by flowering plants after that in the Cretaceous period. 28 25. Do botanists understand the number of tree species? a. Yes botanists know exactly how many tree species there are b. No, the species diversity is not well understood c. Yes, botanists are sure d. No, botanists have no idea 26. Where do most trees species grow? a. Most tree species grow in tropical regions. b. There is no one area where most tree species grow. c. Tree species grow in 25% of the world. d. There are 100,000 tree species. 27. What tree(s) survived from the Carboniferous period? a. 25% of all trees. b. Horsetails. c. Conifers. d. Tree Ferns. 28. Choose the correct list below, ranked from oldest to youngest trees. a. Flowering plants, conifers and ginkgos, tree ferns and horsetails. b. Tree ferns and horsetails, conifers and ginkgos, flowering plants. c. Tree ferns and horsetails, flowering plants, conifers and ginkgos. d. Conifers and ginkgos, tree ferns and horsetails, flowering plants. Questions 29 - 30 refer to the following passage. Lowest Price GuaranteeGet it for less. Guaranteed! ABC Electric will beat any advertised price by 10% of the difference. 1) If you find a lower advertised price, we will beat it by 10% of the difference. 2) If you find a lower advertised price within 30 days* of your purchase we will beat it by 10% of the difference. 3) If our own price is reduced within 30 days* of your purchase, bring in your receipt and we will refund the difference. *14 days for computers, monitors, printers, laptops, tablets, cellular & wireless devices, home security products, projectors, camcorders, digital cameras, radar detectors, portable DVD players, DJ and pro-audio equipment, and air conditioners. 29. I bought a radar detector 15 days ago and saw an ad for the same model only cheaper. Can I get 10% of the difference refunded? a. Yes. Since it is less than 30 days, you can get 10% of the difference refunded. b. No. Since it is more than 14 days, you cannot get 10% of the difference re-funded. c. It depends on the cashier. d. Yes. You can get the difference refunded. 30. I bought a flat-screen TV for $500 10 days ago and found an advertisement for the same TV, at another store, on sale for $400. How much will ABC refund under this guarantee? a. $100 b. $110 c. $10 d. $400 Questions 31-33 refer to the following passage. Passage 9 - Insects Insects have segmented bodies supported by an exoskeleton, a hard outer covering made mostly of chitin. The segments of the body are organized into three distinctive connected units, a head, a thorax, and an abdomen. The head supports a pair of antennae, a pair of compound eyes, and three sets of appendages that form the mouthparts. The thorax has six segmented legs and, if present in the species, two or four wings. The abdomen consists of eleven segments, though in a few species these segments may be fused together or very small. Overall, there are 24 segments. The abdomen also contains most of the digestive, respiratory, excretory and reproductive internal structures. There is considerable variation and many adaptations in the body parts of insects especially wings, legs, antenna and mouthparts. 27 31. How many units do insects have? a. Insects are divided into 24 units.b. Insects are divided into 3 units. c. Insects are divided into segments not units. d. It depends on the species. 32. Which of the following is true? a. All insects have 2 wings. b. All insects have 4 wings. c. Some insects have 2 wings. d. Some insects have 2 or 4 wings. 33. What is true of insect’s abdomen? a. It contains some of the organs. b. It is too small for any organs. c. It contains all of the organs. d. None of the above. Questions 34-37 refer to the following passage. Passage 10 - The Circulatory System The circulatory system is an organ system that passes nutrients (such as amino acids and electrolytes), gases, hormones, and blood cells to and from cells in the body to help fight diseases and help stabilize body temperature and pH levels. The circulatory system may be seen strictly as a blood distribution network, but some consider the circulatory system as composed of the cardiovascular system, which distributes blood, and the lymphatic system, which distributes lymph. While humans, as well as other vertebrates, have a closed cardiovascular system (meaning that the blood never leaves the network of arteries, veins and capillaries), some invertebrate groups have an open cardiovascular system. The most primitive animal phyla lack circulatory systems. The lymphatic system, on the other hand, is an open system. Two types of fluids move through the circulatory system: blood and lymph. The blood, heart, and blood vessels form the cardiovascular system. The lymph, lymph nodes, and lymph vessels form the lymphatic system. The cardiovascular system and the lymphatic system collectively make up the circulatory system. The main components of the human cardiovascular system are the heart and the blood vessels. It includes: the pulmonary circulation, a “loop” through the lungs where blood is oxygenated; and the systemic circulation, a “loop” through the rest of the body to provide oxygenated blood. An average adult contains five to six quarts (roughly 4.7 to 5.7 liters) of blood, which consists of plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Also, the digestive system works with the circulatory system to provide the nutrients the system needs to keep the heart pumping. 29 34. What can we infer from the first paragraph? a. An important purpose of the circulatory system is that of fighting diseases. b. The most important function of the circulatory system is to give the person energy.c. The least important function of the circulatory system is that of growing skin cells. d. The entire purpose of the circulatory system is not known. 35. Do humans have an open or closed circulatory system? a. Open b. Closed c. Usually open, though sometimes closed d. Usually closed, though sometimes open 36. In addition to blood, what two components form the cardiovascular system? a. The heart and the lungs b. The lungs and the veins c. The heart and the blood vessels d. The blood vessels and the nerves 37. Which system, along with the circulatory system, helps provide nutrients to keep the human heart pumping? a. The skeletal system b. The digestive system c. The immune system d. The nervous system Questions 38-41 refer to the following passage. Passage 11 - Blood Blood is a specialized bodily fluid that delivers nutrients and oxygen to the body’s cells and transports waste products away. In vertebrates, blood consists of blood cells suspended in a liquid called blood plasma. Plasma, which comprises 55% of blood fluid, is mostly water (90% by volume), and contains dissolved proteins, glucose, mineral ions, hormones, carbon dioxide, platelets and the blood cells themselves. Blood cells are mainly red blood cells (also called RBCs or erythrocytes) and white blood cells, including leukocytes and platelets. Red blood cells are the most abundant cells, and contain an iron-containing protein called hemoglobin that transports oxygen through the body. The pumping action of the heart circulates blood around the body through blood vessels. In animals with lungs, arterial blood carries oxygen from inhaled air to the tissues of the body, and venous blood carries carbon dioxide, a waste product of metabolism produced by cells, from the tissues to the lungs to be exhaled. 30 38. What can we infer from the first paragraph in this passage? a. Blood is responsible for transporting oxygen to the cells. b. Blood is only red when it reaches the outside of the body.c. Each person has about six pints of blood. d. Blood’s true function was only learned in the last century. 39. What liquid are blood cells suspended? a. Plasma b. Water c. Liquid nitrogen d. A mixture consisting largely of human milk 40. Which of these is not contained in blood plasma? a. Hormones b. Mineral ions c. Calcium d. Glucose 41. Which body part exhales carbon dioxide after venous blood has carried it from body tissues? a. The lungs b. The skin cells c. The bowels d. The sweat glands Questions 42-45 refer to the following passage. Passage 12 - The Human Skeleton The human skeleton consists of both fused and individual bones supported and supplemented by ligaments, tendons, muscles and cartilage. It serves as a scaffold which supports organs, anchors muscles, and protects organs such as the brain, lungs and heart. The biggest bone in the body is the femur in the upper leg, and the smallest is the stapes bone in the middle ear. In an adult, the skeleton comprises around 14% of the total body weight, and half of this weight is water. Fused bones include the pelvis and the cranium. Not all bones are interconnected directly: There are three bones in each middle ear called the ossicles that articulate only with each other. The thyoid bone, which is located in the neck, and serves as the point of attachment for the tongue, does not articulate with any other bones in the body, being supported by muscles and ligaments. There are 206 bones in the adult human skeleton, which varies between individuals and with age - newborn babies have over 270 bones, some of which fuse together. These bones are organized into a longitudinal axis, the axial skeleton, to which the appendicular skeleton is attached. 31 42. What is the main idea of this passage? a. The human skeleton is an important and complicated system of the body.b. There are 206 bones in the typical human body. c. In a child, the skeleton represents 14% of the body weight. d. Bones become more fragile as we age. 43. How many bones are located in the human middle ear? a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. 0 44. Which of the following is not true about the number of bones in the human skeleton? a. The typical skeleton has 206 bones. b. The number of bones stays the same throughout one’s lifetime. c. Newborn babies have about 270 bones. d. As a baby grows older, some of its bones fuse together. 45. What is the appendicular skeleton attached to? a. The exoskeleton. b. The radial skeleton. c. The rotating skeleton. d. The axial skeleton. Section II – Math 1. 8327 – 1278 = a. 7149 b. 7209 c. 6059 d. 7049 2. 294 X 21 = 1. 6017 2. 6174 3. 6728 4. 5679 3. 1278 + 4920 = a. 6298 b. 6108 c. 6198d. 6098 4. 285 * 12 = a. 3420 b. 3402 c. 3024 d. 2322 5. 4120 – 3216 = a. 903 b. 804 c. 904 d. 1904 6. 2417 + 1004 = a. 3401 b. 4321 c. 3402 d. 3421 7. 1440 ÷ 12 = a. 122 b. 120 c. 110 d. 132 8. 2713 – 1308 = a. 1450 b. 1445 c. 1405 d. 1455 9. It is known that x2+4x=5. Then x can be a. 0 b. -5 c. 1 d. Either (b) or (c) 10. (a+b)2 = 4ab. What is necessarily correct? a. a > b b. a < b c. a = bd. None of the Above 11. The sum of the digits of a 2-digit number is 12. If we switch the digits, the number we get will be greater than the initial one by 36. Find the initial number. a. 39 b. 48 c. 57 d. 75 12. Two friends traveled to a nearby city. In the second day they travelled 75 miles more than the first day, and in the third day, they travelled a third of the distance covered in the second day. How many miles did they cover in the first day, if the total travelled was 170 miles? a. 30 miles b. 35 miles c. 105 miles d. 135 miles 13. Kate’s father is 32 years older than Kate is. In 5 years, he will be five times older. How old is Kate? a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6 14. If Lynn can type a page in p minutes, what portion of the page can she do in 5 minutes? a. 5/p b. p - 5 c. p + 5 d. p/5 15. If Sally can paint a house in 4 hours, and John can paint the same house in 6 hours, how long will it take for both of them to paint the house together? a. 2 hours and 24 minutes b. 3 hours and 12 minutes c. 3 hours and 44 minutes d. 4 hours and 10 minutes 16. Employees of a discount appliance store receive an additional 20% off the lowest price on any item. If an employee purchases a dishwasher during a 15% off sale, how much will he pay if the dishwasher originally cost $450? a. $280.90b. $287 c. $292.50 d. $306 17. The sale price of a car is $12,590, which is 20% off the original price. What is the original price? a. $14,310.40 b. $14,990.90 c. $15,108.00 d. $15,737.50 18. A goat eats 214 kg. of hay in 60 days, while a cow eats the same amount in 15 days. How long will it take them to eat this hay together? a. 37.5 b. 75 c. 12 d. 15 19. Express 25% as a fraction. a. 1/4 b. 7/40 c. 6/25 d. 8/28 20. Express 125% as a decimal. a. .125 b. 12.5 c. 1.25 d. 125 21. Solve for x: 30 is 40% of x a. 60 b. 90 c. 85 d. 75 22. 12 ½% of x is equal to 50. Solve for x. a. 300 b. 400 c. 450 d. 35023. Express 24/56 as a reduced common fraction. a. 4/9 b. 4/11 c. 3/7 d. 3/8 24. Express 87% as a decimal. a. .087 b. 8.7 c. .87 d. 87 25. 60 is 75% of x. Solve for x. a. 80 b. 90 c. 75 d. 70 26. 60% of x is 12. Solve for x. a. 18 b. 15 c. 25 d. 20 27. Express 71/1000 as a decimal. a. .71 b. .0071 c. .071 d. 7.1 28. 4.7 + .9 + .01 = a. 5.5 b. 6.51 c. 5.61 d. 5.7 29. .33 × .59 = a. .1947 b. 1.947 c. .0197 d. .181730. .84 ÷ .7 = a. .12 b. 12 c. .012 d. 1.2 31. What number is in the ten thousandths place in 1.7389? a. 1 b. 8 c. 9 d. 3 32. .87 - .48 = a. .39 b. .49 c. .41 d. .37 33. The physician ordered 100 mg Ibuprofen/kg of body weight; on hand is 230 mg/tablet. The child weighs 50 lb. How many tablets will you give? a. 10 tablets b. 5 tablets c. 1 tablet d. 12 tablets 34. The physician ordered 1,000 units of heparin; 5,000 U/mL is on hand. How many milliliters will you give? a. 0.002 ml b. 0.2 ml c. 0.02 ml d. 2 ml 35. Simplify 43 a. 20 b. 32 c. 64 d. 108 36. The physician ordered 5 mL of Capacitate; 15 mL/tsp is on hand. How many teaspoons will you give? a. 0.05 tspb. 0.03 tsp c. 0.5 tsp d. 0.3 tsp 37. The physician orders 70 mg morphine sulphate; 1 g/mL is on hand. How many mL will you give? a. 0.05 ml b. 0.07 ml c. 0.04 ml d. 0.007 ml 38. The physician ordered 200 mg amoxicillin. The pharmacy stocks amoxicillin 400 mg per tsp. How many teaspoons will you give? a. 0.55 tsp b. 0.25 tsp c. 0.5 tsp d. 0.05 tsp 39. The physician ordered 600 mg ibuprofen po; the office stocks amoxicillin 200 mg per tablet. How many tablets will you give? 1. 3.5 tablets 2. 2 tablets 3. 5 tablets 4. 3 tablets 40. The manager of a weaving factory estimates that if 10 machines run on 100% efficiency for 8 hours, they will produce 1450 meters of cloth. However, due to some technical problems, 4 machines run of 95% efficiency and the remaining 6 at 90% efficiency. How many meters of cloth can these machines will produce in 8 hours? a. 1334 meters b. 1310 meters c. 1300 meters d. 1285 meters 41. Convert 60 feet to inches. a. 700 inches b. 600 inches c. 720 inches d. 1,800 inches 42. Convert 25 centimeters to millimeters.a. 250 millimeters b. 7.5 millimeters c. 5 millimeters d. 2.5 millimeters 43. Convert 100 millimeters to centimeters. a. 10 centimeters b. 1,000 centimeters c. 1100 centimeters d. 50 centimeters 44. Convert 3 gallons to quarts. a. 15 quarts b. 6 quarts c. 12 quarts d. 32 quarts 45. 