A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies. Which assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse? A) White blood count of 10,000 mm3. B) ... Serum glucose of 115 mg/dl. C) Purulent sputum. D) Excessive hunger. C) Purulent sputum. Steroids cause immunosuppression, and a purulent sputum (C) is an indication of infection, so this symptom is of greatest concern. Oral steroids may increase (A) and often cause (D). (B) may remain normal, borderline, or increase while taking oral steroids. The nurse is assessing a client with bacterial meningitis. Which assessment finding indicates the client may have developed septic emboli? A) Cyanosis of the fingertips. B) Bradycardia and bradypnea. C) Presence of S3 and S4 heart sounds. D) 3+ pitting edema of the lower extremities. A) Cyanosis of the fingertips. Septic emboli secondary to meningitis commonly lodge in the small arterioles of the extremities, causing a decrease in circulation to the hands (A) which may lead to gangrene. (B, C, and D) are abnormal findings, but do not indicate the development of septic emboli. A 46-year-old female client is admitted for acute renal failure secondary to diabetes and hypertension. Which test is the best indicator of adequate glomerular filtration? A) Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) B) Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN). C) Sedimentation rate. D) Urine specific gravity. A) Serum creatinine. (B) is also an indicator of renal activity, but it can be affected by non-renal factors such as hypovolemia and increased protein intake. (C) is a nonspecific test for acute or chronic inflammatory processes. (D) is useful in assessing hydration status, but not as useful in assessing glomerular function. A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia? [Show More]
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