MILITARY 101 SEJPME I&amp

MILITARY 101 SEJPME I&amp 1) The Missile Defense Agency (MDA) works with the combatant commanders (CCDRs) of the _____. (Select all that apply.) b, c, d a) None of the answers are correct b) United States Strategic C ...

MILITARY 101 SEJPME I& 1) The Missile Defense Agency (MDA) works with the combatant commanders (CCDRs) of the _____. (Select all that apply.) b, c, d a) None of the answers are correct b) United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM) c) United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM) d) United States Pacific Command (USPACOM) 2) The main difference between Dining-In and Dining-Out for members of the Air Force is that spouses and other non-military guests may attend a Dining-In. b a) True b) False 3) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.) b, c, d a) Checking the work of members from other Services b) Knowing the people around you c) Having competence in your area of the Service d) Knowing how to solve problems 4) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at war or fully at peace. a a) True b) False 5) If something of an ethical nature is ever in doubt, commanders should contact their legal counsel for advice. a a) True b) False 6) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United States? d 1. 8 2. 5 3. 6 4. 7 7) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI) representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. c a) JIACG b) HAST c) CMOC d) POLAD 8) Which of the following are considerations when hosting a formal dinner? a a) all of the answers are correct b) identify unique cultural considerations in a foreign countryc) begin planning months in advance with the proposed guest list d) print and mail invitations four to six weeks in advance e) plan the menu and walk through the upcoming evening's sequence of events 9) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply capability in hostile or denied areas. c a) 106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment b) 101st Airborne Division (Air Assault) c) 160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment d) 3rd Combat Aviation Brigade 10) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? c a) executive, deputies, and interagency coordination b) principals, deputies, and interagency policy c) strategic, operational, and tactical d) principals, deputies, and interagency working group 11) In a traditional cake-cutting ceremony the first piece of cake is given to the youngest Marine present, and the second piece of cake is given to the oldest Marine present. a a) True b) False 12) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army's activities toward the stopping old rivalries and conflicts? c a) the collapse of the Warsaw Pact b) the rise of global terrorism c) the end of the Cold War d) the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states 13) The U.S. continues to become more dependent on the global domain within the information environment consisting of the interdependent network of information technology infrastructures, including the Internet, telecommunications networks, computer systems, and embedded processors and controllers. It is imperative that we safeguard this domain known as _____. d a) space b) networks c) information d) cyberspace 14) In 1798, the U.S. Navy and U.S. Marine Corps were created. a a) True b) False 15) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service. a a) resilience b) opposition c) vulnerabilityd) indifference 16) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? a a) Thall of the answers are correct b) expansion into space c) design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence d) development of the Strategic Air Command 17) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. d a) close the U.S. borders b) declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the government and regulation of the land and naval forces c) provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico d) declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies 18) Devised to survive on a potentially atomic battlefield, vertical envelopment enabled Marines to achieve which of the following? b a) night missions b) speed and dispersion c) beachhead assaults 19) Successful teamwork in the joint environment requires trust, confidence and _____. d a) close supervision b) time to develop c) clear rules of engagement d) cooperation 20) The Joint Task Force commander facilitates unified action and gains a greater understanding of the roles of IGOs and NGOs and how they influence mission accomplishment by establishing a _____. d a) Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC) b) Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG) c) Humanitarian Assistance Coordination Center (HACC) d) Interagency Policy Committee (IPC) 21) During joint operation planning, joint force commanders should begin to coordinate their activities with other agencies _____. c a) when the combatant commander authorizes the plan b) after the operation plan has been finalized c) as early as possible d) after the ambassador reviews the operation plan 22) Reserve Component leaders agree that they receive adequate funding to support all levels of operational use identified by Service and Department of Defense plans. b a) True b) False 23) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and defensive air operation. aa) True b) False 24) _____ is a hostile environment that often presents complex emotional and ethical dilemmas. c a) Major combat operations b) Irregular warfare environment c) Support for civil authorities d) Humanitarian assistance operations 25) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. d a) Interoperability, liaison network b) Rationalization, training c) Training, interoperability d) Liaison network, coordination centers 26) During the Total Force Fitness ((TFF) Program section of the course, we discussed the importance of leader involvement. Leaders must identify the metrics that will set the right conditions to promote total fitness. In order to accurately assess the TFF program's effectiveness, metrics must be _____ . c a) challenging b) feasible c) quantitative d) observable 27) To reach the national strategic end state and conclude an operation successfully, commanders must integrate and synchronize stability operations with offensive and defensive operations. Planning for stability operations should begin _____. a a) when major combat operations have concluded b) upon declaration of a cease-fire c) when Phase IV - Stabilize begins d) when joint operation planning is initiated 28) Which of the following examples embodies Navy traditions and core values of honor, courage, and commitment? a a) "Don't give up the ship!" b) all of the answers are correct c) "Can you go and do likewise?" d) "Surrender? I have not yet begun to fight!" 29) Many external factors impact the psychological health of individuals. The culture of the military and its expectations and the _____ cycles require frequent change and adjustment. b a) weather b) deployment/redeployment c) training d) promotion 30) In the Chairman's White Paper, "Mission Command" (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. b a) predictableb) dynamic c) ill-prepared d) segregated 31) What Services were established as precursors to the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) a, b, d a) Steamboat Inspection Service b) Life Saving Service c) Transportation Security Administration d) Lighthouse and Revenue Cutter Service e) Bureau of Navigation 32) Frequently a decisive element, the _____ principle of joint operations is based on the legality, morality, and rightness of the actions undertaken. b a) patience b) objective c) restraint d) legitimacy 33) Developing and maintaining professional relationships with multinational partner's means _____. a a) recognizing that their training and education may differ, but it does not mean they are less dedicated or professional b) continually reinforcing our standards upon them c) continuously demonstrating our superiority over them d) treating them as professionals with limited skills 34) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a, c a) coordination b) compromise c) communication d) consensus 35) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes: (Select all that apply). a, b, c, d a) intergovernmental b) interagency c) military d) multinational partners 36) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what point in the planning process? d a) late in the planning process b) after all of the planning is completed c) somewhere - early, mid, or later - as long as they are included d) early in the planning process 37) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast Guard. a a) 50 b) 30 c) 20d) 10 38) The aspect of PME that focuses on imparting joint knowledge and attitudes is joint _____. d a) doctrine b) education c) concepts d) training 39) The seizure and defense of naval bases is provided by which branch of the Armed Services? b a) Coast Guard b) Marines c) Army d) Navy e) Air Force 40) The term joint force commander refers exclusively to the following three types of commanders: c a) joint task force commander, functional component commander, and subunified commander b) combatant commander, Service component commander, and functional component commander c) Service component commander, combatant commander, and joint task force commander d) combatant commander, subordinate unified commander, and joint task force commander 41) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? a a) maritime stewardship b) maritime safety c) maritime security 42) The _____ organize, train, equip, and provide combat-ready forces to conduct operations as directed by the President and Secretary of Defense. a a) Joint Chiefs of Staff b) combatant commands c) joint task forces d) military departments 43) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far greater extent than surface forces can. a a) True b) False 44) The most well-known Coast Guard mascot during World War II, who provided a morale boost to his crew, was named? a a) Skipper b) Sinbad c) Aladdin d) Smoky 45) Each geographic combatant command has a _____ to plan and control special operations and other Special Operations Forces activities. ca) Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF) b) Regional Special Warfare Command (RSWC) c) Joint Special Operations Command (JSOC) d) Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC) 46) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) b, c, d a) major combat operations b) cyberspace operations c) training of foreign militaries d) humanitarian assistance 47) _____ is the process used to mitigate operational risks. Although created with military operations in mind, these procedures can be used to plan other activities. b a) Operational resource management b) Operational risk management c) Risk assurance d) Risk avoidance 48) Military-political considerations frequently cast special operations into clandestine or covert environments; therefore, their activities normally involve oversight at the _____ level. c a) tactical b) national c) joint task force d) operational 49) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) a, b, c a) upon a declaration of war b) when directed by the President c) when ordered by the Secretary of Defense 50) In the Chairman's White Paper, "America's Military - A Profession of Arms," this aspect of the Armed Forces is identified as the foundation of our profession. d a) Values b) Legal Authority c) Leadership d) Honor 51. What WWII conference established the Joint Chiefs of Staff? a) U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1) b) First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA) c) Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL) d) First Washington Conference (ARCADIA) 52. The 1986 Goldwater-Nicholas Act____. a) Added the Commandant of the Marine Corps as a permanent and participating member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Clarified the chain of command and civilian control of the U.S. Military c) Provided the Chief of the National Guard Bureau full membership of the Joint chiefs of Staff53. The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff provides a channel of communication between the President/SECDEF and the Combatant Commander. a) True b) False 54. National Security Agency (NSA) provides which of the following support: (Select all the apply) a) Solutions, products, and services b) Timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence c) Information systems security d) Signals intelligence 55. The North American Aerospace Defense Command(NORAD) is operated by which countries? (Select all that apply.) a) Canada b) Mexico c) United States d) Great Britain 56. The Missile Defense Agency (MDA) works with the Combatant Commanders (CCDRs) of which commands? (Select all that apply) a) United States Northern Command (USNNORTHCON) b) United States Pacific Command (USPACOM) c) United States Strategic Command(USSTRATCOM) 57. ______ is a violent struggle among state and non-state actors for legitimacy over the relevant population(s). It favors indirect and asymmetric approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capabilities, in order to erode an adversary’s power, influence, and will. a) Asymmetric Warfare b) Traditional Warfare c) Joint Warfare d) Irregular Warfare 58. The ability of the U.S. to achieve its national strategic objectives is dependent on the effectiveness is the U.S. Government in employing the instruments of national power, which are_____. a) Diplomatic, Informational, Military, and Economic b) Diplomacy, Defense, and Development c) Political, Military, Economic, Social, Informational, and Infrastructure d) Culture, Industry, Technology, and Geography 59. The President of the United States provides guidance for developing, applying, and coordinating the instruments of national power to achieve objectives that contribute to national security in the ____. a) National Defense Strategy b) National Security Strategy c) Unified Command Plan d) National Military Strategy 60. The _____, signed by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, provides guidance for distributing and applying military power to attain national strategic objectives. It describes the Armed Forces’ plan to achieve military objectives in the near term and provides the vision for ensuring they remain decisive in the future.a) Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan b) National Security Strategy c) National Defense Strategy d) National Military Strategy 61. The statutory members of the National Security Council are ____. a) President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy b) President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State c) President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury d) President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Security of Homeland Security 62. The _____ is the President’s principle forum for considering national security policy matters with his senior national security advisors and cabinet officials. a) Secretary of Homeland Security b) Secretary of Defense c) National Security Council d) Joint Chiefs of Staff 63. The operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the ____. a) Chairmen of the Joint Chief of Staff b) Chairmen of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and then to the Combatant Commanders c) Combatant Commanders d) Services Chiefs 64. The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the. a) Service Chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Secretaries of the Military Departments and then to the Combatant Commanders c) Combatant Commanders via the Service Chiefs d) Secretaries of the Military Departments and then to the Service Chiefs 65. The _____ outranks all other offices of the Armed Forces, but may not exercise military command over any of the Armed Forces. This officer is the principle military advisor to the President, the National Security Council, and the Secretary of Defense. a) Chairmen of the Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Supreme Allied Commander c) Combatant Commander d) War Czar 66. A unified or Specified Command with a broad continuing mission under a single commander established and so designated by the President, through the Secretary of Defense and with the advice and assistance