2000 mm. = a. 2 m b. 200 m c. 0.002 m d. 0.02 m 46. 0.05 ml. = a. 50 liters b. 0.00005 liters c. 5 liters d. 0.0005 liters 47. 30 mg is the same mass as: a. 0.0003 kg. b. 0.03 grams c. 300 decigrams d. 0.3 grams 48. 0.101 mm. = a. .0101 cm b. 1.01 cm c. 0.00101 cm d. 10.10 cm 49. Smith and Simon are playing a card game. Smith will win if a card drawn from a deckof 52 is either 7 or a diamond, and Simon will win if the drawn card is an even number. Which statement is more likely to be correct? a. Smith will win more games. b. Simon will win more games. c. They have same winning probability. d. A decision cannot be made from the provided data. 50. How much water can be stored in a cylindrical container 5 meters in diameter and 12 meters high? a. 223.65m3 b. 235.65m3 c. 240.65m3 d. 252.65m3 Section III – English Grammar 1. Elaine promised to bring the camera _________________ at the mall yesterday. a. by me b. with me c. at me d. to me 2. Last night, he _______________ the sleeping bag down beside my mattress. a. lay b. laid c. lain d. has laid 3. I would have bought the shirt for you if ___________________. a. I had known you liked it. b. I have known you liked it. c. I would know you liked it. d. I know you liked it. 4. Many believers still hope ____________________ proof of the existence of ghosts. a. two find b. to find c. to found d. to have been found Select the correct word or phrase for the blank.5. All of the people at the school, including the teachers and _______________ were glad when summer break came. a. students: b. students, c. students; d. students 6. To _______________, Anne was on time for her math class. a. everybody’s surprise b. every body’s surprise c. everybodys surprise d. everybodys’ surprise 7. If he ________________ the textbook like he was supposed to, he would have known what was on the test. a. will have read b. shouldn’t have read c. would have read d. had read 8. Following the tornado, telephone poles _______________ all over the street. a. laid b. lied c. were lying d. were laying 9. In Edgar Allen Poe’s _______________________ Edgar Allen Poe describes a man with a guilty conscience. a. short story, “The Tell-Tale Heart,” b. short story The Tell-Tale Heart, c. short story, The Tell-Tale Heart d. short story. “the Tell-Tale Heart,” 10. Billboards are considered an important part of advertising for big business, ________________ by their critics. a. but, an eyesore; b. but, “ an eyesore,” c. but an eyesore d. but-an eyesore- 11. I can never remember how to use those two common words, “sell,” meaning to trade a product for money, or _____________________ meaning an event where products aretraded for less money than usual. a. saleb. “sale,” c. “sale d. “to sale,” 12. The class just finished reading ________________________ a short story by Carl Stephenson about a plantation owner’s battle with army ants. a. a)-”Leinengen versus the Ants”, b. b) Leinengen versus the Ants, c. c) “Leinengen versus the Ants,” d. c) Leinengen versus the Ants 13. After the car was fixed, it _______________ again. a. ran good b. ran well c. would have run well d. ran more well 14. “Where does the sun go during the _______________ asked little Kathy. a. night,” b. night”?, c. night,?” d. night?” 15. When I was a child, my mother taught me to say thank you, holding the door open for other, and cover my mouth when yawning or coughing. a. When I was a child, my mother teaching me to say thank you, to hold the door open for others, and cover my mouth when yawning or coughing. b. When I was a child, my mother taught me say thank you, to hold the door open for others, and to covering my mouth when yawning or coughing. c. When I was a child, my mother taught me saying thank you, holding the door open for others, and to cover my mouth when yawning or coughing. d. When I was a child, my mother taught me to say thank you, hold the door open for others, and cover my mouth when yawning or coughing. 16. Mother is talking to a man that wants to hire her to be a receptionist. a. Mother is talking to a man who wants to hire her to be a receptionist. b. Mother is talked to a man who wants to hire her to be a receptionist. c. Mother is talking to a man who wants to her. To be a receptionist. d. Mother is talking to a man hiring her who to be a receptionist.17. Those comic books, which was for sale at the magazine shop, are now quite valuable. a. Those comics books which were for sale, at the magazine shop are now quite valuable. b. Those comic books, which were for sale at the magazine, shop, are now quite valuable. c. Those comic books, which were for sale at the magazine shop, are now, quite valuable d. Those comic books, which were for sale at the magazine shop, are now quite valuable. 18. If you want to sell your car, it’s important being honest with the buyer. a. If you want to sell your car, being honest with the buyer is important. b. If you want to sell your car, to be honest with the buyer is important. c. If you wanting to sell your car, being honest with the buyer are important. d. If you want to selling your car, to be honest with the buyer is important. 19. Although today the boy was nice to my brother, they usually was quite mean to him. a. Although today the boy was nice to my brother, they were usually quite mean to him. b. Although today the boy was nice to my brother, he was usually quite mean to him. c. Although today the boy were nice to my brother, he is usually quite mean to him. d. Although today the boy was nice to my brother, he were usually quite mean to him. Combine The Separate Sentences Into One Simpler Sentence With The Same Meaning. 20. The customers were impatient for the store to open. The customers rushed inside as soon as the doors were open. a. Although the customers were impatient for the store to open, the doors were opened as soon as the customers rushed inside. b. Although the doors were opened before customers rushed inside, the customers were impatient for the store to open. c. The customers, who were impatient for the store to open, rushed inside as soon as the doors were open. d. Although the doors were opened by impatient customers, they rushed inside before the store was open. 21. I should enter my dog in a dog pageant. Everyone says that my dog, whose name is Skipper, is the most beautiful one they’ve ever seen.” a. Because my dog’s name is Skipper, my dog was entered in the pageant and everyone said he was the mot beautiful dog that they’ve ever seen. b. I should enter my dog in a dog pageant, since everyone says that Skipper is the most beautiful dog they’ve ever seen. c. Before I entered my dog in the dog pageant, Skipper said that he was the most beautiful dog that he’d ever seen. d. Skipper entered my dog in the dog pageant because he was the most beautiful one that anyone had ever seen.22. The doctor was not looking forward to meeting Mrs. Lucas. The doctor would have to tell Mrs. Lucas that she has cancer. The doctor hated giving bad news to patients. a. The doctor hated giving bad news, and so he was not looking forward to meeting Mrs. Lucas because he would have to tell her that she has cancer. b. The doctor has cancer and was not looking forward to meeting Mrs. Lucas and telling her this bad news. c. Before the doctor met Mrs. Lucas, he had to give his the patients the bad news that Mrs. Lucas has cancer. d. The doctor was not looking forward to giving the bad news to his patients that he had to tell Mrs. Lucas that his patients have cancer. 23. Mom hates shopping. We were out of bread, milk and eggs. Mom went to the supermarket. a. Because we were out of bread, milk and eggs, Mom hated shopping at the supermarket. b. Although she hates shopping, Mom went to the supermarket since we were out of bread, milk and eggs. c. Although we were out of bread, milk and eggs, Mom still hated shopping at the supermarket and went there anyway. d. Because Mom hated shopping at the supermarket, she went to there to buy her bread, milk and eggs. 24. I hate needles. I want to give blood. I can’t give blood. a. Although I hate needles, I can’t give blood even even if I wanted to. b. Because I hate needles, I can’t give blood, although I want to. c. Whenever I hate needles, I give blood although I can’t give blood. d. Whenever I can’t give blood, I give blood anyway, although I hate needles. Section III – Vocabulary Vocabulary 1. NOUN Use of too many words. 1. Verbiage 2. Outspoken 3. Inveigh 4. Precarious 2. NOUN An aide or assistant. 1. Attache 2. Influx 3. Mien4. Knoll 3. VERB To cause or inflict especially related to harm or injury. 1. Wreak 2. Mandible 3. Tremulous 4. Juxtapose 4. ADJECTIVE Foolish, without understanding. 1. Coinage 2. Witless 3. Distinctive 4. Nullify 5. ADJECTIVE Strong fear of strangers. 1. Xenophobia 2. Agoraphobia 3. Frightful 4. Genteel 6. NOUN Highest point, highest state or peak. 1. Towering 2. Flickers 3. Zenith 4. Grouse 7. NOUN Light wind or gentle breeze. 1. Sea-breeze 2. Scuttle 3. Zephyr 4. Freight 8. NOUN Self evident or clear obvious truth. 1. Truism 2. Catharsis 3. Libertine 4. Tractable9. ADJECTIVE Beyond what is obvious or evident. 1. Ulterior 2. Sybarite 3. Torsion 4. Trenchant 10. ADJECTIVE Tasteless or bland. 1. Obstinate 2. Morose 3. Inculpate 4. Vapid 11. NOUN homeless child or stray. 1. Elegy 2. Waif 3. Martyr 4. Palaver 12. VERB Complaint or criticism. 1. Obsequies 2. Whine 3. Opprobrious 4. Panacea 13. NOUN Subordinate of lesser rank or authority. 1. Palliate 2. Plebeian 3. Underling 4. Expiate 14. NOUN A young animal that is between 1 and 2 years. 1. Yearling 2. Rogue 3. Gnostic 4. Billet 15. NOUN Lush green vegetation.1. Coquette 2. Verdure 3. Ennui 4. Lugubrious 16. NOUN A person who is very passionate and fanatic about his specific objectives or beliefs. 1. Plebeian 2. Zealot 3. Progenitor 4. Iconoclast 17. NOUN Dizziness. 1. Indolence 2. Percipient 3. Vertigo 4. Tenacious 18. ADJECTIVE Obvious or easy to notice. 1. Important 2. Conspicuous 3. Beautiful 4. Convincing 19. NOUN Disposition to do good. 1. Happiness 2. Courage 3. Kindness 4. Benevolence 20. ADJECTIVE Full of energy; exuberant; noisy. 1. Boisterous 2. Soft 3. Gentle 4. Warm 21. VERB To fondle.1. Hold 2. Caress 3. Facilitate 4. Neuter 22. ADJECTIVE Outstanding in importance. 1. Momentous 2. Spurious 3. Extraordinary 4. Secede 23. NOUN An opponent or enemy. 1. Antagonist 2. Protagonist 3. Sophist 4. Pugilist 24. NOUN A keepsake; an object kept as a reminder of a place or event. 1. Monument 2. Memento 3. Recurrence 4. Catharsis 25. ADJECTIVE Producing harm in a stealthy, often gradual, manner. 1. Adulterate 2. Acquiesce 3. Insidious 4. Deceitful 26. Choose the best definition of obfuscate. 1. Deliberately make noisy 2. Deliberately make difficult 3. Deliberately make quiet 4. Talk about for a long time 27. Choose the best definition of plethora. 1. Too many2. Too few 3. A lot 4. A few 28. Choose the best definition of laceration. 1. A stripe 2. A mark 3. A scratch 4. A cut 29. Choose the best definition of enshroud. 1. Hold up 2. Cover 3. Wear 4. Take away 30. Choose the best definition of hasten. 1. To hurry 2. To climb 3. To fasten 4. To worry 31. Choose the best definition of pliable. 1. Rigid 2. Fixable 3. Bendable 4. None of the Above 32. Choose the best definition of blithe. 1. Skinny 2. Tall 3. Carefree 4. Lithe 33. Choose the best definition of rescind. 1. To take back 2. To give away3. To enforce 4. To straighten 34. Choose the best definition of headstrong. 1. Does not listen 2. Stubborn 3. Willing 4. To disbelieve 35. Choose the best definition of oblique. 1. Direct 2. Indirect 3. Sharp 4. Straight 36. Choose the best definition of temper. 1. To make worse 2. To aggravate 3. To soften 4. None of the Above 37. Choose the best definition of cryptic. 1. Building in a graveyard 2. Difficult to understand 3. Printed in code 4. None of the above 38. Choose the best definition of curtail. 1. To cut short 2. To arrive early 3. To lengthen 4. To give back 39. Choose the best definition of heed. 1. To ignore 2. To listen 3. To advise4. To pay 40. Choose the best definition of oblivious. 1. Far Away 2. Believable 3. Unbelievable 4. Totally unaware 41. Choose the best definition of podium. 1. Speaker 2. Raised platform 3. Brief lecture 4. None of the above 42. Choose the best definition of boorish. 1. Bad tempered 2. Bad mannered 3. Bad looking 4. Bad smelling 43. Choose the best definition of heresy. 1. Against the orthodox opinion 2. Same as the orthodox opinion 3. An unusual opinion 4. To have no opinion 44. Choose the best definition of respite. 1. A drink 2. Intermission 3. A rest stop on highways 4. An interval 45. Choose the best definition of regicide. 1. To endow or furnish with requisite ability 2. Killing a king 3. Disposed to seize by violence or by unlawful or greedy methods 4. To refresh after labor46. Choose the best definition of salient. 1. To make light by fermentation, as dough 2. Not stringent or energetic 3. Negligible 4. Worthy of note or relevant 47. Choose the best definition of sedentary. 1. Yellowing of the skin 2. Not moving or sitting in one a place 3. To wander from place to place 4. Perplexity 48. Choose the best definition of sedulous. 1. The support on or against which a lever rests 2. Dedicated and diligent 3. To oppose with an equal force 4. The branch of medical science that relates to improving health 49. Choose the best definition of tincture. 1. Alcoholic drink with plant extract used for medicine 2. An artificial trance-sleep 3. A special medicinal drink made by mixing water with plant extracts 4. The point of puncture 50. Choose the best definition of truism. 1. A comparison which directs the mind to the representative object itself 2. Self evident or clear obvious truth 3. A statement that is true but that can hardly be proved 4. False statements Section IV – Science – Biology and Chemistry 1. Which, if any, of the following statements about the respiratory system are true? a. The respiratory system consists of all the organs involved in breathing. b. Organs included in the respiratory system are the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs. c. The respiratory system conveys oxygen into our bodies and removes carbon dioxide fromour bodies. d. All of the Above. 2. The _________ system maintains the body’s balance through the release of ________ directly into the bloodstream. a. The gastrointestinal system maintains the body’s balance through the release of hormones directly into the bloodstream. b. The endocrine system maintains the body’s balance through the release of oxygen directly into the bloodstream. c. The digestive system maintains the body’s balance through the release of hormones directly into the bloodstream. d. The endocrine system maintains the body’s balance through the release of hormones directly into the bloodstream. 