NR 507 Final Exam – Chamberlain college of nursing | NR507 Final Exam – Chamberlain college of nursing

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NR 507 Final Exam – Chamberlain college of nursing 75+ correctly answered questions Question 1 Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response? Correct... ! 3339   Norepinephrine Norepinephrine Only the release of norepinephrine promotes arousal, increased vigilance, increased anxiety, and other protective emotional responses.   Question 2 2 / 2 pts Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune process involving antibodies attacking which type of cells?   Platelets ITP is a disorder of platelet consumption. This selection is the only option that correctly identifies which type of cell is attacked by ITP.   Question 3 When renin is released, it is capable of which action?   Formation of angiotensin I Formation of angiotensin I   When renin is released, it cleaves an α-globulin (angiotensinogen produced by liver hepatocytes) in the plasma to form angiotensin I.   Question 4 Which of the following are formed elements of the blood that are not cells but are disk-shaped cytoplasmic fragments essential for blood clotting?   Platelets Platelets   Platelets (thrombocytes) are not true cells but are disk-shaped cytoplasmic fragments that are essential for blood coagulation and control of bleeding. This description is not accurate for any of the other options.   . Question 5 In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult erythrocyte life span is _____ days.   60 to 80; 120 In full-term infants, normal erythrocyte life span is 60 to 80 days; in premature infants it may be as short as 20 to 30 days; and in children and adolescents, it is 120 days, the same as that in adults.   Question 6 2 / 2 pts Graves disease is a result of:   Autoantibodies binding to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)-receptor sites In the hyperthyroidism (excessive thyroid activity) of Graves disease, autoantibody binds to and activates receptors for TSH (a pituitary hormone that controls the production of the hormone thyroxine by the thyroid). The other options do not accurately describe the cause of Graves disease. Question 7 What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment?   Fatigue Fatigue   Fatigue is the most frequently reported symptom of cancer and cancer treatment. Although patients report the other options, they are not as frequently experienced as fatigue. Question 8 In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells?   Bone marrow Bone marrow   B lymphocytes mature and become B cells in specialized (primary) lymphoid organs—the thymus gland for T cells and the bone marrow for B cells. Neither regional lymph nodes nor the spleen are involved in changing B lymphocytes into B cells.   Question 9 Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance?   Hypocalcemia Hypocalcemia   Two clinical signs of hypocalcemia are the Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign. These clinical signs are not indicative of any of the other options.   Question 10 On average, what percent of cardiac output do the kidneys receive?   20% to 25% 20% to 25%   The kidneys are highly vascular organs and usually receive 1000 to 1200 ml of blood per minute, or approximately 20% to 25% of the cardiac output.   Question 11 Which substance is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure?   Erythropoietin Erythropoietin   One of the most significant advances in the study of hematopoietic growth factors has been the development of erythropoietin for individuals with chronic renal failure. The other options are not associated with the treatment of chronic anemia.   Question 12 When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what reaction occurs?   Alloimmunity Alloimmunity   Alloimmunity occurs when an individual’s immune system reacts against antigens on the tissues of other members of the same species. Sensitization against fetal antigens is not the cause of any other available option.   . Question 13 Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer?   Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer. Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer.   Pain is generally associated with the late stages of cancer. Pressure, obstruction, invasion of a structure sensitive to pain, stretching, tissue destruction, and inflammation can cause pain. Pain is not the initial symptom of cancer nor does it indication that the cancer has metastasized.   Question 14 2 / 2 pts During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender? Correct! 43363   B lymphocytes proliferate. B lymphocytes proliferate.   The B lymphocyte proliferation in response to significant antigen (e.g., during infection) may result in lymph node enlargement and tenderness (reactive lymph node). This description is not accurate for the other options.   Question 15 Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis?   Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens   Cystic fibrosis is best described as a pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens. This selection is the only option that accurately describes cystic fibrosis.   . Question 16 Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?   Epithelial cells Epithelial cells   Only cancers arising from epithelial cells are called carcinomas.   . Question 17 What local complication of a gonococcal infection is diagnosed in approximately 10% of affected women?   Acute salpingitis Acute salpingitis   Acute salpingitis, or pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), is the most common local complication in women. Approximately 10% of women with untreated cervical gonorrhea develop PID.   . Question 18 Which terms represent the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?   Lipoma, liposarcoma Lipoma, liposarcoma   In general, cancers are named according to the cell type from which they originate (e.g., lip for cancers that originate in adipose or fat tissue), whereas benign tumors use the suffix -oma. Cancers arising from connective tissue usually have the suffix sarcoma.   . Question 19 What provides the best estimate of the functioning of renal tissue? Correct! 37916   Glomerular filtration rate Glomerular filtration rate   The glomerular filtration rate provides the best estimate of the level of functioning of renal tissue. The other options are not used to assess renal tissue function.   . - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Question 68 Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ?   Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina. Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina.   The point at which the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina is called the transformation zone or the squamous-columnar junction. The transformation zone is especially susceptible to the oncogenic human papillomavirus (HPV), which leads to cervical dysplasia and, ultimately, cervical cancer; these are the cells sampled during a Papanicolaou (Pap) test.   Question 69 Which statement is true regarding the major difference between male and female sex hormone production?   In a man, sex hormone production is relatively constant. In a man, sex hormone production is relatively constant. In men, sex hormone production is relatively constant with some diurnal variation. The other options are not true statements.   Question 70 Using a fan to reduce body temperature is an example of which mechanism of heat loss?   Convection Convection   Only convection causes the transfer of heat through currents of gases or liquids.   Question 71 In scoliosis, curves in the thoracic spine greater than how many degrees result in decreased pulmonary function?   80 80   In scoliosis, curves in the thoracic spine greater than 80 degrees result in decreased pulmonary function.   . Question 72 What is the second most commonly recognized genetic cause of mental retardation?   Fragile X syndrome Fragile X syndrome   The fragile X syndrome is the second most common genetic cause of mental retardation (after Down syndrome). The correct option is not observed with enough frequency to be recognized as the second most common cause of mental retardation.   Question 73 Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle?   Obesity Obesity   The most important environmental risk factors for hypertension are increased sodium intake, decreased physical activity, psychosocial stress, and obesity. However, obesity is, itself, influenced by genes and the environment.   Question 74 Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation?   Heat exhaustion Heat exhaustion   Of the options presented, only heat exhaustion, or collapse, is a result of prolonged high core or environmental temperatures resulting in dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia.   Question 75 Saliva contains which immunoglobulin (Ig)? Correct! 21920   IgA IgA   Saliva contains only IgA, which helps prevent infection. [Show More]

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