of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is called a _____. a) Joint Task Force b) Subordinate Unified Command c) Combatant Command d) Component Command67. A _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the SecDef, a Combatant Commander, a Subordinate Unified Commander, or an existing JTF Commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which it was created had been achieved or when it is no longer required. a) Combatant Command b) Subordinate Unified Command c) Joint Task Force d) Service Component Command 68. The term Joint Force Commander refers exclusively to the following three (3) types of commanders: a) Combatant Commander, Subordinate Unified Commander, and Joint Task Force Commander b) Combatant Commander, Service Component Commander, and Functional Component Commander c) Joint Task Force Commander, Functional Component Commander, And Subunified Commander d) Service Component Commander, Combatant Commander, and Joint Task Force Commander 69. Joint Force Air Component (JFACC), Joint Force Land Component Commander (JFLCC), and Joint Force Maritime Component Commander (JFMCC) are all examples of _____. a) Joint Task Force Commanders b) Subunified Commanders c) Service Component Commanders d) Functional Component Commanders 70. These commands are established by Combatant Commanders when authorized by the SecDef through the CJCS to conduct operations on a continuing basis in accordance with the criteria set forth for Unified Commands. They may be established on a geographic area basis such as the United States Forces Japan or on a functional basis such as Special Operations Command, Pacific. a) Combatant Commands b) Subordinate Unified Commands c) Joint Task Forces d) Functional Component Commands 71. Combatant Commanders exercise _____ (command authority)) over assigned forces. This is the broadest command authority and may NOT be delegated or transferred. a) Administrative Control (ADCON) b) Operational Control (OPCON) c) Tactical Control (TACON) d) Combatant Command (COCOM) 72. _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigned tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command. a) Combatant Command b) Operational Control (OPCON)c) Tactical Control (TACON) d) Administrative Control (ADCON) 73. The four categories of support are _____. a) General, tactical, operational, and strategic b) Tactical, operational, direct, and common c) General, mutual, direct, and close d) Reinforcing, mutual, complementary, and close 74. Which of the following are instruments of national power? (Select all that apply.) a) Economics b) Information c) The Military d) Diplomacy 75. The relevance of the interagency process at the strategic level to the Combatant Commander and the U.S. military is that the process yields America’s major national security policy decisions. a) True b) False 76. Provides commanders with an increased capability to coordinate with other U.S. Government agencies? a) Interagency Coordination b) DIME c) Annex V d) Joint Interagency Group (JIACG) e) Foreign Policy Advisor (POLAD) 77. The part of the CCRD’s Operation Plan that specifies not only the capabilities that military planners have determined the military may need, but also the interagency partners’ shared understanding of the situation, as well as the common objectives required to resolve the situation? a) Interagency Coordination b) DIME c) Annex V d) Joint Interagency Group (JIACG) e) Foreign Policy Advisor (POLAD) 78. The four most basic elements of national power? a) Interagency Coordination b) DIME c) Annex V d) Joint Interagency Group (JIACG) e) Foreign Policy Advisor (POLAD) 79. Providing U.S. Government foreign policy perspectives and diplomatic considerations, establishes linkages with U.S. embassies and State Department? a) Interagency Coordination b) DIME c) Annex V d) Joint Interagency Group (JIACG)e) Foreign Policy Advisor (POLAD) 80. The interaction that occurs between agencies of the U’S’ Government, including the Department of Defense (DoD), for the purpose of accomplishing the objective? a) Interagency Coordination b) DIME c) Annex V d) Joint Interagency Group (JIACG) e) Foreign Policy Advisor (POLAD) 81. Which organization is the principle policy-making forum responsible for the nation’s security strategy? a) National Security Council (NSC) b) Department of Defense (DoD) c) Department of Homeland Security (DHS) d) U.S. Congress 82. What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply) a) It is often time-consuming b) It can be cumbersome c) No one is in charge, except the President d) Rarely is it effective 83. Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? a) President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Security of Defense b) Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security c) Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National Intelligence d) Chairmen of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence 84. The National Security Council compromises these three levels of formal committees for coordinating and making decisions on national security issues. a) Principles, Deputies, and Interagency Policy b) Executive, Deputies, and Interagency Coordination c) Principles, Deputies, and Interagency Working Group d) Strategic, Operational, and Tactical 85. The ____________ is the principle military advisor to the President, the National Security Council, and the Security of Defense. a) National Security Advisor b) Combatant Commander c) Director of the Joint Staff d) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 86. The ________ is the principle forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these policies among various government agencies. a) Homeland Security Council b) National Security Councilc) Foreign Affairs Council d) National Economic Council 87. The concept of _____ highlights the synergistic application of all the instruments of national power and includes the actions of non-military organizations as well as military forces. a) Interagency cooperation b) Unified action c) Unity of command d) civil military operations 88. U.S, military forces are authorized under certain conditions to provide assistance to U.S. civil authorities for disasters, catastrophes, infrastructure protection, and other emergencies. This assistance is known as _____ within the defense community because the assistance will always be in the support of a lead federal agency. a) Consequence management b) Civil defense c) Civil support d) Crisis management 89. It is imperative that the Combatant Commander or JTF Commander coordinate closely with the _____ on military activities in a particular country because, while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions. a) Ambassador b) National Security Advisor c) Secretary Of State d) Foreign Policy Advisor 90. The Country Team provides for rapid interagency consolation and action on recommendations from the field. DoD is normally represented on the Country Team by which of the following? a) Marine Security Detachment, Security Assistance Organization b) Political Advisor, Joint Interagency Coordination Group c) Defense Attaché, Foreign Policy Advisor d) Defense Attaché, Security Cooperation Organization 91. _____ are independent, diverse, flexible, grassroots focused, primary relief providers that are frequently on the scene before U.S. military and will most likely remain long after military forces have departed. a) IGOs b) OGAs c) NGOs d) FAOs 92. In most situations, IGOs and NGOs need which of these military capabilities? a) Threat assessment, force protection, and airlift b) Logistics, communications, and security c) Airlift, sealift, and intelligence d) Security, transportation, and explosive ordnance disposal93. The JTF Commander facilitates unified action and gains a greater understanding of the roles of IGOs and NGOs and how they influence mission accomplishment by establishing a _____. a) Humanitarian Assistance Coordination Center (HACC) b) Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG) c) Interagency Policy Committee (IPC) d) Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC) 94. A particular type of operation is not doctrinally fixed and could shift within the range of military operations, for example a counterinsurgency operation escalating from a security cooperation activity into a major operation or campaign. a) True b) False 95. The range of military operations includes these three categories of operations: (1) military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence: (2) crisis response and limited-contingency operations: and ______. a) Major battles and engagements b) Contingency and crisis operations c) Major operations and campaigns d) Traditional and irregular warfare 96. These operations are typically limited in scope and scale and conducted to achieve a very specific objective in an operational area. They include noncombatant evacuation operations, recovery operations, consequence management, strikes, raids, homeland defense, and defense support of civil authorities. a) Military engagement b) Crisis response and limited-contingency operations c) Security cooperation and deterrence activities d) Major combat operations and campaigns 97. Various joint operations such as a show of force or sanctions enforcement support _____ by demonstrating national resolve and willingness to use force when necessary. a) Joint operation planning b) Prepositioning assets c) Deterrence d) Interagency coordination 98. The purpose of specifying the _____ is to direct every military operation toward a clearly defined, decisive, and achievable goal. a) Center of gravity b) Critical vulnerability c) Objective d) Decisive point 99. The purpose of _____ is to concentrate the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. a) Maneuver b) Massc) Objective d) Offensive 100. Combatant Commanders and subordinate joint force commanders must work with U.S ambassadors (or diplomatic missions), Department of State, and other agencies to best integrate the military actions with the diplomatic, economic, and informational instruments of national power to promote_____. a) Unity of command b) Joint operations c) Economy of force d) Unity of effort 101. The purpose of _____ is to maintain legal and moral authority in the conduct of operations. It is based on the actual and perceived legality, morality, and rightness of the acions from the various perspectives of interested audiences. a) Perseverance b) Legitimacy c) Restraint d) Security 102. _____ helps prevent adversary action through the presentation of a credible threat is counteraction. It stems from the belief of a potential aggressor that a credible threat of retaliation exists, the contemplated action cannot succeed, or the costs outweigh any possible gains. a) Military engagement b) Security cooperation c) Deterrence d) Deception 103. At the strategic level, _____ encompasses those planning activities , such as continuity of operations and continuity of government, undertaken to ensure DoD processes, procedures, and resources are in place to support the President and SECDEF in a designated national security emergency. a) Military engagement b) Emergency preparedness c) Security cooperation d) Crisis action planning 104. Combating terrorism involves actions taken to oppose terrorism from wherever the threat exists, and encompasses _____ -defensive measures taken to reduce vulnerability to terrorist acts-and _____- offensive measures taken to prevent, deter, preempt, and respond to terrorism. a) Consequence management, emergency preparedness b) Counterterrorism, antiterrorism c) Force protection, counterinsurgency d) Antiterrorism, counterterrorism 105. An operation that employs coercive measures to interdict the movement of certain types of designated items into or out of a nation or specified area is known as _____. a) Antiterrorism b) Arms control c) Enforcement of sanctions d) Show of force106. The DoD contribution to a unified action effort to support and augment the development of the capacity and capability of foreign security forces and their supporting institutions to facilitate the achievement of specific objectives shared by the USG is called _____. a) Enforcing exclusion zones b) Show of force c) Security force assistance d) Sanctions enforcement 107. Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve, and involve the appearance of a credible military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. a) Economy of force b) Show of force c) Enforcement d) Nation assistance 108. Joint force commanders must integrate and synchronize offensive, defensive, and stability operations that compromise major operations and campaigns. Planning for stability operations should begin _____. a) Near the end of joint operation planning b) Only after planning for offensive and defensive operations is complete c) At the start of Phase IV Stabilize d) When joint operation planning is initiated 109. Although _____ may be the stronger posture, it is the _____ that is normally decisive in combat. Therefore, commanders will normally seek to transition to the decisive operations et the earliest opportunity. a) Joint, single-Service b) Offense, defense c) Defense, offense d) Attrition, maneuver 110. Major operation and campaign plans must feature a (n)_____ offensive, defensive, and stability operations in all phases. a) Equal proportion of b) Similar degree of c) Appropriate balance between d) Effective sequencing of 111. Joint force commanders strive to isolate enemies by denying them _____. The intent is to strip away as much enemy support or freedom of action as possible, while limiting the enemy’s potential for horizontal or vertical escalation. a) Movement and maneuver b) Allies and sanctuary c) Airfields and seaports d) Command and control112.Preplanned, deterrence-oriented actions carefully tailored to bring an issue to early resolution without armed conflict are known as _____. a) Peacekeeping b) Flexible deterrent options c) Diplomatic efforts d) Smart power 113. A joint military operation conducted either as a major operation or a part of a larger campaign to seize and hold a military lodgment in the face of armed opposition for the continuous landing of forces is called ____. These operations may include amphibious, airborne, and air assault operations, or any combination thereof. a) Joint reception, staging, onward-movement, and integration b) Forcible entry c) Full spectrum superiority d) Force protection 114. The ultimate measure of success in peace building is _____. Therefore, joint force commanders seek a clear understanding of the national and coalition strategic end state and how military operations support that end state. a) Political, not military b) Adversary military culmination c) Economic sufficiency d) Security sector reform 115. The responsibility to plan and coordinate U.S. government efforts in stabilization and reconstruction has been assigned to _____. a) Department of State b) Department of Defense c) Geographic Combatant Command d) U.S. Agency for International Development 116. Pursuant to Executive Order 12656, the _____ is responsible for the protection and evacuation of American citizens abroad and for safeguarding their property. a) Department of Defense b) Department of Homeland Security c) Geographic Combatant Command d) Department of State 117. Military operations that apply military force or threaten its use, normally pursuant to international authorization, to compel compliance with resolutions or sanctions designed to maintain or restore peace and order are known as _____ operations. a) Peacekeeping b) Peace enforcement c) Peace building d) Peace making118. In foreign humanitarian assistance operations, commanders usually establish a _____ because it is critical to working with the participating intergovernmental organizations (IGOs) and nongovernmental organizations (NGOs). a) Joint operations center (JOC) b) Joint intelligence center (JIOC) c) Civil-military operations center (CMOC) d) Media operations center (MOC) 119. Operations conducted to search for, locate, identify, recover, and return isolated personnel, sensitive equipment, items critical to national security, or human remains are known as _____. a) Noncombatant evacuation operations b) Recovery operations c) Foreign humanitarian assistance d) Consequence management 120. A military operation to temporarily seize an area, usually through forcible entry, in order to secure information, confuse an adversary, capture personnel or equipment, or destroy an objective or capability is called a _____. It ends with a planned withdrawal upon competition of the assigned mission. a) Peace operation b) Raid c) Recovery operation d) Noncombatant evacuation operation 121. The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is an example od a(n) _____. a) Multinational force b) Alliance c) Unified command d) Coalition 122. Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected by. a) Financial resources constraints b) Motives and values of the organization’s members c) Media influence d) Non-military organizations 123. Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. a) Lack of coalition security teams b) Conflicting personalities c) Varying levels of experience among coalition partners d) A command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and rewards the sharing of information 124. Developing and maintaining professional relationships with multinational partners means _____. a) We must treat them as professionals with limited skills b) We must continually reinforce our standards upon them c) Recognizing that their training and education may differ, but does not mean they are less dedicated or professional d) Continuously demonstrating our superiority over them125. The vetting process for participation in multinational operations serves as a mechanism to _____. a) Support and enhance individual efforts b) Increase perceived legitimacy of operations domestically and internationally c) Minimize clashes that may occur between intergovernmental agencies d) Force all participants to authorize full range of employment of their forces 126. Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include_____. a) Leader development and national interest b) Religion and culture c) North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) d) Non-governmental organizations (NGOs) 127. When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken to _____. a) Ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests b) Ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage c) Utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of any one location d) Only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners 128. During the conduct of military operations, multinational personnel must be able to _____. a) Develop guidance for detainee operations in a joint environment according to their respective laws b) Target only a small percentage of individuals who fall into different categories under the law of war c) Enforce local Rules of Engagement (ROE) without regard to approved coalition ROE d) Properly control, maintain, protect, and account for all detainees according to applicable domestic law, regardless of their category 129. Main role is deterrence. Should hostilities arise, provides forces for prompt and sustained combat primarily on land. a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command 130. Fills the three main roles: Strategic nuclear deterrence, Deployment of forces overseas, Security of the Sea Lines of Communication (SLOCs). a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command131. Provides fleet marine forces of combined arms, together with supporting air components, for two purposes: Service with the fleet in the seizure or defense of advanced naval bases, Conduct land operations essential to the prosecution of a naval campaign. a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command 132. Primary role is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and defensive air operations. a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command 133. Protect the public, the environment, and U.S. economic interests in any maritime region offering service on five areas: Maritime Safety, National Defense, Maritime Security, Mobility, Protection of National Resources. a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command 134. Organize, train, and equip Special Operations Forces (SOFs) for activities or missions for all the Services. a) United States Department of Army b) United States Department of the Navy c) United States Department of the Marine Corps d) United States Department of the Air Force e) United States Coast Guard f) United States Special Operations Command 135. The primary function of the Services and Special Operations Command is to provide forces, each of which is organized, trained, and equipped to perform specific roles. a) True b) False 136. What is the Army’s primary role? a) To train and equip itself for the overwhelming and synchronized application of land combat power b) To support the other Services c) To train and equip itself for the overwhelming and synchronized application of both land and air combat power d) All of the above137. Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a) Humanitarian assistance b) Cyberspace operations c) Training of foreign militaries d) Major combat operations 138. What are the fundamental roles of the U.S. Navy, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard in the implementation of the National Security Strategy (NSS)? (Select all that apply.) a) Secure the United States from direct attack b) Secure strategic access and retain global freedom of action c) Strengthen existing and emerging alliances and partnerships d) Establish favorable security conditions 139. These capabilities compromise the core of the U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in emphasis on those activities that prevent was and build partnerships. a) Readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training b) Peacekeeping and contingency operations c) Forward presence, deterrence, sea and area control d) Forward presence, deterrence, sea and area control, power projection, maritime security, and humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HS/DR) 140. Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force Concept, employing combinations of Active Duty and Reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. a) True b) False 141. Which of the following are roles of the U.S. Marine Corps according to Title 10 U.S. Code? a) Visit, board, search, and seizure (VBSS) training for embargo or interception operations b) Develop tactics, techniques, and equipment-use phases of amphibious operations by landing c) Narcotics/drug interdiction and illegal alien interdiction d) All of the above 142. Which of the following best define the benefits of versatility in aerospace power? (Select all that apply.) a) Versality allows aerospace forces to be employed at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels equally effectively. b) Versality allows air operations to shift quickly and decisively from one campaign objective to another c) Versatility allows aerospace forces to achieve objectives simultaneously at all three levels of war in parallel operations. 143. Aerospace Forces produce synergistic effects that are designed not to exceed separately employed individual forces. a) True b) False144. Which of the following are among the Coast Guard’s roles? (Select all that apply.) Being transferred by Presidential order to the U.S. Navy for operational purposes a) Law enforcement b) Environmental enforcement c) Environmental protection d) Ice Operations e) Search and Rescue 145. The Army can trace its origins to colonial America. a) True b) False 146. Which of the following describes the Army’s regulations, including every detail of the Soldier’s life? a) Blue Book of the Regulations for the Order and Discipline of the Troops of the United States b) The Army Regulations of 1821 c) The Constitution d) All of the above 147. During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward stopping old rivalries and conflicts? a) The end of the Cold War b) The collapse of the Warsaw Pact c) The rise of global terrorism d) The breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states 148. Which of the lessons learned during the Mexican War did the Union Navy use? a) Move forward from the sea and seize ports b) Embargo trade and blockade c) Extract without foundering and unload troops while maintaining stern to the surf d) Choices 2 and 3 e) Choices 1 and 2 149. Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) a) Long-range reconnaissance planes b) Escort carriers c) Destroyers equipped with advanced sonars d) Direction-finding equipment e) Anti-submarine weapons 150. Through which of the following strategies has the U.S. Navy retained its traditional roles while expanding into expeditionary warfare? a) Sea power concept b) “From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea c) U.S. Containment Policy151. Why was the participation of the Montford Point Marines in the amphibious assault at Saipan such a historic event? a) No Higgins boats were available b) It represented the final trial and full integration of the Armed Forces c) The marines were well-trained 152. Which of the following are examples of how the Marine Corps has adapted and evolved as an expeditionary force? (Select all that apply.) a) Amphibious operations b) MPFs and MAGTFs c) Close air support d) Helicopter-borne vertical envelopment tactics 153. In the name of strategic mobility, the Marine Corps adopted prepositioning for which of the following purposes? a) For speed and dispersion b) To provide material needed to sustain a brigade for 30 days in a potential combat zone c) For amphibious assault 154. During the 1930s, which two essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place? (Select all that apply.) a) A vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17 b) A comprehensive doctrine of air warfare c) Clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation 155. Which of the following problems faced the newly created Air Force in 1947? (Select all that apply.) a) Establishing an organization adapted to air operations b) Transitioning from propeller-driven aircraft to jet aircraft c) Modifying doctrine, strategy, and tactics to accommodate nuclear weapons d) Frequent incoming ballistic missiles e) Arranging for support services 156. Which of the following represent highlights of U.S. Air Force history? a) Design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence b) Development of the Strategic Air Command c) Expansion into space d) All of the above 157. What Services were established as precursors to the U.S. Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) a) Lighthouse Service and Revenue Cutter Service b) Bureau of Navigation c) Life Saving Service d) Steamboat Inspection Service e) Transportation Security Administration 158. USCG has always served under the Security of the Treasury, reflecting its early historical mission. a) True b) False159. The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which includes passing the wine “over the water,” a historical reference to James I, who was exiled by Oliver Cromwell. a) True b) False 160. Which of the following are considerations when hosting a formal dinner? a) Begin planning months in advance with the proposed guest list b) Printing and mailing invitations four to six weeks in advance c) Planning the menu and walking through the upcoming evening’s sequence of events d) Identifying unique cultural considerations in a foreign country e) All of the above 161. A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess? a) Ignore it as any self-generated entertainment b) Refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour c) Return the embarrassment in kind 162. Who are the caretakers of naval customs, traditions, honors, and ceremonies? a) Admirals b) Commanders c) Chief petty officers d) None of the above 163. Which core value does the following tenet represent: make decisions in the best interest of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? a) Honor b) Commitment c) Courage d) None of the above 164. Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that apply.) a) Dining-in and Mess Night b) Addressing Enlisted Marines c) Hail and Farewell d) Marine Corps Birthday Ball 165. Which of the following represents Marine core values? a) Competence b) Resolution c) Courage d) No wounded or dead Marine will ever be left on the field or unattended, regardless of the cost of bringing him in. e) All of the above 166. While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you are unsure of an enlisted Marin’s name and grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as “Good morning, Sir,” in the case of an officer. a) True b) False167. Promotions and Re-enlistments are ceremonies requiring formation in this order: (a) Personal awards presented first, (b) Promotion second, and (c) Re-enlistments third. a) True b) False 168. The fallen comrade’s toast at a mess night is the last toast to be given. a) True b) False 169. The newest and lest formal of the dinning traditions, requiring combat dress. a) Dining-Out b) Dining-In c) Combat Dining-In 170. A newer custom than Dining-In, which includes spouses and other guests. a) Dining-Out b) Dining-In c) Combat Dining-In 180. Formal dinner for the members of the military. a) Dining-Out b) Dining-In c) Combat Dining-In 181. Which of the following ceremonies affirms a “Leader among Leaders” in the USAF, using a symbol of truth, justice, and power rightly used? a) Top 3 Induction b) The order of the Sword c) Grog Bowl d) None of the above 182. Which of the following is the USCG motto? 1. “Semper Fidelis” 2. “Anchors Aweigh” 3. “Semper Paratus” 4. None of the above 183. The United States Coast Guard’s motto is Semper Paratus, meaning “always ready.” 1. True 2. False 184. Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? a) 30% b) 40% c) 50% d) 60%185. which of the following is NOT one of the major levels of mobilization? a) Full mobilization b) Limited reserve call-up c) Partial mobilization d) Presidential reserve call-up 186. Which mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support requirements of any operational mission? a) Partial mobilization (PM) b) SecDef call-up (SCU) c) Presidential reserve call-up (PRC) d) Selective mobilization (SM) 187. Which type of mobilization entails mobilizing all Reserve Component units in the existing approved force structure, as well as all individual reservists, retired military personnel, and the resources needed to meet requirements of a war or other national emergency involving an external threat to the national security, and is for the duration of the emergency plus six months? a) Full mobilization (FM) b) Partial mobilization (PM) c) Selective mobilization (SM) d) Total mobilization (TM) 189. _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. a) Adaptability b) Predictability c) Transformation d) Training 190. With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on the _____. a) Army National Guard b) Army Reserve c) Both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve d) None of the answers are correct 191. Reserve Component units train to a lesser standard than Active Component units. a) True b) False 192. The primary responsibilities of the Air Force Reserve Components, the Air Force Reserve and the Air National Guard, include airlift and air refueling. a) True b) False 193. The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. a) Army Reserve and Army National Guard b) Air Reserve and Air National Guard c) Navy Reserve and Maritime Corps Reserve d) Air National Guard and Army National Guard194. Which of the following Reserve Component is NOT part of the Department of Defense? a) Army National Guard b) Coast Guard Reserve c) Marine Corps Reserve d) Navy Reserve 195. Special Operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____objectives. a) Tactical b) Strategic or operational c) Insignificant d) Intermediate 196. Most special operations forces are _____oriented. This allows them to maintain a cultural awareness and a language capability for their assigned areas. a) Politically b) Mission c) Regionally d) Special tactics 197. Short-duration strikes and other small-scale offensive actions conducted with specialized military capabilities to seize, destroy, capture, exploit, recover, or damage designated targets in hostiles, denied, or diplomatically and/or politically sensitive environments is called _____. It differs from other offensive actions in the level of diplomatic or political risk, the operational techniques employed, and the degree of discriminate and precise use of force to achieve specific objectives. a) Special reconnaissance b) Counterterrorism c) Direct action d) Unconventional warfare 198. Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. a) Strategic reporting b) Foreign internal defense c) Special reconnaissance d) Unconventional warfare 199. Operations and activities that are conducted to enable a resistance movement or insurgency to coerce, disrupt, or overthrow a government or occupying power by operating through or with an underground, auxiliary, and guerrilla force in a denied are known as _____. It is a core activity is special operations forces. a) Unconventional warfare b) Civil affairs operations c) Special reconnaissance d) Direct action200. Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command responsible for providing mission capable operations forces to the geographic combatant commanders. a) United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM) b) United States Strategic Command (USSSTRATCOM) c) United States Special operations (USSOCOM) d) United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) 201. After the attacks if 9/11, USSCOM assumed an operational role in synchronizing the DoD effort in _____. a) Support of the U.S. government response to pandemic influenza b) Global operations against terrorist networks c) Cyberspace operations d) Combating weapons of mass destruction 202. The cornerstone of the Special Forces Group’s capability is the _____. A highly trained team of 12 SF Green Berets. a) Army Special Operations Aviation (ARSOA) b) Military Information Support Operations Command (MISOC) c) Operational Detachment-Alpha (ODA) d) Ranger Regiment 203. The _____ is a lethal, agile, and flexible, capable of executing a myriad of complex, joint special operations missions in support of U.S. policy and objectives. a) 101st Airborne Division (Air Assault) b) 160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment c) 82nd Airborne Division d) 75th Ranger Regiment 204. These units support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war and are known as _____ teams. a) Foreign are officers b) Political advisors c) Civil affairs d) Special forces 205. The units manned by Special Warfare Combatant-craft Crewmen who operate and maintain a variety of combatant and other craft for maritime special operations are known as _____. a) SEAL Platoons b) Special Boat Teams c) SEAL Delivery Teams d) Special Tactics Groups 206. The 193rd Special Operations Wing of the Pennsylvania Air National Guard provides the holy _____ platform in the Department of Defense with the EC-130 Commando Solo. a) Airborne early warning b) Airborne psychological operations c) Electronic warfare d) Combat aviation advisor207. The Air Force's Battlefield Airmen or _____ Teams frequently operate with Navy Seals, Army Rangers, and Special Forces in direct action, airfield seizure, and personnel recovery missions in hostile territory. a) Air commando b) Special tactics c) Aero Scout d) Special Warfare 208. This MARSOC element trains, advises, and assists friendly host nation forces – including naval and maritime military and paramilitary forces – to enable them to support their governments’ internal security and stability, to counter subversion, and to reduce the risk of violence from internal and external threats. It has the capability to form the nucleus of a Joint Special Operations Task Force. a) Marine Special Operations Regiment (MSOR) b) Marine Air-Ground Task Force (MAGTF) c) Marine Expeditionary Brigade (MEB) d) Marine Special Operations Support Group (MSOSG) 209. A special operations command-forward can transition to a _____. a) Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC) b) Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF) c) Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC) d) Joint Special Operations Command (JSCO) 210. Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner, however, they comprise only a small part of the total force – a little over ____ percent of the total force. a) 10 b) 5 c) 2 d) 15 211. In joint SOF mission planning, a demanding fill-up, real-time _____ can mitigate much of the inherent risks of many SOF missions. It is key to the success of complex joint SOF missions. a) Battle rhythm b) Rehearsal c) Training exercise d) Firing course 212. Which of the following is NOT one of the SOF Truths? a) Humans are more important than hardware b) Quality always beats quantity c) SOF cannot be mass produced d) Competent SOF cannot be created after emergencies occur 213. Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. vlues, the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. a) Geneva convention b) Constitutional principles c) Military law d) Uniformed code of military justice214. This term refers to the aggregate of features and trails that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other. a) Competence b) Character c) Justice d) Leadership 215. The purposeful reliance by one Service on another Service’s capabilities to maximize complementary and reinforcing effects on both (i.e., synergy) is known as _____. a) Mutual trust b) Bilateral agreement c) Joint interdependence d) Joint requirement 216. The concept of "jointness" must be advanced through continual joint force development efforst. What does that statement imply? a) Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint development b) “Jointness” is not an automatic Service state of being c) Service members naturally embrace “jointness” d) Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence on one’s career 217. _____ prepares individuals, joint forces, or joint staffs to respond to strategic, operational, or tactical requirements considered necessary by the Combatant Commanders to esecute their assigned or anticipated missions. a) Joint doctrine b) Joint education c) Joint training d) Joint concepts 218. Successful mission command demands that subordinate leaders at all echelons exercise disciplined initiative, acting aggressively and independently to accomplish the mission. a) True b) False 219. Successful mission command demands that subordinate leaders at all echelons exercise _____. a) Regularly b) Cautious power c) Risk supervision d) Disciplined initiative 220. Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. a) Rank b) Delegation of authority c) Maturity d) Experience221. Taking steps and precautions to reduce the likelihood of something negative or hazardous happening, or reducing the extent of the exposure to a risk, is called risk modification. a) True b) False 222. This hostile environment often presents complex emotional and ethical dilemmas. a) Irregular warfare environment b) Major combat operations c) Humanitarian assistance operations d) Support for civil authorities 223. Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media? a) Network security intrusions b) Espionage c) Personal identity theft and impersonation d) All of the above 224. Military members are expected to maintain a higher standard of conduct than might be accepted in the larger society and are subject to the rules and regulations of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. a) True b) False 225. A state of well-being in which one is aware of personal abilities and limits, copes well with life stresses, works productively and effectively, and contributes [positively to his or her communities is known as _____. It describes a healthy body, mind, and spirit which can be seen in a person’s ability to deal with typical stressors. a) Physical fitness b) Psychological health c) Post-traumatic stress disorder d) Personal awareness 276. Exposure to stressful situations, trauma, and combat will cause a response and resulting change. These responses and changes will all be negative. a) True b) False 277. Symptoms of _____ include depression, substance abuse, problems of memory and cognition, and other physical and mental health problems. It is also associated with difficulties in social or family life, including occupational instability, marital problems, family discord, and difficulties in parenting. a) Post-traumatic stress disorder b) psychiatric disorder syndrome c) Psychological trauma dysfunction d) Traumatic brain injury278. Symptoms of _____ include headaches, memory gaps, confusion, attention problems, irritability, ringing in the ears, dizziness, nausea, fatigue, slowed reaction time, sleep difficulty, and performance difficulties. a) Post-traumatic stress disorder b) Psychiatric disorder syndrome c) Phycological trauma dysfunction d) Traumatic brain injury 279. is an integrative and holistic framework to better understand, assess, and maintain the fitness of the joint force. a) Wounded Warrior Program b) Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program c) Physical Fitness Testing (PTF) Program d) Performance Evaluation Program 280. 1) “The Noncommissioned Officer and Petty Officer: Backbone of the Armed Forces (2013)" states that, "To be successful in building and sustaining [a solid and trustworthy] relationship with officers, NCOs/POs must be _____." a) educated and empowered b) properly trained and equipped c) competent, credible, and capable d) provided with intent and closely supervised 281. Which of the following is NOT a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff? a) Chief of Naval Operations b) Commandant of the Coast Guard c) Commandant of the Marine Corps d) Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 282. What are the Army's primary missions? (Select all that apply.) a) Secure the United States from direct attack b) Preparing now for an uncertain future c) Responding to crisis d) Shaping the international environment 283. Exposure to stressful situations trauma, and combat will cause a response and resulting change. These responses and changes will all be negative. a) True b) False 284. The _____ is a lethal, agile, and flexible force, capable of executing a myriad of complex, joint special operations missions in support of U.S. policy and objectives. a) 82nd Airborne Division b) 75th Ranger Regiment c) 160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment d) 101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)285. The pinning ceremony signifies which of the following? a) transition from the role of a follower to that of a leader b) completion of a successful mission c) retirement of a sailor 286. The main idea of the Chairman's White Paper, "America's Military - A Profession of Arms" is to: a) open an debate on whether the Armed Forces is a profession b) establish a new way of thinking about the profession of arms c) renew our commitment to the Profession of Arms d) identify the reasons why the Armed Forces is considered a profession 287. Between 1777 and 1778, Baron Friedrich Willhelm von Steuben taught the Continental Army what aspects of war? (Select all that apply.) a) bayonet usage b) rifle cartridges loading c) drill formations d) proper care of equipment 288. Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? a) Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas b) Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options c) Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation d) Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships 289. _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. a) Support for civil authorities b) Major combat operations c) Humanitarian assistance operations d) Peacekeeping operations 290. Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for their physical security. a) True b) False 291. Which of the following would be initiated into the "Top 3"? a) Sgt. Maj. b) Master Sgt. c) Col. 292. Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces. a) True b) False 293. The U.S. Army and U.S. Navy are under the same jurisdiction. a) True b) False294. Leaders in a joint environment have no reason to be familiar with the rules and regulations concerning maintaining good order and discipline within their commands including the punitive articles of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. a) True b) False 295. Factors that inhibit interoperability are _____. a) constant efforts to eliminate sources of confusion b) visits to assess multinational capabilities c) multinational training exercises d) refusal to cooperate with partners; restricted access to national proprietary defense information 296. While its missions might include forcible entry operations and peace enforcement, humanitarian assistance is not within the Marine Corps' purview. a) True b) False 297. The comprehensive doctrine of air warfare supported the conclusion that high-altitude, daylight bombing of an enemy's war-supporting industries and transportation systems could win a war. a) True b) False 298. There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. Which one of the following IS NOT one of the eight domains? a) Psychological Fitness b) Spiritual Fitness c) Environmental Fitness d) Organizational Fitness 299. Which of the following are expected of every Marine in battle? (Select all that apply.) a) Courage b) no wounded or dead Marine will ever be left on the field or unattended, regardless of the cost of bringing him in c) resolution d) competence 300. The direction or exercise of authority over subordinate or other organizations with respect to administration and support, including organization of Service forces, control of resources and equipment, personnel management, unit logistics, individual and unit training, readiness, mobilization, demobilization, discipline, and other matters not included in the operational missions of the subordinate or other organizations is known as _____. a) Combatant Command (COCOM) b) Administrative Control (ADCON) c) Operational Control (OPCON) d) Tactical Control (TACON)301. Who is considered the "Father of the Coast Guard?" a) Douglas Munro b) Ida Lewis c) Sumner Kimball d) Alexander Hamilton 302. The first step in solving a problem is to _____. a) gather multiple perspectives on the problem b) report the problem to the commanding officer c) define the problem d) draft an action plan 303. The first-ever National Defense Strategy (NDS) was initiated by Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) Rumsfeld in 2005, and then updated in 2008 by SECDEF Gates. However in 2012, SECDEF Panetta released Sustaining U.S. Global Leadership: Priorities for 21st Century Defense, sometimes referred to as the _____, and widely understood to be the replacement for the NDS. This strategic document was written to identify defense priorities in the face of budget cuts. a) National Military Strategy b) Defense Strategic Guidance (correct) c) Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan d) National Security Strategy 305. Joint _____ provides the fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in coordinated action toward a common objective. a) doctrine 306. What are the Army's primary missions? (Select all that apply.) b) responding to crises c) shaping the international environment d) preparing now for an uncertain future 307. The principle of joint operations designed to ensure the commitment necessary to attain the national strategic end state is _____. a) Perseverance SEJPME II 308) Which of the following actions may help overcome the staff organization challenge of integrating communication-related activities? a) ensure these tasks are led only by the J3 or J5 b) ensure there is no divide between primary agency "inform" role and "influence" activities c) establish some form of communication directorate or cell d) creating a passive communication posture309) Which of the following statements concerning operational-level branch and sequel planning is TRUE? a) Much of the information precipitating operational commanders' major decisions across all event horizons will likely come off the JOC floor, rather than through other venues. b) Some branch and sequel planning at the operational level may not result in precise, detailed predictive decision points with associated CCIRs. c) Branch and sequel planning, at the operational level, results in precise, predictive decision points with associated CCIRs d) Decision points supporting branch and sequel execution are normally extremely well defined and quantitative requiring minimal commander interface for decision. 