3. Among others, the endocrine system includes: a. The pituitary gland b. The thyroid gland c. The adrenal glands d. All of the Above. 4. ________ are contractile organs that cause movement when stimulated; the three types are _____, _____, and _______. a. Muscles are expansion organs that cause movement when stimulated; the three types are smooth, cardiac, and skeletal. b. Muscles are contractile organs that cause movement when stimulated; the three types are smooth, cardiac, and skeletal. c. Muscles are contractile organs that cause movement when stimulated; the three types are semipermeable, cardiac, and skeletal. d. Muscles are contractile organs that cause movement when stimulated; the three types are respiratory, cardiac, and skeletal. 5. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? a. Providing the shape and form of our bodies b. Supporting and protecting the body c. Producing Blood d. Storing vitamins 6. What is the number of bones included in the human skeletal system? a. 412 b. 103 c. Over 300 d. 2067. _______ are connected to ____ by ______, and ______ are connected to each other by ______. a. Muscles are connected to bones by tendons, and bones are connected to each other by ligaments. b. Tendons are connected to bones by ligaments, and bones are connected to each other by tendons. c. Muscles are connected to bones by ligaments, and bones are connected to each other by tendons. d. Ligaments are connected to bones by tendons, and bones are connected to each other by bands. 8. The ________ consists of all the organs involved in the formation and release of urine and includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra. a. The digestive system consists of all the organs involved in the formation and release of urine and includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra. b. The reproductive system consists of all the organs involved in the formation and release of urine and includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra. c. The renal system consists of all the organs involved in the formation and release of urine and includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra. d. The kidney system consists of all the organs involved in the formation and release of urine and includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra. 9. __________ is a classification of organisms into different categories based on their physical characteristics and presumed natural relationship. a. Biology b. Taxonomy c. Grouping d. Nomenclature 10. The order of the hierarchy of levels in the biological classification of organisms is: a. Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species b. Phylum, kingdom, class, order, family, genus, and species c. Order, phylum, class, kingdom, family, genus, and species d. Kingdom, phylum, order, class, family, genus, and species 11. Which, if any, of the following statements about the biosphere are correct? a. The biosphere is the part of the Earth that supports life. b. The biosphere encompasses the Earth’s entire surface. c. A and B are correct. d. None of these statements are correct. 12. Tundra, savannas, grasslands, deserts and rainforests are examples of ________.a. Biomasses b. Biospheres c. Biodiversity d. Biomes 13. The mixture of gases surrounding a planet is its ________________. a. Atmosphere b. Stratosphere c. Biosphere d. Troposphere 14. In order, from lower to upper, the layers of the atmosphere are: a. Exosphere, thermosphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, troposphere b. Troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, exosphere c. Mesosphere, troposphere, stratosphere, , thermosphere, exosphere d. Thermosphere, troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, , exosphere 15. The force per unit area exerted against a surface by the weight of air above that surface in the Earth’s atmosphere is the __________ _________. a. Gravitational force b. Atmospheric pressure c. Barometric density d. Aneroid pressure 16. Which, if any, of the following statements are true? a. Water boils at approximately 100 °C (212 °F) at standard atmospheric pressure. b. The boiling point is the temperature at which the vapor pressure is higher than the atmospheric pressure around the water. c. Water boils at a lower temperature in areas of lower pressure. d. A and C are true. 17. ___ _________ _______ is the effect of the Earth’s rotation on the atmosphere and on all objects on the Earth’s surface. a. The Coriolis effect b. The Corona effect c. The Archimedes effect d. The tidal effect 18. Binding membrane of an animal cell is called, a. Biological membrane b. Cell coat c. Unit membraned. Plasma membrane 19. The segment of a DNA molecule that determines the amino acid sequence of protein is known as ____? a. Operator gene b. Structural gene c. Regulator gene d. Modifier gene 20. Cells that line the inner or outer surfaces of organs or body cavities are often linked together by intimate physical connections. These connections are referred to as____ a. Separate desmosomes b. Ronofilaments c. Tight junctions d. Fascia adherenes 21. Which one of the following best describes the function of a cell membrane? a. It controls the substances entering and leaving the cell. b. It keeps the cell in shape. c. It controls the substances entering the cell. d. It supports the cell structures 22. Which of the following arrangement is seen in the plasma membrane? a. Lipids with embedded proteins b. An outer lipid layer and an inner lipid layer c. Proteins embedded in lipid bilayer d. Altering protein and lipid layers 23. Genes control heredity in man and other organisms. This gene is ___ a. A segment of DNA b. A bead like structure on the chromosomes c. A protein molecule d. A segment of RNA 24. A(an) ________ ________ is a description of a ________ _______ that gives the chemical formulas of the reactants and the________ of the reaction, with coefficients introduced so that the number of each type of atom and the total charge is _________ by the reaction. a. A balanced comparison is a description of a biological reaction that gives the chemical formulas of the reactants and the consequences of the reaction, with coefficients introduced so that the number of each type of atom and the total charge is unchanged by the reaction. b. A reactant chemical equation is a description of a chemical reaction that gives the chemicalformulas of the reactants and the products of the reaction, with coefficients introduced so that the number of each type of atom and the total charge is unchanged by the reaction. c. A balanced equation is a description of a chemical reaction that gives the chemical formulas of the reactants and the products of the reaction, with coefficients introduced so that the number of each type of atom and the total charge is changed by the reaction. d. A balanced equation is a description of a chemical reaction that gives the chemical formulas of the reactants and the products of the reaction, with coefficients introduced so that the number of each type of atom and the total charge is unchanged by the reaction. 25. ________ bonds involve a complete sharing of electrons and occurs most commonly between atoms that have partially filled outer shells or energy levels. a. Covalent b. Ionic c. Hydrogen d. Proportional 26. The reaction of elements with low electronegativity(almost empty outer shells) with elements with high electronegativity (mostly full outer shells) gives rise to _________ bonds. a. Hydrogen b. Covalent c. Ionic d. Nuclear 27. __________ bonds involve electrons that are not equally shared, and may be deemed as an intermediate between the extremes represented by ________ and _________ bonds. a. Ionic bonds involve electrons that are not equally shared, and may be deemed as an intermediate between the extremes represented by covalent and polar bonds. b. Covalent bonds involve electrons that are not equally shared, and may be deemed as an intermediate between the extremes represented by polar and ionic bonds. c. Chemical bonds involve electrons that are not equally shared, and may be deemed as an intermediate between the extremes represented by covalent and ionic bonds. d. Polar bonds involve electrons that are not equally shared, and may be deemed as an intermediate between the extremes represented by covalent and ionic bonds. 28. ___________ ________ involve an especially strong dipole-dipole force between molecules, and are responsible for the unique properties of water and pin DNA into its characteristic shape. a. Oxygen links b. Hydrogen bonds c. Nitrogen bonds d. Dipolar bonds29. ________________ predicts that the solubility (C) of a gas or volatile substance in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure (P) of the substance over the liquid (P = k C). a. Boyle’s law b. Gay-Lussac’s Law c. Henry’s law d. Charles’ law 30. ____________ states that the pressure of an ideal gas is inversely proportional to its volume, if the temperature and amount of gas are held constant. a. Henry’s law b. Dalton’s law c. Brown’s law d. Boyle’s law 31. Which of the following statements, if any, are correct? a. pH is a measure of effective concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution, and is approximately related to the molarity of H+ by pH = - log [H+] b. pH is a measure of effective concentration of oxygen ions in a solution, and is approximately related to the molarity of O+ by pH = - log [O+] c. pH is a measure of effective concentration of hydrogen atoms in a solution, and is approximately related to the polarity of H+ by pH = - log [H+] d. Acidity is a measure of effective concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution, and is approximately related to the molarity of H+ by pH = - log [H+] 32. Four factors that affect rates of reaction are: a. Barometric pressure, particle size, concentration, and the presence of a facilitator b. Temperature, particle size, concentration, and the presence of a catalyst c. Temperature, container material, elevation, and the presence of instability d. Volatility, particle size, concentration, and the presence of a catalyst 33. One factor that affects rates of reaction is concentration. Which of these statements about concentration is/are correct? a. A higher concentration of reactants causes more effective collisions per unit time, leading to an increased reaction rate. b. A lower concentration of reactants causes more effective collisions per unit time, leading to an increased reaction rate. c. A higher concentration of reactants causes more effective collisions per unit time, leading to a decreased reaction rate. d. A higher concentration of reactants causes less effective collisions per unit time, leading to an increased reaction rate.34. ______________ is expressed by the equation: Ptot = Pa + Pb, whereby P is pressure, Ptot is total pressure, Pa and Pb are component pressures. a. Henry’s law b. Dalton’s law c. Boyle’s law d. Gay-Lussac’s law 35. A/an __________ is an element with both metallic and non-metallic properties. Examples are silicon, arsenic, and germanium. 1. Metalloid 2. Conglomerate 3. Semi-metal 4. Amalgamate 36. Which, if any, of these statements about solubility are correct? a. The solubility of a substance is its concentration in a saturated solution. b. Substances with solubilities much less than 1 g/100 mL of solvent are usually considered insoluble. c. A saturated solution is one which does not dissolve any more solute. d. All of these statements are correct. 37. Which, if any, of the following statements are false? a. In an endothermic process, solubility increases with the increase in temperature and decreases if the temperature decreases. b. In an exothermic process, solubility decreases with an increase in temperature. c. All of the Above. d. None of the Above. 38. ______________ is the spontaneous, random movement of small particles suspended in liquid, caused by the unbalanced impacts of molecules on the particle. a. Brownian motion b. Grey’s kinesis c. Boyle’s wave d. None of the above 39. ___________ is defined as the number of cycles of a wave that move past a fixed observation point per second. a. Wave b. Wavelength c. Frequencyd. Wavefunction 40. ____________ is defined as the distance between adjacent peaks (or adjacent troughs) on a wave. a. Frequency b. Wavenumber c. Wave oscillation d. Wavelength 41. ________________ is a mathematical function that gives the amplitude of a wave as a function of position (and sometimes, as a function of time and/or electron spin). a. Wavelength b. Frequency c. Wavenumber d. Wavefunction 42. In the periodic table the elements are arranged in a. Order of increasing atomic number b. Alphabetical order c. Order of increasing metallic properties d. Order of increasing neutron content 43. A molecule of water contains hydrogen and oxygen in a 1:8 ratio by mass. This is a statement of __________. a. The law of multiple proportions b. The law of conservation of mass c. The law of conservation of energy d. The law of constant composition 44. Different isotopes of a particular element contain the same number of __________. a. Protons b. Neutrons c. Protons and neutrons d. Protons, neutrons and electrons 45. The s block and p block elements are collectively known as _____? a. Transition elements b. Active elements c. Representative elements d. Inactive elements 46. Who was the English scientist who made accurate observations on how pressure and volume are related?a. Charles b. Combine c. Boyle d. Gay-Lussac 47. When pressure on a gas is reduced to half what happens to its volume? 1. The volume stays the same 2. The volume decreases 3. The volume rises then falls 4. The volume increases 48. What is the standard temperature in Kelvin? 1. 25 Kelvin 2. 273 Kelvin 3. 0 kelvin 4. 373 Kelvin 49. Real gases approach ideal behavior under which of the following conditions? a. At high pressure and high temperature b. At low pressure and high temperature c. Near the boiling point of water d. Real gases can never exhibit ideal behavior 50. The temperature and volume of a gas are directly related. This is a statement of: a. Combined Gas Law b. Boyle’s Law c. Charles’ Law d. The Ideal Gas Law Anatomy and Physiology 1. The names of the three layers of skin are, a. Proton, neuron, nucleus. b. Epidural, Mitochondria, chromosome c. Inner, outer, local d. Epidermis, dermis and sub dermis. 2. Which sub-layer of skin gives it flexibility? a. The dermis b. Epidermisc. Subdermis d. Dermatology 3. An example of a minor ailment of the integumentary system is, a. Skin cancer b. Acne c. Common cold d. Flu 4. An example of a serious ailment of the integumentary system is a. Acne b. Skin cancer c. Heart disease d. High blood pressure 5. Which body system is comprised mostly of bones? a. Respiratory b. Endocrine c. Musculoskeletal d. Integumentary 6. Joints are an example of what within the musculoskeletal system? a. Bone tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscles d. Nerves 7. One of the primary purposes of the musculoskeletal system is a. Providing stability to the body. b. Distributing blood. c. Providing infection-control. d. Eliminating waste. 8. Another primary purpose of the musculoskeletal system is a. Moving oxygen. b. Cleansing the blood stream. c. Relaxing the mind. d. Providing form for the body 9. What makes it sometimes difficult to diagnose an ailment within the musculoskeletal system? a. Bones resist X-rays.b. There are no diseases associated with the musculoskeletal system. c. Its close proximity to other organs within the body. d. Its distant proximity away from other organs within the body. 10. What is cartilage? a. A flexible, connective tissue that keeps bones from rubbing against each other. b. The material that comprises the brain. c. A part of human blood responsible for fighting infection. d. Another name for the femur. 11. What is osteoporosis? a. A brain disorder that moves to the leg bones. b. A condition in which nerves become fragile. c. An ailment in which muscles deteriorate. d. An ailment in which bones become fragile because of loss of tissue 12. Marfan syndrome is an example of an ailment that, rather than affecting the bones themselves, afflicts a. The muscles. b. The nerves. c. The heart. d. The connective tissue. 13. Which system can be thought of as the blood distribution system? a. Digestive system. b. Musculoskeletal system. c. Endocrine system. d. Circulatory system 14. ________________ are examples of nutrients passed along via the circulatory system. a. Citric acids b. Amino acids c. Proteins d. Nuclei 15. Other than blood, what else moves through the circulatory system? a. Traces of bone b. Sweat c. Lymph d. Mercury16. What are the main components of the circulatory system? a. The heart, veins and blood vessels. b. The heart, brain, and ears. c. The nose, throat and ears. d. The lungs, stomach, and kidneys. 17. Which disease of the circulatory system is one of the most frequent causes of death in North America? a. The cold b. Pneumonia c. Arthritis d. Heart disease 18. One disease of the circulatory system which is often mistakenly thought to be a heart attack is a. Cardiac arrest b. High blood pressure c. Angina d. Acid reflux 19. What is a more common name for the circulatory system disease known as hypertension? a. Anemia b. High blood pressure c. Angina d. Cardiac arrest 20. A condition in which the heart beats too fast, too slow, or with an irregular beat is called a. Hypertension b. Angina c. Cardiac arrest d. Arrythmia 21. What is the respiratory system? a. The system that brings oxygen into the body and expels carbon dioxide from the body. b. The system that sends blood to and from the heart. c. The system that processes food that enters the body. d. The system that expels urine from the body. 22. Which of the following is an example of an important component of the respiratory system?a. The cornea b. The lungs c. The kidneys d. The stomach 23. The exchange of oxygen for carbon dioxide takes place in the alveolar area of a. The throat b. The ears c. The appendix d. The lungs 24. The part of the body that initiates inhalation is a. The lungs b. The diaphragm c. The larynx d. The kidneys 25. Exhalation generally uses the a. Abdominal muscles b. Chest muscles. c. The esophagus. d. The nasal passageway. Practice Test Questions Set II Answer Key 1. B We can infer an important part of the respiratory system are the lungs. From the passage, “Molecules of oxygen and carbon dioxide are passively exchanged, by diffusion, between the gaseous external environment and the blood. This exchange process occurs in the alveolar region of the lungs.” Therefore, one of the primary functions for the respiratory system is the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, and this process occurs in the lungs. We can therefore infer that the lungs are an important part of the respiratory system. 2. C The process by which molecules of oxygen and carbon dioxide are passively exchanged is diffusion. This is a definition type question. Scan the passage for references to “oxygen,” “carbon dioxide,” or “exchanged.” 3. A The organ that plays an important role in gas exchange in amphibians is the skin. Scan the passage for references to “amphibians,” and find the answer.4. A The three physiological zones of the respiratory system are Conducting, transitional, respiratory zones. 5. B This warranty does not cover a product that you have tried to fix yourself. From paragraph two, “This limited warranty does not cover … any unauthorized disassembly, repair, or modification. “ 6 . C ABC Electric could either replace or repair the fan, provided the other conditions are met. ABC Electric has the option to repair or replace. 7. B The warranty does not cover a stove damaged in a flood. From the passage, “This limited warranty does not cover any damage to the product from improper installation, accident, abuse, misuse, natural disaster, insufficient or excessive electrical supply, abnormal mechanical or environmental conditions.” A flood is an “abnormal environmental condition,” and a natural disaster, so it is not covered. 8. A A missing part is an example of defective workmanship. This is an error made in the manufacturing process. A defective part is not considered workmanship. 9. B The first paragraph tells us that myths are a true account of the remote past. The second paragraph tells us that, “myths generally take place during a primordial age, when the world was still young, prior to achieving its current form.” Putting these two together, we can infer that humankind used myth to explain how the world was created. 10. A This passage is about different types of stories. First, the passage explains myths, and then compares other types of stories to myths. 11. B From the passage, “Unlike myths, folktales can take place at any time and any place, and the natives do not usually consider them true or sacred.” 12. B This question gives options with choices for the three different characteristics of myth and legend. The options are, True or not true Takes place in modern day About ordinary people For this type of question, where two things are compared for different characteristics, you caneasily eliminate wrong answers using only one of the choices. Take myths: myths are believed to be true, do not take place in modern day, and are not about ordinary people. Make a list as follows, True or not true - True Takes place in modern day - No About ordinary people - No Now check the options quickly. Option A is wrong (myths do not take place in modern day). Option B looks good. Put a check beside it. Option C is incorrect (myths are about ordinary people), and Option D is incorrect (myths are not true), so the answer must be Option B. 13. B This passage describes the different categories for traditional stories. The other options are facts from the passage, not the main idea of the passage. The main idea of a passage will always be the most general statement. For example, Option A, Myths, fables, and folktales are not the same thing, and each describes a specific type of story. This is a true statement from the passage, but not the main idea of the passage, since the passage also talks about how some cultures may classify a story as a myth and others as a folktale. The statement, from Option B, Traditional stories can be categorized in different ways by different people, is a more general statement that describes the passage. 14. B Option B is the best choice, categories that group traditional stories according to certain characteristics. Options A and C are false and can be eliminated right away. Option D is designed to confuse. Option D may be true, but it is not mentioned in the passage. 15. D The best answer is D, traditional stories themselves are a part of the larger category of folklore, which may also include costumes, gestures, and music. All of the other options are false. Traditional stories are part of the larger category of Folklore, which includes other things, not the other way around. 16. A There is a distinct difference between a myth and a legend, although both are folktales. 17. B The techniques for controlling insects are taken directly from the first sentence. 18. B The inference is humans control pests because they damage crops. 19. A Feeding on crops is the best choice, even though A and C are also correct. 20. A Choice A is a re-wording of text from the passage.21. B This is taken directly from the passage. 22. C Although trees are used as a building material, this is not their primary use. Trees are a primary energy source. 23. A This is taken directly from the passage. 24. D This question is designed to confuse by presenting different options for the two chemicals, oxygen and carbon dioxide. One is produced, and one is reduced. Read the passage carefully to see which is reduced and which is produced. 25. B The inference is botanists have not surveyed all of the tropical areas so they do not know the number of species. 26. A This is taken directly from the passage. 27. D Tree-ferns survived the Carboniferous period. This is a fact-based question about the Carboniferous period. “Carboniferous” is an unusual word, so the fastest way to answer this question is to scan the pas-sage for the word “Carboniferous” and find the answer. 28. B Here is the passage with the oldest to youngest trees. The earliest trees were [1] tree ferns and horsetails, which grew in forests in the Carboniferous period. Tree ferns still survive, but the only surviving horsetails are no longer in tree form. Later, in the Triassic period, [2] conifers and ginkgos, appeared, [3] followed by flowering plants after that in the Cretaceous period. 29. B The time limit for radar detectors is 14 days. Since you made the purchase 15 days ago, you do not qualify for the guarantee. 30. B Since you made the purchase 10 days ago, you are covered by the guarantee. Since it is an advertised price at a different store, ABC Electric will “beat” the price by 10% of the difference, which is, 500 – 400 = 100 – difference in price 100 X 10% = $10 – 10% of the difference The advertised lower price is $400. ABC will beat this price by 10% so they will refund $100 + 10 = $110. 31. B From the first paragraph, “The segments of the body are organized into three distinctiveconnected units, a head, a thorax, and an abdomen.” This question tries to confuse ‘segments’ and ‘units.’ 32. D This question tries to confuse. Read the passage carefully to find reference to the number of wings. “…if present in the species, two or four wings.” From this, we can conclude some insects have no wings, (if present … ) some have 2 wings and some have 4 wings. 33. A The question asks about the abdomen and choices refer to organs in the abdomen. The passage says, “The abdomen also contains most of the digestive, respiratory, … “ The choices are, a. It contains some of the organs. b. It is too small for any organs. c. It contains all of the organs. d. None of the above. Choice A is true, but we need to see if there is better choice before answering. Choice B is not true. Choice C is not true since the relevant sentence says ‘most’ not ‘all.’ Choice D can be eliminated since Choice A is true. Given there is not better choice, Choice A is the best choice answer. 34. A We can infer that an important purpose of the circulatory system is that of fighting diseases. 35. A Humans have an open circulatory system. 36. C In addition to blood, the heart and the blood vessels form the cardiovascular system. 37. B The digestive system, along with the circulatory system, helps provide nutrients to keep the human heart pumping. 38. A We can infer that blood is responsible for transporting oxygen to the cells. 39. A Human blood cells suspended in Plasma. 40. C Calcium is not contained in blood plasma. From the passage, “[Blood Plasma] contains dissolved proteins, glucose, mineral ions, hormones, carbon dioxide, platelets and the blood cells themselves.” 41. A The lungs exhale the carbon dioxide after venous blood has been carried from body tissues. 42. A The main idea of this passage is that the human skeleton is an important and complicated system of the body. We can infer the skeleton is important because it protects important organs like brain, lungs and heart. We know the skeleton is complicated because it consists of a number of parts, (ligaments, tendons, muscles and cartilage) and 206 bones.This general statement best describes the passage. The other choices are details mentioned in the passage. 43. A There are three bones are located in the human middle ear. This is a fact-based question taken directly from the passage. 44. B The number of bones stays the same throughout one’s lifetime is not true. From the passage, “There are 206 bones in the adult human skeleton, which varies between individuals and with age.” 45. D The appendicular skeleton attached to the axial skeleton. This is a fact-based question. Section II – Math 1. D 8327 – 1278 = 7049 2. B 294 X 21 = 6174 3. C 1278 + 4920 = 6198 4. A 285 * 12 = 3420 5. C 4120 – 3216 = 904 6. D 2417 + 1004 = 3421 7. B 1440 ÷ 12 = 120 8. C 2713 – 1308 = 1405 9. D x2 +4x=5, x2+4x-5=0, x2+5x-x-5=0, factorize x(x+5)-1(x+5)=o, (x+5)(x-1)=0. x + 5 = 0 or x - 1 = 0, x = 0 - 5 or x = 0 + 1, x = -5 or x = 1, either b or c. 10. C Open parenthesis: 2a + 2b = 4ab, divide both sides by 2 = a+b=2ab or a+b=ab + ab, therefore a=ab and b=ab, therefore a=b. 11. B Let the XY represent the initial number, X + Y = 12, YX=XY+ 36, Only b = 48 satisfies both equations above from the given options. 12. A 13. B Let the father’s age=Y, and Kate’s age=X, therefore Y=32+X, in 5yrs y=5x,substituting for Y will be 5x = 32+X, 5x – x = 32, 4X=32,X= 32/8, x = 8, Kate will be 8 in 5 yrs time, so Kate’s present age = 8-5=3. 14. D15. A Let X represent the house, Sally paints X in 4hrs or ¼ X per 1hr or 60 minutes, John paints X in 6 hours or at 1/6X per 1hr or 60mins. Working together, they will paint 1/4x + 1/6x in 1hr or 60minutes = 10/24x = 5/12x every 60 minutes, to paint x = 60 minutes x 12/5 = 144 minutes or 2 hrs and 24 minutes. 16. D The cost of the dishwasher = $450, 15% discount = 15/100 x 450 = $67.5, The new price = 450 – 67.5 = $382.5, 20% discount on lowest price = 20/100 x 382.5 = $76.5, so the final price = $306. 