310) This critical path involves the use of a joint targeting working group (JTWG) that enables selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropriate lethal and supporting nonlethal responses. a) lethal actions b) inform and influence c) stability d) steering 311) Planning for communication strategy involves the careful alignment of themes and messages with interagency organizations and other stakeholders. a) True b) False 312) The direction or exercise of authority over subordinate or other organizations with respect to administration and support, including organization of Service forces, control of resources and equipment, personnel management, unit logistics, individual and unit training, readiness, mobilization, demobilization, discipline, and other matters not included in the operational missions of the subordinate or other organizations is known as _____. a) combatant command b) operational control c) tactical control d) administrative control 313) Force protection is a required activity throughout each joint operation or campaign phase. This type of operation is a(n) _____ operation. a) planning b) offensive c) defensive d) stability 314) The joint communications system includes synchronization of war fighting functions, such as locating and identifying friendly forces, and supports the conduct of operations. This contributes to _____. a) tactical flexibility b) strategic agility c) network-enabled operationsd) operational reach 315) Which of the following are challenges commanders face in identifying key audiences? (Select all that apply.) a) Key audiences may overlap local, regional, and global arenas. b) Key audiences may be adversarial, neutral, or friendly. c) Key audiences do not include groups of people who are hostile to the mission. d) Key audiences will all have the same reactions to words, actions, and images. e) Key audiences could be any group of people who may impact the joint task force's operations. 316) What effect(s) can occur when commanders retain tactical level decision-oriented CCIRs at the operational level in lieu of decentralizing CCIRs associated with decentralized decision approval levels? a) slows subordinates' agility b) adds unnecessary reporting requirements c) shifts HQ's focus away from setting conditions d) All of the answers are correct 317) Which of the following provides the necessary upfront direction for the synchronization of staff planning efforts for both lethal and nonlethal activities? a) objectives, priorities, and commander's critical information requirements (CCIR) b) planning guidance, commander's intent, and an operational framework c) targeting data, diplomatic information military and economic (DIME) data, and planning guidance d) objectives, priorities, and an operational framework 318) The principles of personnel support are defined as having a _____ that is _____. a) command emphasis; responsive, and responsible b) staff emphasis; responsive and responsible c) command emphasis; synchronized, unified, and flexible d) staff emphasis; synchronized, unified, and flexible 319) The operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. a) Service Chiefs b) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff c) Combatant Commanders d) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and then to the Combatant Commanders 320) Commanders have recognized the need for some form of staff organization that can _____ to inform or influence the audiences in support of desired outcomes. (Select all that apply.) a) craft the themes and messages b) synchronize actions, words, and images c) direct communication strategy through a stove-piped process d) remain passive in the information environment321) A key function of the J2 is to integrate outside stakeholders into intelligence planning and operations. The J2 can support the Joint Force Commander by integrating _____. a) state and local militias b) nongovernmental organizations c) partner nation intelligence capabilities and assessments d) interested UN countries 322) Automation technology can be used to reduce the burden of sorting through large amounts of _____ to enable an analyst to correlate various sets of _____ to make an assessment. a) data, information b) information, intelligence c) intelligence, data d) data, intelligence 333) Which of the following joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI ) elements are defined as "enabling"? (Select all that apply.) a) Contract support b) Multinational support c) Force protection d) Legal support 334) What is a target? a) All enemy entities or objects b) An offensive of defensive enemy weapon considered for engagement or action c) An entity or object considered for lethal fires d) An entity or object considered for possible engagement or action 335) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media? a) network security intrusions b) espionage c) all of the answers are correct d) none of the answers are correct e) personal identity theft and impersonation 336) The _____ serves as the diplomatically accredited defense attaché (DATT) and chief of the security assistance organization (SAO). a) U.S. Defense Attaché Office b) chief of mission c) joint task force liaison officer d) senior defense official337) Which of the following statements BEST defines the purpose of joint headquarters battle rhythms? a) The joint headquarters battle rhythm is a deliberate daily cycle of command, staff, and unit activities intended to provide the commander with a method to track current operational events. b) The joint headquarters battle rhythm is a deliberate daily cycle of command and staff activities intended to control the flow of future operations. c) The joint headquarters battle rhythm is a deliberate daily cycle of command, staff, and unit activities intended to synchronize current and future operations. d) The joint headquarters battle rhythm is a deliberate daily cycle of command and staff activities that enable the commander to accomplish mission objectives. 338) Which of the following statement(s) describes the benefit of the adaptive planning process? (Select all that apply.) a) centers on a strategic-level "Capstone" plan that provides the framework for other plans that address contingencies that could happen in the geographic combatant command's areas of responsibility b) allows for continual update and shared awareness of the plans c) ensures each of the contingency plans take into account national interests so that actions addressing one contingency do not inadvertently impact U.S. national interests in another area 339) Which of the following can be described as the most powerful command relationship in terms of gaining access to additional capabilities? a) support b) tactical control (TACON) c) operational control (OPCON) 340) Which of the following National Intelligence leadership positions advises the Secretary of Defense and Deputy Secretary of Defense, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, combatant commanders (CCDRs), and USD(I) on all matters concerning military and military-related intelligence. a) Director of the Defense Intelligence Agency b) Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence c) Director of National Intelligence d) Joint Staff Directorate for Intelligence, J2 341) _____ is the routine contact and interaction between U.S. Armed Forces and another nation's armed forces, foreign and domestic civilian authorities, and agencies to build trust and confidence. a) Security b) Large-scale combat c) Relief and reconstruction d) Military engagement342) During _____, the Joint Force Commander will identify the operational problems to solve and determine where to focus the staff's efforts. a) Mission Analysis b) Course of Action Development c) Planning Initiation d) Plan or Order Development 343) How can the sustainment community provide better support to the components and the commander's decision-making? a) The sustainment community provides better support when it comes together as a team that is fully integrated across the staff. b) The sustainment community provides better support when its numbers of available staff personnel are commensurate with the size of the tactical force it is designated to support. c) The sustainment community provides better support when it focuses closer on the tactical fight. 344) Which of the following statements is true regarding organizing the various staff sections as a sustainment team? a) The sustainment team should always be organized under the oversight of a deputy commanding general - support (DCG-S). b) The primary JFC staff sections that would make up the sustainment team include the J1, J4, J8, Engineer, Surgeon, Legal, and Chaplain. c) Organizing the staff as a sustainment team is never effective at the component level and below. 345) The J2 has overall staff responsibility for consolidating and recommending _____. a) priority intelligence requirements (PIRs) b) host nation information requirements (HNIRs) c) specific information requirements (SIRs) d) friendly force information requirements (FFIRs) 346) Which of the following is a criterion in conducting assessments using measures of performance (MOP)? a) straight forward and are drawn directly from assigned tasks in the plan b) upfront correct determination of measures-of-effectiveness planning c) enable an accurate visualization of progress toward mission accomplishment d) used to assess changes in system behavior, capability, or operational environment 347) For the execution of a successful communication strategy, staff synchronization _____. (Select all that apply.) a) requires cross-talk and cross-representation b) integrates products c) breaks down staff planning into clearly defined major subsets d) does not impact actions, words, and images e) relies on informed commander's guidancef) begins at the execution phase of operations 348) Which of the following statements concerning staff assessment products is FALSE? a) Recommendations are normally not developed by the assessment cell, but rather by the affected/responsible staff focused on specific lines of operation. b) Staff assessments products do not necessarily have to support the commander's requirements, as long as the products provide meaningful information. c) Staff assessments should provide recommendations to the commander based upon the assessment. 349) Which of the following statements describes characteristics of a well-written problem statement that can help focus the staff and subsequent planning process? a) The problem statement should mirror the mission statement to avoid any ambiguity as to what the end state should be. b) The problem statement should not allow external stakeholders to gain a shared, common understanding, but should lead the commander and planners to quickly narrow the focus. c) The problem statement should not pose a solution, accounts for current circumstances, and does not predict what future actions may occur. d) The problem statement should focus on solving the problem and should directly, or implicitly, propose solutions. 350) What is the primary goal of operational design? a) Conceive and construct and the framework that underpins a campaign or major operation plan b) Understand the ends, ways, and means c) Link tactical action to strategic objectives d) Visualize the ultimate operational approach 351) The _____ is the principal assistant to the President in all matters relating to the DoD. a) SecDef b) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff c) Inspector General of the DoD d) JCS Vice Chairman 352) The purpose of field maintenance operations is to repair, modify, rebuild, and overhaul both entire systems and components and is directly linked to life cycle systems readiness. a) True b) False 353) Which of the following are some of the key elements of the shape phase of joint operations? (Select all that apply.) a) organizing and training b) balance and simultaneity c) stability operations d) conduct of rehearsals354) What information management (IM) activity is normally a theater-level decision because of its significant second order effects, such as interoperability within the joint force, fielding and pre-mission training? a) battle rhythm development maintenance procedures b) determination of the networks, databases, and software applications c) use of commander's critical information requirements (CCIR) to guide and prioritize information flow d) development of procedures into a formalized, authoritative document 355) Which of the following are key elements of a communication strategy? a) narrative, theme, and message b) words, actions, and audience c) condition, opportunity, and audience d) stability, peace, and prosperity 356) Which statement best describes what is meant by the term "battle for the narrative?" a) ongoing "information war" between competing nations, entities, and/or ideologies to gain superiority over the adversary's narrative and align communication efforts b) race to exploit and change the perceptions of our international partners in order to forward the goals and intentions of the U.S. Government and its allies c) challenge of constructing similar strategic narratives distributed throughout multiple networks to reinforce the beliefs, perceptions, attitudes, and behaviors of our coalition partners and host nation governments d) struggle to be first to control the messages that only the adversaries will hear in order to inform and/or influence their beliefs and perspectives 357) Knowledge management (KM) and information management (IM) are two distinct activities that are necessary aspects in today's headquarters decision-making. Which two overarching insights clearly delineate their distinctions? a) KM is people-centric. IM is information technology-centric. b) KM is technology-centric. IM is people-centric. c) KM focuses on the rules, procedures, applications, and tools. IM focuses on the players gaining and sharing knowledge to aid decision making. d) KM balances the need-to-share with the need-to-know. IM leverages the different perspectives of the myriad of players. 358) _____ focus on the enemy or adversary and the operational environment and drive intelligence collection and production requirements. a) Priority intelligence requirements b) Friendly force information requirements c) Tactical information requirements d) Commander's critical information requirements359) The use of capabilities oriented functional task forces, such as special operations and counter improvised explosive device (IED) task forces, is a significant evolution in joint task force organization. a) True b) False 360) How can headquarters staff personnel effectively deal with the challenge of unplanned demands from higher headquarters that may affect the battle rhythm? a) The battle rhythm must be sufficiently flexible to provide the support to the commander in dealing with the event, and still be able to function in the commander's absence. b) Headquarters staff personnel should maintain constant communication with higher headquarters in an effort to prevent unplanned events which may affect the battle rhythm. c) The battle rhythm should be managed by a J-code director or deputy when necessary, so that the commander can deal with the unplanned event. d) The battle rhythm should be packed with events that ensure all demands from higher headquarters are being met, thereby minimizing unplanned events. 361) _____ is an operation that encompasses comprehensive civilian and military efforts taken to defeat an insurgency and to address any core grievances. a) Counterinsurgency b) Counterterrorism c) Foreign internal defense d) Stability 362) When framing the interorganizational coordination process, the first question to be asked will usually be: a) Who are the appropriate mission partners? b) How are you sharing interorganizational perspectives within your organization to enrich the Commander's decision making? c) How are you coordinating with your mission partners? d) How will you share information with mission partners? 