17. D Original price = x, 80/100 = 12590/X, 80X = 1259000, X = 15737.50. 18. C Total hay = 214 kg, The goat eats at a rate of 214/60days = 3.6kg per day. The Cow eats at a rate of 214/15 = 14.3kg per day, Together they eat 3.6 + 14.3 = 17.9 per day. At a rate of 17.9kg per day, they will consume 214kg in 214/17.9 = 11.96 or 12 days approx. 19. A 25% = 25/100 = 1/4 20. C 125/100 = 1.25 21. D 40/100 = 30/X = 40X = 30*100 = 3000/40 = 75 22. B 12.5/100 = 50/X = 12.5X = 50 * 100 = 5000/12.5 = 400 23. C 24/56 = 3/7 (divide numerator and denominator by 8) 24. C Converting percent to decimal – divide percent by 100 and remove the % sign. 87% = 87/100 = .87 25. A 60 has the same relation to X as 75 to 100 – so 60/X = 75/100 6000 = 75X X = 80 26. D 60 has the same relationship to 100 as 12 does to X – so 60/100 = 12/X 1200 = 60X X = 20 27. C Converting a fraction into a decimal – divide the numerator by the denominator – so 71/1000 =.071. Dividing by 1000 moves the decimal point 3 places. 28. C 4.7 + .9 + .01 = 5.61 29. A .33 × .59 = .1947 30. D .84 ÷ .7 = 1.2 31. C 9 is in the ten thousandths place in 1.7389. 32. A .87 - .48 = .39 33. A Step 1: Set up the formula to calculate the dose to be given in mg as per weight of the child:- Dose ordered X Weight in Kg = Dose to be given Step 2: 100 mg X 23 kg = 2300 mg (Convert 50 lb to Kg, 1 lb = 0.4536 kg, hence 50 lb = 50 X 0.4536 = 22.68 kg approx. 23 kg) 2300 mg/230 mg X 1 tablet/1 = 2300/230 = 10 tablets 34. B 1000 units/5000 units X 1 ml/1 = 1000/5000 = 0.2 ml 35. C 4 x 4 x 4 = 64 36. D 5 ml/15 ml kX 1 tsp/1 = 5/15 = 0.3 tsp 37. B 70 mg/1000 mg X 1 ml/1 = 70/1000 – 0.07 ml (Convert 1 g = 1000 mg) 38. C 200 mg/400 mg X 1 tsp/1 = 200/400 = 0.5 tsp 39. D 600 mg/ 200 mg X 1 tablet/1 = 600/200 = 3 tablets 40. A At 100% efficiency 1 machine produces 1450/10 = 145 m of cloth. At 95% efficiency, 4 machines produce 4 X 0.95 X 145 = 551 m of cloth. At 90% efficiency, 6 machines produce 6 X 0.90 X 145 = 783 m of cloth. Total cloth produced = 551 + 783 = 1334 m 41. C 1 foot = 12 inches, 60 feet = 60 x 12 = 720 inches. 42. A 1 centimeter = 10 millimeter, 25 centimeter = 25 X 10 = 250. 43. A 1 millimeter = 10 centimeter, 100 millimeter = 100/10 = 10 centimeter. 44. C 1 gallon = 4 quarts, 3 gallons = 3 x 4 = 12 quarts. 45. A There are 1000 mm in a meter.46. B There are 1000 ml in a liter. 0.05/1000 = 0.00005 liters. 47. D There are 1000 mg in a gram. 30/1000 = 0.03 grams. 48. A There are 10 mm in a cm. 0.101/10 = .0101 49. B There are 52 cards in total. Smith has 16 cards in which he can win. Therefore, his probability of winning in a single game will be 16/52. Simon has 20 winning cards so his probability of winning in single draw is 20/52. 50. B The formula of the volume of cylinder is = π r2h Where π is 3.142, r is radius of the cross sectional area, and h is the height. So the volume will be = 3.142 × 2.52 × 12 = 235.65m3. 51. C The area of a 7 centimeter pizza is ∏(3.5)2 = 38.48 cm2 The weight of 1 cm2 of pizza will be 750/38.48 = 1949 grams The area of 8.2 cm diameter pizza is ∏(4.1)2 = 52.81 cm2. The difference in area is 52.81 – 38.48 = 14.33 cm2. The difference in weight will be 19.49 X 14.33 = 279.29 grams. Section IV – English Grammar 1. D The preposition “to” is correct. “To” here means give. 2. A “Lie” means to recline, and does not take an object. “lay” means to place and does take an object. 3. A Past unreal conditional. Takes the form, [If ... Past Perfect ..., ... would have + past participle ... ] 4. B This sentence is in the present tense, so “to find” is correct. 5. B The comma separates a phrase. 6. A Possessive pronouns ending in s take an apostrophe before the ‘s’: one’s; everyone’s; somebody’s, nobody else’s, etc. 7. D When talking about something that didn’t happen in the past, use the past perfect (if I had done). 8. C “Lie” means to recline, and does not take an object. “Lay” means to place and does take anobject. Peter lay the books on the table (the books are the direct object), or the telephone poles were lying on the road (no direct object). 9. A Titles of short stories are enclosed in quotation marks. 10. C No additional punctuation is required here. 11. B Here the word “sale” is used as a “word” and not as a word in the sentence, so quotation marks are used. 12. C Titles of short stories are enclosed in quotation marks, and commas always go inside quotation marks. 13. B “Ran well” is correct. “Ran good” is never correct. 14. D Commas and periods always go inside quotation marks. Question marks that are part of a quote also go inside quotation marks; however, if the writer quotes a statement as part of a larger question, the question mark is placed after the quotation mark. 15. D The sentence starts with a phrase, which is separated by a comma and then lists the things the speaker’s mother taught, to say thank you, etc. Each of the items in the list are separated by a comma. 16. A When referring to a person, use “who” instead of “that.” 17. A The comma separates a phrase starting with ‘which.’ 18. A “Being honest,” present tense is the best choice. “The buyer” is singular so use “is.” 19. C The subject in the first phrase, “the boy,” has to agree with the subject in the second phrase, “he is.” 20. C These two sentences can be combined into one sentence with 2 clauses separated by a comma. 21. B These two sentences can be combined and the phrase, ‘whose name is Skipper,’ deleted. 22. A These three sentences can be combined using ‘although,’ and ‘even if.’ 23. B These two sentences can be combined into one sentence with two clauses separated by a comma. 24. A These three sentences can be combined using ‘although,’ and ‘since.’ Section V - Vocabulary1. A Verbiage NOUN speech with too many words. 2. A Attache NOUN an aide or assistant. 3. A Wreak VERB to cause or inflict especially related to harm or injury. 4. B Witless ADJECTIVE foolish, without understanding. 5. A Xenophobia NOUN a strong fear of strangers. 6. C Zenith NOUN highest point, highest state or peak. 7. C Zephyr NOUN light wind or gentle breeze. 8. A Truism NOUN self evident or clear obvious truth. 9. A Ulterior ADJECTIVE beyond what is obvious or evident. 10. D Vapid ADJECTIVE tasteless or bland. 11. B Waif NOUN homeless child or stray. 12. B Whine VERB Complaint or criticism. 13. C Underling NOUN subordinate of lesser rank or authority. 14. A Yearling NOUN a young animal that is between 1 and 2 years. 15. B Verdure NOUN lush green vegetation. 16. B Zealot NOUN a person who is very passionate and fanatic about his specific objectives or beliefs. 17. C Vertigo NOUN dizziness. 18. B Conspicuous ADJECTIVE obvious or easy to notice. 19. DBenevolence NOUN disposition to do good. 20. A Boisterous ADJECTIVE full of energy; exuberant; noisy. 21. B Fondle VERB to touch or stroke. 22. A Momentous ADJECTIVE outstanding in importance. 23. A Antagonist NOUN an opponent or enemy. 24. B Memento NOUN a keepsake; an object kept as a reminder of a place or event. 25. C Insidious ADJECTIVE producing harm in a stealthy, often gradual, manner. 26. B Obfuscate VERB to deliberately make more confusing in order to conceal the truth. 27. A Plethora NOUN an excessive amount or number; an abundance. 28. D Laceration NOUN an irregular open wound caused by a blunt impact to soft tissue. 29. B Enshroud VERB to cover with (or as if with) a shroud. 30. A Hasten VERB to move in a quick fashion. 31. C Pliable ADJECTIVE soft, flexible, easily bent; formed, shaped or molded. 32. C Carefree ADJECTIVE indifferent, careless, showing a lack of concern. 33. A Rescind VERB to repeal, annul, or declare void; to take (something such as a rule or contract) out of effect. 34. B Headstrong ADJECTIVE determined to do as one pleases, and not as others want. 35. B Oblique ADJECTIVE not straightforward; indirect; obscure; hence, disingenuous; underhand; perverse; sinister. 36. C Temper VERB to moderate or control. 37. BCryptic ADJECTIVE mystified or of an obscure nature. 38. A Curtail VERB to shorten or abridge the duration of something; to truncate. 39. B Heed VERB to mind; to regard with care; to take notice of; to attend to; to observe. 40. D Oblivious ADJECTIVE lacking awareness; unmindful. 41. B Podium NOUN a platform on which to stand, as when conducting an orchestra or preaching at a pulpit. 42. B Boorish ADJECTIVE behaving as a boor; rough in manners; rude; uncultured. 43. A Heresy NOUN a controversial or unorthodox opinion held by a member of a group, as in politics, philosophy or science. 44. B Respite NOUN a brief interval of rest or relief. 45. B Regicide VERB to kill a king. 46. D Salient ADJECTIVE worthy of note or relevant. 47. B Sedentary ADJECTIVE not moving or sitting in one place. 48. B Sedulous ADJECTIVE dedicated and diligent. 49. A Tincture NOUN alcoholic drink with plant extract used for medicine. 50. B Truism NOUN self-evident or clear obvious truth. 9 Section IV – Science – Biology and Chemistry 1. D All of the statements are true. a. The respiratory system consists of all the organs involved in breathing. b. Organs included in the respiratory system are the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs.c. The respiratory system conveys oxygen into our bodies and removes carbon dioxide from our bodies. 2. D The endocrine system maintains the body’s balance through the release of hormones directly into the bloodstream. 3. D All of the above. The endocrine system includes: a. The pituitary gland b. The thyroid gland c. The adrenal glands 4. B Muscles are contractile organs that cause movement when stimulated; the three types are smooth, cardiac, and skeletal. 5. D Storing vitamins is not a function of the skeletal system. 6. D There are 206 bones in the skeletal system. 7. A Muscles are connected to bones by tendons, and ligaments connect bones to each other. Note: Muscles that cause movement of a joint are connected to two different bones and contract to pull them together. An example would be the contraction of the biceps and a relaxation of the triceps. This produces a bend at the elbow. The contraction of the triceps and relaxation of the biceps produces the effect of straightening the arm. 8. C The renal system consists of all the organs involved in the formation and release of urine and includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra. 9. B Taxonomy is a classification of organisms into different categories based on their physical characteristics and presumed natural relationship. 10. A The order of the hierarchy of levels in the biological classification of organisms is: Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species. 11. A and B are correct. a. The biosphere is the part of the Earth that supports life. c. The biosphere is limited to the waters of the Earth, a fraction of its crust and the lower regions of the atmosphere. 12. D Tundra, savannas, grasslands, deserts and rainforests are examples of biomes. 13. A The mixture of gases surrounding a planet is its atmosphere. 14. B In order, from lower to upper, the layers of the atmosphere are: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, exosphere. 15. BThe force per unit area exerted against a surface by the weight of air above that surface in the Earth’s atmosphere is the atmospheric pressure. 16. D A and C are correct. a. Water boils at approximately 100 °C (212 °F) at standard atmospheric pressure. c. Water boils at a lower temperature in areas of lower pressure. 17. A The Coriolis effect is the effect of the Earth’s rotation on the atmosphere and on all objects on the Earth’s surface. Note: In the northern hemisphere, the Coriolis effect causes moving objects and currents to be deflected to the right, while in the southern hemisphere, it causes deflection to the left. 18. D The plasma membrane surrounds the cell and functions as an interface between the living interior of the cell and the nonliving exterior.32 19. B DNA is a nucleic acid that contains the genetic instructions used in the development and functioning of all known living organisms (with the exception of RNA viruses). The DNA segments that carry this genetic information are called genes but other DNA sequences have structural purposes or are involved in regulating the use of this genetic information. Along with RNA and proteins DNA is one of the three major macromolecules that are essential for all known forms of life.33 20. C Tight junctions or zonula occludens are the closely associated areas of two cells whose membranes join forming a virtually impermeable barrier to fluid. It is a type of junctional complex present only in vertebrates. The corresponding junctions that occur in invertebrates are septate junctions.34 21. A The cell membrane is a biological membrane that separates the interior of all cells from the outside environment. The cell membrane is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules and controls the movement of substances in and out of cells35 22. C The plasma membrane or cell membrane protects the cell from outside forces. It consists of the lipid bilayer with embedded proteins. 23. A Genes are made from a long molecule called DNA, which is copied and inherited across generations. DNA is made of simple units that line up in a particular order within this large molecule. The order of these units carries genetic information similar to how the order of letters on a page carries information. The language used by DNA is called the genetic code that lets organisms read the information in the genes. This information is the instructions for constructing and operating a living organism. 24. D A balanced equation is a description of a chemical reaction that gives the chemical formulas of the reactants and the products of the reaction, with coefficients introduced so that the number of each type of atom and the total charge is unchanged by the reaction. Note: For example, a balanced equation for the reaction of sodium metal (Na(s)) with chlorinegas (Cl2(g)) to form table salt (NaCl(s)) would be 2 Na(s) + Cl2(g) = 2 NaCl(s), NOT Na(s) + Cl2(g) = NaCl(s).36 25. A Covalent bonds involve a complete sharing of electrons and occurs most commonly between atoms that have partially filled outer shells or energy levels. Note: Diamond is strong because it involves a vast network of covalent bonds between the carbon atoms in the diamond. 37 26. C The reaction of elements with low electronegativity(almost empty outer shells) with elements with high electronegativity (mostly full outer shells) gives rise to Ionic bonds. 27. D Polar bonds involve electrons that are not equally shared, and may be deemed as an intermediate between the extremes represented by covalent and ionic bonds. 28. B Hydrogen bonds involves an especially strong dipole-dipole force between molecules, and are responsible for the unique properties of water and pin DNA into its characteristic shape. 