363) Communication strategy is not a separate or parallel effort, but an integral part of the commander's overall strategy that ensures a shared understanding of the commander's vision, mission, and objectives. a) True b) False 364) During Crisis Action Planning, COA _____ is an objective process where the staff considers COAs independently of one another, against a set of criteria established by the Joint Force Commander and staff. a) analysis b) elimination c) comparison d) development365) The mayor of San Antonio has asked the 502 Wing Commander for security forces and military police from Fort Sam Houston to assist the local police during the annual fiesta events. The mayor wants the military to assist with traffic and crowd control. Can Title 10 military personnel conduct this type of support? a) yes, because this type of support is permissible under the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act b) yes, because the mayor requested the support only for traffic and crowd control c) yes, but only for Army and Air Force personnel; Marines and Navy personnel cannot provide support d) no, traffic control and crowd control is a violation of the Posse Comitatus Act 366) The authority to protect the resilience and redundancy of critical civilian infrastructure resides with the National Security Agency (NSA) under which U.S. Code? a) Title 22 b) Title 14 c) Title 50 d) Title 10 367) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. a) True b) False 368. _____ is a violent struggle among state and non-state actors for legitimacy and influence over the relevant population(s). If favors indirect and asymmetric approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capacities, in order to erode an adversary’s power, influence, and will. a) Asymmetric Warfare b) Traditional War c) Joint Warfare d) Irregular Warfare 369. The ability of the U.S. to achieve its national strategic objectives is dependent on the effectiveness of the U.S. Government in employing the instruments of national power, which are _____. a) Diplomatic, Informational, Military, and Economic b) Diplomacy, Defense, and Development c) Political, Military, Economic, Social, Informational, and Infrastructure d) Culture, Industry, Technology, and Geography 370. The President of the United States provides guidance for developing, applying, and coordinating the instruments of national power to achieve objectives that contribute to national security in the _____. a) National Defense Strategy b) National Security Strategy c) Unified Command Plan d) National Military Strategy371. The _____, signed by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, provides guidance for distribution and applying military power to attain national strategic objectives. It describes the Armed Forces’ plan to achieve military objectives in the near term and provides the vision for ensuring they remain decisive in the future. a) Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan b) National Security Strategy c) National Defense Strategy d) National Military Strategy 372. The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. a) President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy b) President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State c) President, Vice President, Secretary od State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury d) President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security 373. The _____ is the President's principle forum for considering national security maters with his senior national security advisors and cabinet officials. a) Secretary of Homeland Security b) Secretary of Defense c) National Security Council d) Joint Chiefs of Staff 374. The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. a) Service Chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Secretaries of the Military Departments and then to the Combatant Commanders c) Combatant Commanders via the Service Chiefs d) Secretaries of the Military Departments and then to the Service Chiefs 375. The _____ outranks all other officers of the Armed Forces, but may not exercise military command over any of the Armed Forces. This officer is the principle military advisor to the President, the National Security Council, and the Secretary of Defense. a) Chairman of he Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Supreme Allied Commander c) Combatant Commander d) War Council 376. A Unified or Specified Command with a broad continuing mission under a single commander established and so designated by the President, through the Secretary of Defense and with the advice and assistance of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff is called a _____. a) Joint Task Force b) Subordinate Unified Command c) Combatant Command d) Component Command377. A _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the SecDef, a Combatant Commander, a Subordinate Commander, or an existing JTF Commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. a) Combatant Command b) Subordinate Unified Command c) Joint Task Force d) Service Component Command 378. The term Joint Force Commander refers exclusively to the following three (3) types of commanders: a) Combatant Commander, Subordinate Unified Commander, and Joint Task Force Commander b) Combatant Commander, Service Component Commander, and Functional Component Commander c) Joint Task Force Commander, Functional Component Commander, and Subunified Commander d) Service Component Commander, Combatant Commander, and Joint Task Force Commander 379. Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) Joint Force Land Component Commander (JFLCC), and Joint Force Maritime Component Commander (JFMCC) are all examples of _____. a) Joint Task Force Commanders b) Subunified Commanders c) Service Component Commanders d) Functional Component Commanders 380. These commands are established by Combatant Commanders when authorized by the SecDef through the CJCS to conduct operations on a continuing basis in accordance with the criteria set forth for Unified Commands. They may be established on a geographic area basis such as United States Forces Japan or a functional basis such as Special Operations Command, Pacific. a) Combatant Commands b) Subordinate Unified Commands c) Joint Task Forces d) Functional Component Commands 381. Combatant Commanders exercise _____ (command authority) over assigned forces. This is the broadest command authority and may NOT be delegated or transferred. a) Administrative Control (ADCON) b) Operational Control (OPCON) c) Tactical Control (TACON) d) Combatant Command (COCOM) 382. _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigned tasks, designating objectives, and giving authorization direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command. a) Combatant Command b) Operational Control (OPCON) c) Tactical Control (TACON) d) Administrative Control (ADCON)383. The four categories of support are _____. a) General, tactical, operational, and strategic b) Tactical, operational, direct, and common c) General, mutual, direct, and close d) Reinforcing, mutual, complementary, and close 384. Command authority over assigned or attached forces or commands, or military capability of forces made available for tasking, that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned is known as _____. a) Administrative Control (ADCON) b) Operational Control (OPCON) c) Tactical Control (TACON) d) Combatant Command (COCOM) 385. The command authority established by a superior commander between subordinate commanders when one organization should aid, protect, complement, or sustain another force is called _____. a) Combatant Command b) Administrative Control c) Operational Control d) Support 386. The _____, signed by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, provides guidance for distributing and applying military power to attain national strategic objectives. It describes the Armed Forces' plan to achieve military objectives in the near term and provides the vision for ensuring they remain decisive in the future. a) National Defense Strategy b) National Military Strategy c) Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan d) National Security Strategy 387. The statutory advisers to the National Security Council are the _____. a) Director of National Intelligence and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Director of Central Intelligence and the Attorney General c) National Security Advisor and the Economic Advisor d) Secretary of Homeland Security and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 388. The document, approved by the President, which delineates the general geographical area of responsibility for geographic combatant commanders and specifies functional responsibilities for functional combatant commanders, is called the _____. a) Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan b) National Security Strategy c) Unified Command Plan d) Guidance for Employment of the Force 389. The Joint Staff is under exclusive authority, direction, and control of the _____. a) Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff c) Combatant Commanders d) Service Chiefs390. Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values, the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. a) Geneva convention b) Constitutional principles c) Military law d) Uniformed code of military justice 391. This term refers to the aggregate of features and trails that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other. a) Competence b) Character c) Justice d) Leadership 392. The purposeful reliance by one Service on another Service’s capabilities to maximize complementary and reinforcing effects of both (i.e., synergy) is known as _____. a) Mutual trust b) Bilateral agreement c) Joint interdependence d) Joint requirement 393. The concept of “jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development efforts. What does that statement imply? a) Joint Staff Leaders do not endorse joint force development b) “Jointness” is not an automatic Service state of being c) Service members naturally embrace “jointness” d) Joint force development is a “one-time” occurrence in one’s career 394. _____ prepares individuals, joint forces, or joint staffs to respond to strategic, operational, o tactical requirements considered necessary by the Combatant Commanders to execute their assigned or anticipated missions. a) Joint doctrine b) Joint education c) Joint training d) Joint concepts 395. Successful mission command demands that subordinate leaders at all echelons exercise disciplined initiative, acting aggressively and independently to accomplish the mission. a) True b) False 396. Successful mission command demands that subordinate leaders at all echelons exercise _____. a) Regularly b) Cautious power c) Risk supervision d) Disciplined initiative397. Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. a) Rank b) Delegation of authority c) Maturity d) Experience 398. Taking steps and precautions to reduce the likelihood of something negative or hazardous happening, or reducing the extent of the exposure to a risk, is called risk modification? a) True b) False 399. This hostile environment often presents complex emotional and ethical dilemmas. a) Irregular warfare environment b) Major combat operations c) Humanitarian operations d) Support for civil authorities 400. If something of an ethical nature is ever in doubt, commanders should contact their legal counsel for advice. a) True b) False 401. Military member to maintain a higher standard of conduct than might be accepted in the larger society and are subject to the rules and regulations of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. a) True b) False 402. A state of well-being in which one is aware of personal abilities and limits, copes well with life stresses, works productively and effectively, and contributes positively to his or her communities is known as _____. It describes a healthy body, mind, and spirit which can be seen in a person’s ability to deal with typical stressors. a) Physical fitness b) Psychological health c) Post-traumatic stress disorder d) Personal awareness 403. Exposure to stressful situations, trauma, and combat will cause a response and resulting change. These responses and changes will all be negative. a) True b) False 404. Symptoms of _____ include depression, substance abuse, problems of memory and cognition, and other physical and mental health problems. It is also associated with difficulties in social or family life, including occupational instability, mental problems, family discord, and difficulties in parenting. a) Post-traumatic stress disorder b) Psychiatric disorder syndrome c) Psychological trauma dysfunction d) Traumatic brain injury405. Typical signs of _____ include headaches, memory gaps, confusion, attention problems, irritability, ringing in the ears, dizziness, nausea, fatigue, slowed reaction time, sleep difficulty, and performance difficulties. a) Port-traumatic stress disorder b) Psychiatric disorder syndrome c) Psychological dysfunction d) Traumatic brain injury 406. Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service. a) Teamwork b) Tolerance c) Resilience d) Unity of effort 407. _____ is an integrative and holistic framework to better understand, assess, and maintain the fitness of the joint force. a) Wounded Warrior Program b) Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program c) Physical Fitness Testing (PFT) Program d) Performance Evaluation Program 408. The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success. a) True b) False 409. Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others' experiences - both positive and negative. a) seek out professional assistance b) know all of the facts c) acknowledge our own prejudice d) critically think about 410. Concussion is a term many service members prefer to use instead of "brain injury" when discussing head injuries (mild traumatic brain injuries or mTBI). a) True b) False 411. U.S. Law, Title 10, USC, Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. a) Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Service Chiefs c) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff d) Secretary of Defense412. U.S. military service is based on values that U.S. military experience has proven to be vital for operational success. These values adhere to the most idealistic societal norms, are common to all the Services, and represent the essence of military professionalism. The five values we discussed that entail "Joint Service" consist of: duty, honor, courage, integrity, and selfless service. a) True b) False 413. Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases. a) True b) False 414. The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. a) experience b) integrity c) competence d) physical courage 415. The _____ focuses on planning and execution of operations using operational art to develop strategies, campaigns, and operations and employ military forces by integrating ends, ways, and means. a) Strategic level b) Operational level c) Tactical level d) Political level 416. Read the following scenario, and as you read it, think about the 12 Principles of Joint Operations. Each principle applies to the described situation in some capacity, but consider their relative importance for this particular scenario. In the boxes provided below, indicate whether the principle listed is MOST RELEVANT or LEAST RELEVANT to the scenario by typing in your response. A sometimes-ally of the United States requests U.S. support in maintaining stability during an insurgent uprising. The U.S. agrees to lead a multinational peace-keeping force in the volatile country, since supporting the legitimate government adds stability to a key strategic region. The insurgents comprise of a number of radical groups that follow a shared political ideology and collectively seek economic control within the region. They appear to be funded by narcotics cartels and organized crime syndicates in Central and Northern South America. The insurgents use a variety of disruptive, irregular warfare tactics to exert their influence, including the use of Improvised Explosive Devices (IEDs), ambushes on peace-keeping forces, civilian kidnapping, graft, and civilian extortion. U.S. forces have also detected numerous cyber-attacks that appear to originate from insurgent sources; however, none of these have been successful a) Objective LEAST RELEVANT b) Offensive LEAST RELEVANT c) Mass LEAST RELEVANT d) Economy of Force MOST RELEVANT e) Maneuver LEAST RELEVANTf) Unity of Command MOST RELEVANT g) Security MOST RELEVANT h) Surprise LEAST RELEVANT i) Simplicity LEAST RELEVANT j) Restraint MOST RELEVANT k) Perseverance MOST RELEVANT l) Legitimacy MOST RELEVANT Which principles did you rank as among the most important? Explain why. Restraint, perseverance, and legitimacy were ranked among the most important because these principles directly support irregular warfare conditions, such as those described in the scenario. Security was also ranked highly, because the scenario opposition forces use irregular means, such as IEDs and ambush attacks. Next, Economy of Force was ranked among the top principles because stability operations must be carried out with the upmost efficiency, so that the U.S. achieves an optimal return on investment. Finally, because the mission involves a multinational coalition, Unity of Command takes on greater priority; coordination among forces becomes more challenging as a greater number of units, agencies, and countries become involved. Which principles did you rank as among the least important? Explain why. Having a clear objective is vital. However, since the strategic objective in this scenario is to maintain stability in an ally's country, developing more detailed operational objectives takes on comparatively less significance. Similarly, since the mission involves stabilization, versus aggression, taking offensive action becomes less important, as is the element of surprise, the exploitation of maneuver, and the concentration of a large mass of combat power. Finally, while simplicity is important (particularly in multinational operations), it is less vital in the described scenario; given the complexity of the situation, simple responses may not be sufficient. 