29. C Henry’s law predicts that the solubility (C) of a gas or volatile substance in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure (P) of the substance over the liquid (P = k C). 30. D Boyle’s law states that the pressure of an ideal gas is inversely proportional to its volume, if the temperature and amount of gas are held constant. Note: Doubling gas pressure halves gas volume, if temperature and amount of gas don’t change. If the initial pressure and volume are P1 and V1 and the final pressure and volume are P2V2, then P1V1 = P2V2 at fixed temperature and gas amount.38 31. A pH is a measure of effective concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution, and is approximately related to the molarity of H+ by pH = - log [H+] 32. B Four factors that affect rates of reaction are: Temperature, particle size, concentration, and the presence of a catalyst. 33. A A higher concentration of reactants causes more effective collisions per unit time, leading to an increased reaction rate. 34. B Dalton’s law is expressed by the equation: Ptot = Pa + Pb, whereby P is pressure, Ptot is total pressure, Pa and Pb are component pressures. 35. A A Metalloid is an element with both metallic and non-metallic properties. Examples are silicon, arsenic, and germanium. 36. D All of these statements are correct. 37. CAll of the Above are false. 38. A Brownian motion is the spontaneous, random movement of small particles suspended in liquid, caused by the unbalanced impacts of molecules on the particle. Note: The discovery of Brownian motion provided strong circumstantial evidence for the existence of molecules.39 39. C Frequency is defined as the number of cycles of a wave that move past a fixed observation point per second. Note: The SI unit of frequency is the Hertz (Hz). 40. D Wavelength is defined as the distance between adjacent peaks (or adjacent troughs) on a wave. Note: Varying the wavelength of light changes its color; varying the wavelength of sound changes its pitch.40 41. D Wavefunction is a mathematical function that gives the amplitude of a wave as a function of position (and sometimes, as a function of time and/or electron spin). Note: Wavefunctions are used in chemistry to represent the behavior of electrons bound in atoms or molecules.41 42. A The periodic table of the chemical elements (also known as the periodic table or periodic table of the elements) is a tabular display of the 118 known chemical elements organized by selected properties of their atomic structures. Elements are presented by increasing atomic number, the number of protons in an atom’s atomic nucleus. 42 43. D In chemistry, the law of definite proportions, sometimes called Proust’s Law, states that a chemical compound always contains exactly the same proportion of elements by mass. An equivalent statement is the law of constant composition, which states that all samples of a given chemical compound have the same elemental composition. 43 44. A Isotopes are variants of atoms of a particular chemical element that have differing numbers of neutrons. 45. C In chemistry and atomic physics, main group elements are elements in groups (periodic columns) whose lightest members are represented by helium, lithium, beryllium, boron, carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, and fluorine as arranged in the periodic table of the elements. Main group elements include elements (except hydrogen) in groups 1 and 2 (s-block), and groups 13 to 18 (p-block). 44 46. A Jacques Charles was a French chemist famous for his experiments in ballooning. Instead of hot air, he used hydrogen gas to fill balloons that could stay a float longer and travel farther. 47. DBoyle’s law (sometimes referred to as the Boyle-Mariotte law) is one of many gas laws and a special case of the ideal gas law. Boyle’s law describes the inversely proportional relationship between the absolute pressure and volume of a gas, if the temperature is kept constant within a closed system. 45 48. B Standard temperature = 273 Kelvin 49. A Real gases approach ideal behavior at high pressure and high temperature. 50. C Charles’s Law, or the law of volumes, was found in 1678. It says that, for an ideal gas at constant pressure, the volume is directly proportional to the absolute temperature (in kelvins).46 Section VI – Anatomy and Physiology 1. D The human skin (integumentary) is composed of a minimum of 3 major layers of tissue, the Epidermis, the Dermis and Hypodermis. 2. A The dermis is the middle layer of skin, composed of dense irregular connective tissues such as collagen with elastin arranged in a diffusely bundled and woven pattern. These layers serve to give elasticity to the integument, allowing stretching and conferring flexibility, while also resisting distortions, wrinkling, and sagging. 3. B Acne is an example of a minor ailment of the integumentary system. 4. B Skin cancer is an example of a serious ailment of the integumentary system. 5. C Musculoskeletal is a body system comprised mostly of the bones. 6. B Joints are an example of connective tissue within the musculoskeletal system. 7. A One of the primary purposes of the musculoskeletal system is providing stability to the body. 8. D Another primary purpose of the musculoskeletal system is providing form for the body. 9. C It is difficult to diagnose an ailment within the musculoskeletal system because of its close proximity to other organs within the body. 10. A Cartilage is a flexible connective tissue found in many areas in the bodies of humans and other animals, including the joints between bones, the rib cage, the ear, the nose, the elbow, the knee, the ankle, the bronchial tubes and the intervertebral discs. It is not as hard and rigid as bone but is stiffer and less flexible than muscle.11. D Osteoporosis is a disease of bones that leads to an increased risk of fracture. In osteoporosis the bone mineral density (BMD) is reduced, bone micro-architecture is deteriorating, and the amount and variety of proteins in bone is altered. The disease may be classified as primary type 1, primary type 2, or secondary 12. D Marfan syndrome (also called Marfan’s syndrome) is a genetic disorder of the connective tissue. People with Marfan’s tend to be unusually tall, with long limbs and long, thin fingers. 13. D The circulatory system can be thought of as the blood distribution system. 14. B The circulatory system is an organ system that passes nutrients (such as amino acids, electrolytes and lymph), gases, hormones, blood cells, etc. to and from cells in the body to help fight diseases and help stabilize body temperature and pH to maintain homeostasis. 15. C The circulatory system is an organ system that passes nutrients (such as amino acids, electrolytes and lymph), gases, hormones, blood cells, etc. to and from cells in the body to help fight diseases and help stabilize body temperature and pH to maintain homeostasis.29 16. A The main components of the circulatory system are the heart, veins and blood vessels. 17. D The circulatory system disease that is one of the most frequent causes of death in North America is heart disease. 18. C Angina is frequently mistaken for a heart attack. Angina pectoris, commonly known as angina, is severe chest pain due to ischemia (a lack of blood, thus a lack of oxygen supply) of the heart muscle, generally due to obstruction or spasm of the coronary arteries (the heart’s blood vessels). 19. B High blood pressure is a more common name for the circulatory system disease known as hypertension. Hypertension (HTN) or high blood pressure is a cardiac chronic medical condition in which the systemic arterial blood pressure is elevated. 20. D Cardiac dysrhythmia (also known as arrhythmia and irregular heartbeat) is a term for any of a large and heterogeneous group of conditions in which there is abnormal electrical activity in the heart. The heartbeat may be too fast or too slow, and may be regular or irregular. 21. A The respiratory system is the anatomical system of an organism that introduces respiratory gases to the interior and performs gas exchange. The anatomical features of the respiratory system include airways, lungs, and the respiratory muscles. Molecules of oxygen and carbon dioxide are passively exchanged, by diffusion, between the gaseous external environment and the blood. This exchange process occurs in the alveolar region of the lungs. 33 22. B The Lungs are an important component of the respiratory system.23. D The exchange of oxygen for carbon dioxide takes place in the alveolar area of the lungs. 24. B The thoracic diaphragm, or simply the diaphragm, is a sheet of internal skeletal muscle that extends across the bottom of the rib cage. The diaphragm separates the thoracic cavity (heart, lungs & ribs) from the abdominal cavity and performs an important function in respiration. 25. A Exhalation is often accomplished by the abdominal muscles.M How to Prepare for a Test OST STUDENTS HIDE THEIR HEADS AND PROCRASTINATE WHEN FACED WITH PREPARING FOR AN EXAMINATION, HOPING THAT SOMEHOW THEY WILL BE SPARED THE AGONY OF TAKING THAT TEST, ESPECIALLY IF IT IS A BIG ONE THAT THEIR FUTURES RELY ON. Avoiding the all-important test is what many students do best and unfortunately, they suffer the consequences because of their lack of preparation. Test preparation requires strategy. It also requires a dedication to getting the job done. It is the perfect training ground for anyone planning a professional life. In addition to having a number of reliable strategies, the wise student also has a clear goal in mind and knows how to accomplish it. These tried and true concepts have worked well and will make your test preparation easier. The Study Approach. Take responsibility for your own test preparation. It is a common- but big - mistake to link your studying to someone else’s. Study partners are great, but only if they are reliable. It is your job to be prepared for the test, even if a study partner fails you. Do not allow others to distract you from your goals. Prioritize the time available to study. When do you learn best, early in the day or in the dark of night? Does your mind absorb and retain information most efficiently in small blocks of time, or do you require long stretches to get the most done? It is important to figure out the best blocks of time available to you when you can be the most productive. Try to consolidate activities to allow for longer periods of study time. Find a quiet place where you will not be disturbed. Do not try to squeeze in quality study time in any old location. Find someplace peaceful and with a minimum of distractions, such as the library, a park or even the laundry room. Good lighting is essential and you need to have comfortable seating and a desk surface large enough to hold your materials. It is probably not a great idea to study in your bedroom. You might be distracted by clothes on the floor, a book you have been planning to read, the telephone or something else. Besides, in the middle of studying, that bed will start to look very comfortable. Whatever you do, avoid using the bed as a place to study since you might fall asleep as a way of avoiding your work! That is the last thing you should be doing during study time. The exception is flashcards. By far the most productive study time is sitting down and studying and studying only. However, with flashcards you can carry them with you and make use of odd moments, like standing in line or waiting for the bus. This isn’t as productive, but it really helps and is definitely worth doing. Determine what you need in order to study. Gather together your books, your notes, your laptop and any other materials needed to focus on your study for this exam. Ensure you have everything you need so you don’t waste time. Remember paper, pencils and erasers, sticky notes, bottled water and a snack. Keep yourphone with you in case you need it to find out essential information, but keep it turned off so others can’t distract you. Have a positive attitude. It is essential that you approach your studies for the test with an attitude that says you will pass it. And pass it with flying colors! This is one of the most important keys to successful study strategy. Believing that you are capable actually helps you to become capable. THE STRATEGY OF STUDYING Make materials easy to review and access. Consolidate materials to help keep your study area clutter free. If you have a laptop and a means of getting on line, you do not need a dictionary and thesaurus as well since those things are easily accessible via the internet. Go through written notes and consolidate those, as well. Have everything you need, but do not weigh yourself down with duplicates. Review class notes. Stay on top of class notes and assignments by reviewing them frequently. Re-writing notes can be a terrific study trick, as it helps lock in information. Pay special attention to any comments that have been made by the teacher. If a study guide has been made available as part of the class materials, use it! It will be a valuable tool to use for studying. Estimate how much time you will need. If you are concerned about the amount of time you have available it is a good idea to set up a schedule so that you do not get bogged down on one section and end up without enough time left to study other things. Remember to schedule break time, and use that time for a little exercise or other stress reducing techniques. Test yourself to determine your weaknesses. Look online for additional assessment and evaluation tools available for a particular subject. Once you have determined areas of concern, you will be able to focus on studying the information they contain and just brush up on the other areas of the exam. Mental Prep – How to Psych Yourself Up for a Test Because tests contribute mightily to your final class grade or to whether you are accepted into a program, it is understandable that taking tests can create a great deal of anxiety for many students. Even students who know they have learned all of the required material find their minds going blank as they stare at the words in the questions. One of the easiest ways to overcome that anxiety is to prepare mentally for the test. Mentally preparing for an exam is really not difficult. There are simple techniques that any student can learn to increase their chances of earning a great score on the day of the test. Do not procrastinate. Study the material for the test when it becomes available, and continue to review the materialup until the test day. By waiting until the last minute and trying to cram for the test the night before, you actually increase the amount of anxiety you feel. This leads to an increase in negative self-talk. Telling yourself “I can’t learn this. I am going to fail” is