417. The following image is a concept map for you to review. Note that there are several empty boxes on the map labeled "Question 1" through "Question 5". In the boxes provided below, choose the proper concept for each of these empty boxes by typing in your response in the space provided.Question 1: Which of the following concepts best fits this box? (Directing, Operations, Security, Communications, or Financing): Security Question 2: Which of the following concepts best fits this box? (Share information, Reporting an event, Establishing mutual security, Communicating with leaders in the area, or Counterinsurgency): Share Information Question 3: Which of the following concepts best fits this box? (Joint Communications, Joint Maneuvers, Joint Action Planning, Joint Matters, or Joint Forces): Joint Matters vs Joint Force Question 4: This is the purposeful reliance by one Service on another Service's capabilities to maximize complementary and reinforcing effects of both, with the degree of interdependence varying with specific circumstances. (Joint Agreement, Joint Independence, Joint Interdependence, Joint Dependence, or Joint Cooperation): Joint Interdependence Question 5: Which of the following concepts best fits this box? (Associate, Develop, Refine, Collaborate, or Synchronize): Synchronize 418. The _____ system provides many things, including means by which the President and the SecDef can receive warnings and intelligence so that accurate and timely decisions can be made. Nuclear Command and Control Defense Continuity National Military Command Joint Force Commander’s Communication419. Think about the module you just completed. What are three things you already knew about this material, three things you learned, and three things you would like to learn more about. Record your answers below: I already knew 1. 2. 3. I just learned 1. 2. 3. I would like to learn more 1. 2. 3. 420. As an example of General vs. Specialized Forces, Navy and Air Force Service members, accustomed to working with enlisted personnel who are specialized technicians, may approach joint staff work from a more _____ perspective than that of their ground Service member counterparts. a) Technical or managerial b) Centralized c) Static d) Assessing 421. A _____ is a series of related major operations aimed at achieving strategic and operational objectives within a given time and space. a) mission b) campaign c) function d) engagement 422. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to defend national interests, not only in conflict but through preventative measures to deter potential adversaries who could threaten the vital interests of the U.S. or its partners. a) Provide a stabilizing presence b) Project power despite anti-access/area denial challenges c) Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent d) Deter and defeat aggression423. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This type of command is composed of significant assigned components of two or more Military Departments. a) Specified Combatant Command b) Unified Combatant Command c) Subordinate Unified Command d) Joint Task Force 424. _____ is the employment of available weapons and other systems to create a specific lethal or nonlethal effect on a target. a) Movement and maneuver b) Command and control c) Joint fires d) Sustainment 425. A functional Component Command has many favorable factors associated with it, including reduced span of control, integrated planning, unity of effort, and _____. a) control over the scheme of maneuver b) responsible for service-specific functions c) comprised of service forces d) decreased combat efficiency 426. Differences between the Services in career paths leading up to a joint assignment may surprise new staff Service members in joint assignments. This demonstrates which key element to remember when working with other services? a) Prior experience working with senior officers vs. little or none b) Centralized vs. decentralized approach c) Static vs. dynamic mission sets d) General vs. specialized enlisted forces 427. _____ are the broad and enduring purposes for which the Services and the Combatant commands (or CCMDs) were established by law. a) Functions b) Roles c) Organizations d) Responsibilities 428. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to conduct a sustainable pace of presence operations abroad, including rotational deployments and bilateral and multilateral training exercises. a) Deter and defeat aggression b) Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent c) Project power despite anti-access/area denial challenges d) Provide a stabilizing presence 430. Some services have an emphasis that vacillates between combat, law enforcement, and safety patrols. This demonstrates which key element to remember when working with other services? a) centralized vs. decentralized approach b) base-centric vs. ship-centric c) static vs. dynamic mission sets d) size and capacity vs. speed and flexibility431. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This type of command is established by unified combatant commanders, and conducts operations on continuing basis using specified criteria. a) Specified Combatant Command b) Unified Combatant Command c) Joint Task Force d) Subordinate Unified Command 432. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to maintain an arsenal capable of deterring potential adversaries and to assure U.S. allies and other security partners that they can count on America's security commitments. a) Project power despite anti-access/area denial challenges b) Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent c) Deter and defeat aggression d) Provide a stabilizing presence 433. The _____ exercise ADCON through their respective Service Chiefs over the Service. a) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff b) Functional Combatant Commanders c) Secretaries of the Military Departments d) Combatant Commanders 434. Technology is often applied against what common analyst concern? a) Information overload b) CCIR management c) Subjective assessments d) Replacing cross staff collaboration 435. Which of the following statements highlights the critical features of intelligence? a) Allows anticipation or prediction of future situations and circumstances b) Provides raw, factual information on a wide variety of subjects c) Informs decisions by illuminating the differences in available courses of action d) Contributes to or shapes the commander’s decision making process 436. Analysis is a synthesis of quantitate analysis and qualitative judgement and therefore rarely subject to competing interpretations. a) True b) False 437. What is the primary role of the joint force J2? a) To inform the commander b) To analyze data c) To collect data and relate data from a wide spectrum into usable information d) To manage collection assets to maximize data collection across the operational environment 438. Commanders use intelligence to _____. (Select all that apply) a) Support a predictive estimation of the situation b) Understand adversary capabilities and intentions c) Visualize and understand all dimensions of the OE439. Which of the following are true when forming priority intelligence requirements (select all that apply) a) PIRs are subject for which there is a need to collect information or produce intelligence b) Staff must be aware of intelligence requirements of higher, adjacent, subordinate and supporting elements c) The JFC’s PIRs should prioritize the most urgent intelligence requirements. d) All of the above 440. After intelligence requirements are established, the staff reviews existing databases for answers to requirements. Then, if the intelligence requirement does not exist, the _____. a) Staff issues a request for information b) Staff collects information themselves c) Staff rejects JFC’s PIR d) JFC refines the PIR to match available intelligence 441. What is the definition of collection requirements management? a) Matching intelligence collection requirements with appropriate collection capabilities b) Analyzing the priority intelligence requirements against existing elements of essential information] c) Matching the commander’s critical information requirements with the other intelligence operations d) Synchronizes the timing of collection with the operational scheme of maneuver and with other intelligence operations 442. Why does collection planning require the ability to call on a variety of collection sources? a) To allow flexible tasking of assets b) To minimize the effects of enemy deception c) To ensure subordinate units maintain situational awareness of PIRs d) To provide spare assets on call in event of cancellations 443. Doctrinal, manning, and organizational considerations are what part of the joint intelligence architecture planning process? a) Systems architecture planning b) Operational architecture planning c) Technical architecture planning d) Logistical architecture planning 444. Intelligence dissemination requirements and procedures must be coordinated through the _____. a) Communications directorate of the J6 b) Joint force command J3 c) Joint force command J2 d) Joint Collection Management Board 445. What role(s) is responsible for providing maps, charts, digitized products, and precise geodetic coordinates? a) The Intelligence Officer (J2) b) The Geospatial Information and Service Officer c) The Intelligence Analysts and Targeteers d) The Collection Managers446. The joint intelligence preparation of the environment (JPOE) consists of four steps. Step 1 Analyze the adversary and other relevant aspects of the operational environment Step 2 Describe the impact of the operational environment on the adversary and friendly courses of actions (COAs) Step 3 Evaluate the capabilities of adversary forces operating in the operational environment Step 4 Determine and describe potential adversary COAs and civilian activities that might impact military operations 447. Dissemination of information can sometimes be defined by a strategy called Push and Pull. Pull refers to which of the following: a) Involves direct electronic access to databases, intelligence files, or other repositories by intelligence organizations at all levels b) Refers to validating information from multiple sources c) Allows the higher echelons to move intelligence down to satisfy existing lower echelon requirements or to relay other relevant information to the lower level. d) Indicates information that is pulled from raw data that cannot be validated 448. Intelligence definitions: g. Warning Intelligence – Focuses on the opportunities to counter and alter only those threats that have detrimental effects for the U.S. (including U.S. military or political decision cycles, infrastructure, COA, or loss of governance). Provides a distinct communication to a decision maker about threats against U.S. security, interests, or citizens; carries a sense of urgency, implying the decision maker should take action to deter or mitigate the threat's impact. a. Current Intelligence – Involves the integration of time-sensitive, all-source intelligence and information into concise, objective reporting on the current situation in a particular area. Involves the integration of time-sensitive, all-source intelligence and information into concise, objective reporting on the current situation in a particular area. h. General Military Intelligence – Supports the requirements to quickly respond to differing crisis situations with corresponding intelligence spanning the globe. Focuses on the military capabilities of foreign countries and organizations to include non-state actors, and other topics that could affect potential US or multinational military operations. f. Target Intelligence - Identifies and nominates specific COGs and HVTs that, if exploited in a systematic manner, will create the desired effects and support accomplishment of the commander’s objectives. Portrays and locates the components of a target or target complex, networks, and support infrastructure, and indicates its vulnerability and relationship to the enemy Centers of Gravity (COG); consists of analysis of physical and virtual attributes and signatures as well as Battle Damage Assessment (BDA) resulting from the application of lethal or non-lethal military force. b. Scientific and Technical Intelligence - Comprises characteristics, capabilities, vulnerabilities, and limitations of all weapon systems, subsystems, and associated material, as well as related research and development. Examines foreign developments in basic and applied sciences and technologies with warfare potential, particularly enhancements to weapon systems; addresses overall weapon systems, tactics analysis, and equipment effectiveness. d. Counterintelligence – Analyzes the threats posed by foreign intelligence and security services, and the intelligence activities if non-state actors such as organized crime, terrorist groups, and drug traffickers. Information gathered and activities conducted to identify, deceive, exploit, disrupt, or protect against espionage, other intelligence activities, sabotage, or assassinations conducted for or onbehalf of foreign powers, organizations, or persons, or their agents, or international terrorist organizations or activities. e. Estimative Intelligence – Reaches beyond descriptions of adversary capabilities or reporting of enemy activity to forecast the unknown based on an analysis of known facts using pattern analysis, inference, and statistical probability techniques. Forecasts of current or potential situations with implications for planning and executing military operations; includes a description of relevant actors' capabilities, and reporting of their activities, and it analyzes known factors using techniques such as pattern analysis, inference, and statistical probability to address unresolved variables. c. Identity Intelligence – Results from the fusion of identity attributes (biologic, biographic, behavioral, and individuals) and other information and intelligence associated with those attributes collected across all intelligence disciplines. Results from the fusion of identity attributes (biologic, biographic, behavioral, and reputational information related to individuals) and other information and intelligence associated with those attributes collected across all intelligence disciplines. 