a pretty sure indication that you are right. At best, your performance on the test will not be as strong if you have procrastinated instead of studying. Positive self-talk. Positive self-talk serves both to drown out negative self-talk and to increase your confidence in your abilities. Whenever you begin feeling overwhelmed or anxious about the test, remind yourself that you have studied enough, you know the material and that you will pass the test. Use only positive words. Both negative and positive self-talk are really just your fantasy, so why not choose to be a winner? Do not compare yourself to anyone else. Do not compare yourself to other students, or your performance to theirs. Instead, focus on your own strengths and weaknesses and prepare accordingly. Regardless of how others perform, your performance is the only one that matters to your grade. Comparing yourself to others increases your anxiety and your level of negative self-talk before the test. Visualize. Make a mental image of yourself taking the test. You know the answers and feel relaxed. Visualize doing well on the test and having no problems with the material. Visualizations can increase your confidence and decrease the anxiety you might otherwise feel before the test. Instead of thinking of this as a test, see it as an opportunity to demonstrate what you have learned! Avoid negativity. Worry is contagious and viral - once it gets started it builds on itself. Cut it off before it gets to be a problem. Even if you are relaxed and confident, being around anxious, worried classmates might cause you to start feeling anxious. Before the test, tune out the fears of classmates. Feeling anxious and worried before an exam is normal, and every student experiences those feelings at some point. But you cannot allow these feelings to interfere with your ability to perform well. Practicing mental preparation techniques and remembering that the test is not the only measure of your academic performance will ease your anxiety and ensure that you perform at your best.E How to Take a Test VERYONE KNOWS THAT TAKING AN EXAM IS STRESSFUL, BUT IT DOES NOT HAVE TO BE THAT BAD! There are a few simple things that you can do to increase your score on any type of test. Take a look at these tips and consider how you can incorporate them into your study time. How to Take a Test - The Basics. Some tests are designed to assess your ability to quickly grab the necessary information; this type of exam makes speed a priority. Others are more concerned with your depth of knowledge, and how accurate it is. When you receive a test, look it over to determine whether the test is for speed or accuracy. If the test is for speed, like many standardized tests, your strategy is clear; answer as many questions as quickly as possible. Watch out, though! There are a few tests that are designed to determine how fully and accurately you can answer the questions. Guessing on this type of test is a big mistake, because the teacher expects any student with an average grade to be able to complete the test in the time given. Racing through the test and making guesses that prove to be incorrect will cost you big time! Every little bit helps. If you are permitted calculators, or other materials, make sure you bring them, even if you do not think you will need them. Use everything at your disposal to increase your score. Make time your friend. Budget your time from the moment your pencil hits the page until you are finished with the exam, and stick to it! Virtually all standardized tests have a time limit for each section. The amount of time you are permitted for each portion of the test will almost certainly be included in the instructions or printed at the top of the page. If for some reason it is not immediately visible, rather than wasting your time hunting for it you can use the points or percentage of the score as a proxy to make an educated guess regarding the time limit. Use the allotted time for each section and then move on to the next section whether you have completed the first section or not. Stick with the instructions and you will be able to answer the majority of the questions in each section. With speed tests you may not be able to complete the entire test. Rest assured that you are not really expected to! The goal of this type of examination is to determine how quickly you can reach into your brain and access a particular piece of information, which is one way of determining how well you know it. If you know a test you are taking is a speed test, you will know the strategies to use for the best results. Read the directions carefully. Spend a few minutes reading the directions carefully before starting each section. Studies show students who read the instructions get higher marks! If you just glance at them, you maymisunderstand and could blow the whole thing. Very small changes in the wording of the instructions or the punctuation can change the meaning completely. Do not make assumptions. Just because the directions are written one way in one section does not mean they will be exactly the same in all sections. Focus your attention and read what the instructions actually say, not what you think they are saying. When reading the directions, underline the important parts. For example, if you are directed to circle the best answer, underline “circle” and “best”. This flags the key concepts and will keep you focused. If the exam is given with an answer booklet, copy the instructions to the top of the first page in the booklet. For complicated instructions, divide the directions into smaller steps and number each part. Easy does it. One smart way to tackle a test is to locate the easy questions and answer those first. This is a time-tested strategy that never fails, because it saves you a lot of unnecessary fretting. First, read the question and decide if you can answer it in less than a minute. If so, complete the question and go on to the next one. If not, skip it for now and continue on to the next question. By the time you have completed the first pass through this section of the exam, you will have answered a good number of questions. Not only does it boost your confidence, relieve anxiety and kick your memory up a notch, you will know exactly how many questions remain and can allot the rest of your time accordingly. Think of doing the easy questions first as a warm-up! If you run out of time before you manage to tackle all the difficult questions, do not let it throw you. All that means is you have used your time in the most efficient way possible by answering as many questions correctly as you could. Missing a few points by not answering a question whose answer you do not know just means you spent that time answering one whose answer you did. A word to the wise: Skipping questions for which you are drawing a complete blank is one thing, but we are not suggesting you skip every question you come across that you are not 100 % certain of. A good rule of thumb is to try to answer at least eight of every 10 questions the first time through. Do not watch your watch. At best, taking an important exam is an uncomfortable situation. If you are like most people, you might be tempted to subconsciously distract yourself from the task at hand. One of the most common ways to do so is by becoming obsessed with your watch or the wall clock. Do not watch your watch! Take it off and place it on the top corner of your desk, far enough away that you will not be tempted to look at it every two minutes. Better still, turn the watch face away from you. That way, every time you try to sneak a peek, you will be reminded to refocus your attention to the task at hand. Give yourself permission to check your watch or the wall clock after you complete each section. If you know yourself to be a bit of a slow-poke in other aspects of life, you can check your watch a bit more often. Even so, focus on answering the questions, not on how many minutes have elapsed since you last looked at it. Divide and conquer.What should you do when you come across a question that is so complicated you may not even be certain what is being asked? As we have suggested, the first time through the section you are best off skipping the question. But at some point, you will need to return to it and get it under control. The best way to handle questions that leave you feeling so anxious you can hardly think is by breaking them into manageable pieces. Solving smaller bits is always easier. For complicated questions, divide them into bite-sized pieces and solve these smaller sets separately. Once you understand what the reduced sections are really saying, it will be much easier to put them together and get a handle on the bigger question. Reason your way through the toughest questions. If you find that a question is so dense you can’t figure out how to break it into smaller pieces, there are a few strategies that might help. First, read the question again and look for hints. Can you re-word the question in one or more different ways? This may give you clues. Look for words that can function as either verbs or nouns, and try to figure out from the sentence structure which it is in this case. Remember that many nouns in English have a number of different meanings. While some of those meanings might be related, in some cases they are completely distinct. If reading the sentence one way does not make sense, consider a different definition or meaning for a key word. The truth is, it is not always necessary to understand a question to arrive at a correct answer! A trick that successful students understand is using Strategy 5, Elimination. In many cases, at least one answer is clearly wrong and can be crossed off of the list of possible correct answers. Next, look at the remaining answers and eliminate any that are only partially true. You may still have to flat-out guess from time to time, but using the process of elimination will help you make your way to the correct answer more often than not - even when you don’t know what the question means! Do not leave early. Use all the time allotted to you, even if you can’t wait to get out of the testing room. Instead, once you have finished, spend the remaining time reviewing your answers. Go back to those questions that were most difficult for you and review your response. Another good way to use this time is to return to multiple choice questions in which you filled in a bubble. Do a spot check, reviewing every fifth or sixth question to make sure your answer coincides with the bubble you filled in. This is a great way to catch yourself if you made a mistake, skipped a bubble and therefore put all your answers in the wrong bubbles! Become a super sleuth and look for careless errors. Look for questions that have double negatives or other odd phrasing; they might be an attempt to throw you off. Careless errors on your part might be the result of skimming a question and missing a key word. Words such as “always”, “never”, “sometimes” , “rarely” and the like can give a strong indication of the answer the question is really seeking. Don’t throw away points by being careless! Just as you budgeted time at the beginning of the test to allow for easy and more difficult questions, be sure to budget sufficient time to review your answers. On essay questions and math questions where you are required to show your work, check your writing to make sure it is legible.Math questions can be especially tricky. The best way to double check math questions is by figuring the answer using a different method, if possible. Here is another terrific tip. It is likely that no matter how hard you try, you will have a handful of questions you just are not sure of. Keep them in mind as you read through the rest of the test. If you can’t answer a question, looking back over the test to find a different question that addresses the same topic might give you clues. We know that taking the test has been stressful and you can hardly wait to escape. Just keep in mind that leaving before you double-check as much as possible can be a quick trip to disaster. Taking a few extra minutes can make the difference between getting a bad grade and a great one. Besides, there will be lots of time to relax and celebrate after the test is turned in. In the Test Room – What you MUST do! If you are like the rest of the world, there is almost nothing you would rather avoid than taking a test. Unfortunately, that is not an option if you want to pass. Rather than suffer, consider a few attitude adjustments that might turn the experience from a horrible one to…well, an interesting one! Take a look at these tips. Simply changing how you perceive the experience can change the experience itself. Get in the mood. After weeks of studying, the big day has finally arrived. The worst thing you can do to yourself is arrive at the test site feeling frustrated, worried, and anxious. Keep a check on your emotional state. If your emotions are shaky before a test it can determine how well you do on the test. It is extremely important that you pump yourself up, believe in yourself, and use that confidence to get in the mood! Don’t fight reality. Oftentimes, students resent tests, and with good reason. After all, many people do not test well, and they know the grade they end up with does not accurately reflect their true knowledge. It is easy to feel resentful because tests classify students and create categories that just don’t seem fair. Face it: Students who are great at rote memorization and not that good at actually analyzing material often score higher than those who might be more creative thinkers and balk at simply memorizing cold, hard facts. It may not be fair, but there it is anyway. Conformity is an asset on tests, and creativity is often a liability. There is no point in wasting time or energy being upset about this reality. Your first step is to accept the reality and get used to it. You will get higher marks when you realize tests do count and that you must give them your best effort. Think about your future and the career that is easier to achieve if you have consistently earned high grades. Avoid negative energy and focus on anything that lifts your enthusiasm and increases your motivation. Get there early enough to relax. If you are wound up, tense, scared, anxious, or feeling rushed, it will cost you. Get to the exam room early and relax before you go in. This way, when the exam starts, you are comfortable and ready to apply yourself. Of course, you do not want to arrive so early that you are the onlyone there. That will not help you relax; it will only give you too much time to sit there, worry and get wound up all over again. If you can, visit the room in which you will be taking your exam a few days ahead of time. Have a visual image of the room can be surprisingly calming, because it takes away one of the big ‘unknowns’. Not only that, but once you have visited, you know how to get there and will not be worried about getting lost. Furthermore, driving to the test site once lets you know how much time you need to allow for the trip. That means three potential stressors have been eliminated all at once. Get it down on paper. One of the advantages of arriving early is that it allows you time to recreate notes. If you spend a lot of time worrying about whether you will be able to remember information like names, dates, places, and mathematical formulas, there is a solution for that. Unless the exam you are taking allows you to use your books and notes, (and very few do) you will have to rely on memory. Arriving early gives to time to tap into your memory and jot down key pieces of information you know will be asked. Just make certain you are allowed to make notes once you are in the testing site; not all locations will permit it. Once you get your test, on a small piece of paper write down everything you are afraid you will forget. It will take a minute or two but by dumping your worries onto the page you have effectively eliminated a certain amount of anxiety and driven off the panic you feel. Get comfortable in your chair. Here is a clever technique that releases physical stress and helps you get comfortable, even relaxed in your body. You will tense and hold each of your muscles for just a few seconds. The trick is, you must tense them hard for the technique to work. You might want to practice this technique a few times at home; you do not want an unfamiliar technique to add to your stress just before a test, after all! Once you are at the test site, this exercise can always be done in the rest room or another quiet location. Start with the muscles in your face then work down your body. Tense, squeeze and hold the muscles for a moment or two. Notice the feel of every muscle as you go down your body. Scowl to tense your forehead, pull in your chin to tense your neck. Squeeze your shoulders down to tense your back. Pull in your stomach all the way back to your ribs, make your lower back tight then stretch your fingers. Tense your leg muscles and calves then stretch your feet and your toes. You should be as stiff as a board throughout your entire body. Now relax your muscles in reverse starting with your toes. Notice how all the muscles feel as you relax them one by one. Once you have released a muscle or set of muscles, allow them to remain relaxed as you proceed up your body. Focus on how you are feeling as all the tension leaves. Start breathing deeply when you get to your chest muscles. By the time you have found your chair, you will be so relaxed it will feel like bliss! Fight distraction. A lucky few are able to focus deeply when taking an important examination, but most people are easily distracted, probably because they would rather be anyplace else! There are a number of things you can do to protect yourself from distraction.Stay away from windows. If you select a seat near a window you may end up gazing out at the landscape instead of paying attention to the work at hand. Furthermore, any sign of human activity, from a single individual walking by to a couple having an argument or exchanging a kiss will draw your attention away from your important work. What goes on outside should not be allowed to distract you. Choose a seat away from the aisle so you do not become distracted by people who leave early. People who leave the exam room early are often the ones who fail. Do not compare your time to theirs. Of course you love your friends; that’s why they are your friends! In the test room, however, they should become complete strangers inside your mind. Forget they are there. The first step is to physically distance yourself from friends or classmates. That way, you will not be tempted to glance at them to see how they are doing, and there will be no chance of eye contact that could either distract you or even lead to an accusation of cheating. Furthermore, if they are feeling stressed because they did not spend the focused time studying that you did, their anxiety is less likely to permeate your hard-earned calm. Of course, you will want to choose a seat where there is sufficient light. Nothing is worse than trying to take an important examination under flickering lights or dim bulbs. Ask the instructor or exam proctor to close the door if there is a lot of noise outside. If the instructor or proctor is unable to do so, block out the noise as best you can. Do not let anything disturb you. Make sure you have enough pencils, pens and whatever else you will need. Many entrance exams do not permit you to bring personal items such as candy bars into the testing room. If this is the case with the exam you are sitting for, be sure to eat a nutritionally balanced breakfast. Eat protein, complex carbohydrates and a little fat to keep you feeling full and to supercharge your energy. Nothing is worse than a sudden drop in blood sugar during an exam. Do not allow yourself to become distracted by being too cold or hot. Regardless of the weather outside, carry a sweater, scarf or jacket in case the air conditioning at the test site is set too high, or the heat set too low. By the same token, dress in layers so that you are prepared for a range of temperatures. Bring a watch so that you can keep track of time management. The danger here is many students become obsessed with how many minutes have passed since the last question. Instead of wearing the watch, remove it and place it in the far upper corner of the desk with the face turned away. That way, you cannot become distracted by repeatedly glancing at the time, but it is available if you need to know it. Drinking a gallon of coffee or gulping a few energy drinks might seem like a great idea, but it is, in fact, a very bad one. Caffeine, pep pills or other artificial sources of energy are more likely to leave you feeling rushed and ragged. Your brain might be clicking along, all right, but chances are good it is not clicking along on the right track! Furthermore, drinking lots of coffee or energy drinks will mean frequent trips to the rest room. This will cut into the time you should be spending answering questions and is a distraction in itself, since each time you need to leave the room you lose focus. Pep pills will only make it harder for you to think straight when solving complicated problems on the exam.At the same time, if anxiety is your problem try to find ways around using tranquilizers during test-taking time. Even medically prescribed anti-anxiety medication can make you less alert and even decrease your motivation. Being motivated is what you need to get you through an exam. If your anxiety is so bad that it threatens to interfere with your ability to take an exam, speak to your doctor and ask for documentation. Many testing sites will allow non-distracting test rooms, extended testing time and other accommodations as long as a doctor’s note that explains the situation is made available. Keep Breathing. It might not make a lot of sense, but when people become anxious, tense, or scared, their breathing becomes shallow and, in some cases, they stop breathing all together! Pay attention to your emotions, and when you are feeling worried, focus on your breathing. Take a moment to remind yourself to breathe deeply and regularly. Drawing in steady, deep breaths energizes the body. When you continue to breathe deeply you will notice you exhale all the tension. It is a smart idea to rehearse breathing at home. With continued practice of this relaxation technique, you will begin to know the muscles that tense up under pressure. Call these your “signal muscles.” These are the ones that will speak to you first, begging you to relax. Take the time to listen to those muscles and do as they ask. With just a little breathing practice, you will get into the habit of checking yourself regularly and when you realize you are tense, relaxation will become second nature. AVOID ANXIETY PRIOR TO A TEST Manage your time effectively. This is a key to your success! You need blocks of uninterrupted time to study all the pertinent material. Creating and maintaining a schedule will help keep you on track, and will remind family members and friends that you are not available. Under no circumstances should you change your blocks of study time to accommodate someone else, or cancel a study session in order to do something more fun. Do not interfere with your study time for any reason! Relax. Use whatever works best for you to relieve stress. Some folks like a good, calming stretch with yoga, others find expressing themselves through journaling to be useful. Some hit the floor for a series of crunches or planks, and still others take a slow stroll around the garden. Integrate a little relaxation time into your schedule, and treat that time, too, as sacred. Eat healthy. Instead of reaching for the chips and chocolate, fresh fruits and vegetables are not only yummy but offer nutritional benefits that help to relieve stress. Some foods accelerate stress instead of reducing it and should be avoided. Foods that add to higher anxiety include artificial sweeteners, candy and other sugary foods, carbonated sodas, chips, chocolate, eggs, fried foods, junk foods, processed foods, red meat, and other foods containing preservatives or heavy spices. Instead, eat a bowl of berries and some yogurt! Get plenty of ZZZZZZZs.Do not cram or try to do an all-nighter. If you created a study schedule at the beginning, and if you have stuck with that schedule, have confidence! Staying up too late trying to cram in lastminute bits of information is going to leave you exhausted the next day. Besides, whatever new information you cram in will only displace all the important ideas you’ve spent weeks learning. Remember: You need to be alert and fully functional the day of the exam Eat a healthy meal before the exam. Whatever you do - do not go into the test room hungry! Eat a meal that is rich in protein and complex carbohydrates before the test. Avoid sugary foods; they will pump you up initially, but you might crash hard part way through the exam. While you do not want to consume a lot of unhealthy fat, you do need a little of the healthy stuff such as flaxseed or olive oil on a salad. Avoid fried foods; they tend to make you sleepy. Have confidence in yourself! Everyone experiences some anxiety when taking a test, but exhibiting a positive attitude banishes anxiety and fills you with the knowledge you really do know what you need to know. This is your opportunity to show how well prepared you are. Go for it! Be sure to take everything you need. Depending on the exam, you may be allowed to have a pen or pencil, calculator, dictionary or scratch paper with you. Have these gathered together along with your entrance paperwork and identification so that you are sure you have everything that is needed. Do not chitchat with friends. Let your friends know ahead of time that it is not anything personal, but you are going to ignore them in the test room! You need to find a seat away from doors and windows, one that has good lighting, and get comfortable. If other students are worried their anxiety could be detrimental to you; of course, you do not have to tell your friends that. If you are afraid they will be offended, tell them you are protecting them from your anxiety! Common Test-Taking Mistakes Taking a test is not much fun at best. When you take a test and make a stupid mistake that negatively affects your grade, it is natural to be very upset, especially when it is something that could have been easily avoided. So what are some of the common mistakes that are made on tests? Do not fail to put your name on the test. How could you possibly forget to put your name on a test? You would be amazed at how often that happens. Very often, tests without names are thrown out immediately, resulting in a failing grade. Not following directions. Directions are carefully worded. If you skim directions, it is very easy to miss key words or misinterpret what is being said. Nothing is worse than failing an examination simply because youcould not be bothered with reading the instructions! Marking The Wrong Multiple Choice Answer. It is important to work at a steady pace, but that does not mean bolting through the questions. Be sure the answer you are marking is the one you mean to. If the bubble you need to fill in or the answer you need to circle is ‘C’, do not allow yourself to get distracted and select ‘B’ instead. Answering A Question Twice. Some multiple choice test questions have two very similar answers. If you are in too much of a hurry, you might select them both. Remember that only one answer is correct, so if you choose more than one, you have automatically failed that question. Mishandling A Difficult Question. We recommend skipping difficult questions and returning to them later, but beware! First of all, be certain that you do return to the question. Circling the entire passage or placing a large question mark beside it will help you spot it when you are reviewing your test. Secondly, if you are not careful to actually skip the question, you can mess yourself up badly. Imagine that a question is too difficult and you decide to save it for later. You read the next question, which you know the answer to, and you fill in that answer. You continue on to the end of the test then return to the difficult question only to discover you didn’t actually skip it! Instead, you inserted the answer to the following question in the spot reserved for the harder one, thus throwing off the remainder of your test! Incorrectly Transferring An Answer From Scratch Paper. This can happen easily if you are trying to hurry! Double check any answer you have figured out on scratch paper, and make sure what you have written on the test itself is an exact match! Don’t Ignoring The Clock, And Don’t Marry It, Either. In a timed examination many students lose track of the time and end up without sufficient time to complete the test. Remember to pace yourself! At the same time, though, do not allow yourself to become obsessed with how much time has elapsed, either. Thinking Too Much. Oftentimes, your first thought is your best thought. If you worry yourself into insecurity, your self-doubts can trick you into choosing an incorrect answer when your first impulse was the right one! Be Prepared. Running out of ink and not having an extra pen or pencil is not an excuse for failing an exam! Have everything you need, and have extras. Bring tissue, an extra erasure, several sharpened pencils, batteries for electronic devices, and anything else you might need. Conclusion