449. What level of intelligence is produced for the President, Congress, Secretary of Defense, senior military leaders, and combatant commanders? a) Doctrinal b) National strategic c) National security d) Theater strategic 450. An intelligence report is received by the JFC detailing the capabilities and safe houses of an extremist group operating in its area of regard. What type of intelligence does this represent? a) Tactical intelligence b) Theater strategic intelligence c) Operational intelligence d) Human intelligence 451. To be successful, a joint force commander must be able to influence and coordinate a diverse coalition of joint and multinational forces as well as civilian agencies and groups. What are some of the civilian groups the FRC must consider? Select all that apply. a) Nongovernmental organizations b) State and local militias c) Multinational forces d) Host nation agencies 452. Prior to planning for operations in support of the JFC OPLAN, a briefing is presented to the planning staff concerning the environmental conditions, layout of adversarial forces and their relationship with rural communities and leaders, as well as the history of relationship between the local population and foreigners. Which one of the ten principles of intelligence does this represent? a) Prioritization b) Collaboration c) Integrity d) Synchronization453. Assuming the truism that intelligence is imperfect, what is the best way to minimize the obstacles to achieve a high degree of fidelity in the products of intelligence? a) Anticipating the changing operational environment and focusing collection efforts to support ongoing operations54. b) Collaborating with allies and coalition partners who posses niche expertise and alternative perspectives that compliment joint force intelligence environment c) Staffing efforts to achieve a mix of skills and characteristics that enable them to remain responsive to a changing environment d) Constantly strive to maintain the highest possible standards of excellence 454. Which of the following intelligence principles is described as the process of collecting and examining information from available sources and intelligence disciplines to derive as complete an assessment as possible. a) Collaborative b) Unity of effort c) Fusion d) Synchronization 455. Principles of intelligence: Synchronization – Requires that all intelligence sources and methods be applied in concert with the operations plan and operations order. Prediction – Vulnerable to incomplete information and adversary deception, but should never be avoided because it helps JFCs determine enemy intentions and capabilities. Collaboration – Relies on unhindered access to and sharing of all relevant information and can take many forms such as competitive analysis, brain storming, and federation. Fusion - Relies in a finished intelligence product that provides the most accurate and complete picture possible of what is known about an activity. 456. Identify the national intelligence member that has overall responsibility for intelligence support to the President and the day-to-day management of the intelligence community. a) Director of the Central Intelligence Agency b) Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence c) Director of National Intelligence d) Director of the Defense Intelligence Agency 457. Which of the following national intelligence leadership positions advises the Secretary of Defense and Deputy Secretary of Defense, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, combatant commanders (CCDRs), and USD(I) on all matters concerning military and military-related intelligence? a) Director of the Defense Intelligence Agency b) Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence c) Director of National Intelligence d) Joint Staff Directorate for Intelligence, J2458. Which of the following intelligence communities is responsible for providing intelligence support in areas such as human factors analysis, counterterrorism, personal recovery, and noncombatant evacuation operations? a) Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) b) National Security Agency (NSA) c) Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) d) Central Security Service (CSS) 459. Which of the following non-DoD intelligence communities supports HUMINT collection, all source analysis, and political, economic, and biographic intelligence? a) Department od State (DOS) Bureau of Intelligence and Research b) Department of Energy (DOE) c) Federal Bureau Investigation (FBI) d) Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) 460. The _____ is the primary intelligence organization that provides support to the combatant commands at the operational and tactical levels. a) National Intelligence Support Team (NIST) b) Joint Intelligence Operations Center (JIOC) c) Defense Joint Intelligence Operations Center (DJOC) d) Joint Intelligence Support Element (JISE) 461. The intelligence component of the National Joint Operations and Intelligence Center (NJIOC) provides planning, management, and infrastructure for intelligence working groups and intelligence task forces that provide direct intelligence support during major conflicts. a) True b) False 462. JIPOE Steps: DIA – Intelligence support provided includes, but is not limited to, all-source military analysis, human factors analysis, HUMINT, MASINT, MEDINT, CI, counterterrorism, chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear counterproliferation, counterdrug operations, and personnel recovery NSA/CSS – A unified organization that provides for the SIGNIT mission of the U.S. to ensure the protection of national security systems for all departments and agencies of the U.S. Government NGA – Provides timely, relevant and accurate GEOINT support to IMINT, geospatial information, national imagery collection management, commercial imagery, imagery-derived MSAINT, and some meteorological and oceanographic data and information NRO – Responsible for integrating unique and innovative space-based reconnaissance technologies and the engineering, development, acquisition, and operation of space reconnaissance systems and related intelligence activities 463. Joint intelligence planning supports joint operation planning and results in the production of what three products? a) Dynamic Threat Assessment b) Annex B: Intelligence c) Contingency Plan d) National Intelligence Support Plan464. Advance scouts report that a key bridge crossing is being defended by two tank platoons supported by a reinforced infantry brigade. Which of the following type of intelligence does this represent? a) National b) Operational c) Tactical d) Theater strategic 465. What principle of intelligence is most susceptible to incomplete information and enemy deception efforts? a) Synchronization b) Prediction c) Fusion d) Agility 466. This intelligence product category forecasts current or potential situations with implications for planning and executing military operations. a) Target Intelligence b) Current Intelligence c) Estimative Intelligence d) Warning Intelligence 467. Which of the following are tasks that the J2 performs? (Select all that apply.) a) Assesses the characteristics of the adversary's decision-making process and identifies weaknesses that may be exploited b) Produces threat assessments on a continuing basis to help the commander create or exploit opportunities to accomplish friendly force objectives c) Analyzes the adversary and other relevant aspects of the operational environment d) Ensures that critical intelligence is disseminated appropriately in a timely manner to the joint force commanders (JFCs), staff, and components 468. The JTF J2 should have personnel knowledgeable in foreign disclosure policy and procedures and should obtain necessary foreign disclosure authorization from DIA as soon as possible. a) True b) False 469. Which of the following roles must be well versed with timelines required to complete a required product and able to obtain the aid of external resources in acquiring needed intelligence? a) J2 Collection Manager b) Intelligence Analysts c) Targeteers d) J2 470. Collection activities acquire and extract data from the operational environment such that Processing and Exploitation can convert that data into information to be used during Analysis and Production to refine into _____ to satisfy Requests for Information (RFI) or the commander's Priority Intelligence Requirements (PIR). a) intelligence b) information c) data fee d) translation471. What two features distinguish intelligence from information? a) Allows anticipation or prediction of future situations and circumstances b) Contributes to or shapes the commander's decision making process c) Consists of the synthesis of quantitative analysis and qualitative judgment with an assigned degree of coincidence to the analytical conclusion d) Provides raw, factual information on a wide variety of subjects 472. The Commander's Critical Information Requirements represent both Friendly Force Information requirements and _____, which are derived from the intelligence organization and vetted across staff. a) identified collection gaps b) mission analysis identified requests for information c) priority intelligence requirements (PIR) d) threat assessments 473. Military operations vary in scope, purpose, and _____ across a range that spans from military engagement to major operations and campaigns. a) Conflict intensity b) End state c) Expected outcome d) Contingencies 474. _____ is the protection of U.S. sovereignty, territory, domestic population, and critical defense infrastructure against external threats and aggressive or other treats as directed by the President. a) Civil support b) Peace operations c) Homeland defense d) Combating terrorism 475. By arranging operations and activities into phases, the JFC can better integrate and _____ subordinate operations in time, space, and purpose. a) Visualize b) Synchronize c) Mitigate d) Organize 476. Which of the following are effective means to achieve deterrence? (Select all that apply.) a) Foster a climate of peaceful cooperation b) Ensure joint operations forces are ready to conduct decisive operations c) Develop a Security Cooperation Plan d) Remove forces from area 477. _____prevents an adversarial action by presenting a credible threat of counteraction. This activity can occur during both peace and war. a) Diplomacy b) Deterrence c) Foreign humanitarian assistance d) Security cooperation478. Which of the following statements accurately reflect crisis and limited contingency operations? (Select all that apply,) a) Are part of the JFC’s OPLAN b) Are used to restore stability in a nation where internal conflict threatens regional stability c) Must achieve a very specific or operational objective d) Are conducted to achieve tactical objectives 479. Executive Order 12656, Assignment of Emergency Preparedness Responsibilities, delegates DoD to advise and assist DOS in preparing and implementing plans for _____. a) Non-combat evacuation b) Foreign internal defense c) Foreign humanitarian assistance d) Military support 480. A(n) _____, such as foreign humanitarian assistance, can be a major operation if the combination of size, scope, and duration requires the commander to phase the operation as a set of tasks, activities, and missions over time. a) Interdiction b) Noncombat operation c) Campaign d) Combat operation 481. To achieve military strategic objectives quickly and at least cost, JFCs normally will seek the earliest opportunity to conduct decisive _____ operations. a) Defensive b) Offensive c) Planning d) Stability 482. Which of the following are some of the key elements of the shape phase of joint operations? (Select all that apply.) a) Organizing and training b) Conduct of rehearsals c) Stability operations d) Balance and simultaneity 483. _____ contributions provide operational leverage by gathering critical information, undermining a potential adversary’s will or capacity to wage war, and enhancing the capabilities of conventional U.S. or multinational forces. a) SOF b) USSOCOM c) CA d) FDO 484. The “Seize the Initiative” phase of joint operations seeks decision advantage by using all available elements of combat power to: (Select all that apply.) a) Seize and maintain the initiative b) Deny the enemy the opportunity to achieve its objectives c) Generate in the enemy a sense of inevitable failure and defeat d) Denounce enemy military by using propaganda to turn public against their military or leadership485. When JFCs consider incorporating combinations of contiguous and noncontiguous AOs with linear and nonlinear operations, they chose the combination that fits the operational environment and the purpose of the operation. Which of the following combinations describes a typical sustained offensive and defensive operation against powerful, echeloned, and symmetrically organized forces combat power and protects sustainment functions? a) Linear operations in contiguous AOs b) Linear operations in noncontiguous AOs c) Nonlinear operations in contiguous AOs d) Nonlinear operations in noncontiguous AOs 486. During stability operations, it is critical to avoid inadvertently legitimizing an individual or organization in a country where no government exists. a) True b) False 487. During the enable civil authority phase of operations, the JFC may be required to transfer responsibility of operations to another as the termination criteria. a) True b) False 488. Using the following image of the Joint Operations Phasing Model, provide a response (Deter, Dominate, Enable, Seize, Shape, or Stabilize) for each of the phases below labeled "1" through "6". a) Phase 1: Deter b) Phase 2: Seize c) Phase 3: Stabilize d) Phase 4: Dominate e) Phase 5: Enable f) Phase 6: Shape 489. Identify the term (Deter, Dominate, Enable, Seize, Shape, or Stabilize), that corresponds to each of the definitions below. a) This phase, while preparatory in nature, may include mobilization and initial deployment into a theater. Deter b) This phase includes denying the enemy its initial objectives. Seize c) This phase may require the joint force to perform limited local governance, and integrate the efforts of other supporting inter-organizational partners until legitimate local entities are functioning. Stabilize d) This phase's success depends on overmatching enemy capabilities at the critical time and place. Dominate e) This phase is focused on helping the civil authority stabilize and begin to administer services to the populace. Enable f) This phase is executed continuously, and may mitigate conditions that could lead to a crisis. Shape 490. A _______ may be appropriate when the contemplated military operations exceed the scope of a single major operation. a) coalition b) campaign c) large-scale combat operation d) strategic objective491. Campaigns are _____. a) the most extensive of joint operations b) service oriented c) independently embarked on d) low in resource requirements 492. Establishing and maintaining access to operational areas where joint forces are likely to operate is an action in the _____ phase. a) dominate b) seize c) shape d) deter 493. _____ generally are governed by various directives and agreements and do not require a joint operation plan (OPLAN) or operation order (OPORD) for execution. a) Advance measures b) Continuity of operations c) Commitment of forces d) Engagement activities 494. If the crisis is caused by a(n) _____ that threatens regional stability, U.S. forces may intervene to restore or guarantee stability. a) embargo b) credible threat c) internal conflict d) external threat 495. Operation RESTORE HOPE in Somalia was a crisis response operation which required _____ to protect U.S. forces while accomplishing the mission. a) combat operations b) deterrence activities c) security cooperation d) major campaigns 496. _____ ensure(s) DoD processes, procedures, and resources are in place to support the President and Secretary of Defense in a national security emergency. a) Commitment of forces b) Engagement activities c) Continuity of operations d) Advance measures 497. _____ is DoD support to U.S. Government actions that plan for, prepare for, respond to, and recover from the effects of domestic and foreign chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear incidents. a) Civil support b) Recovery operations c) Chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear consequence management d) Homeland defense498. _____ contain conflict, redress the peace, and shape the environment to support reconciliation and rebuilding and facilitate the transition to legitimate governance. a) Peace operations b) Recovery operations c) Stability operations d) Foreign humanitarian assistance 499. _____ is/are DoD's unified effort to support and augment the development of the capacity and capability of foreign security forces and their supporting institutions to facilitate the achievement of specific objectives shared by the U.S. Government. a) Foreign humanitarian assistance b) Security force assistance c) Civic assistance programs d) Stability operations 500. _____ operations can include the provision of emergency infrastructure reconstruction. a) Offensive b) Defensive c) Stability d) Planning 501. The scope of a(n) _____ or limited contingency operation is by its nature different in scope than a full-scale operation. a) crisis response b) peacekeeping operation c) antiterrorism d) interdiction 502. Executive Order 12656, Assignment of Emergency Preparedness Responsibilities, delegates DoD to advise and assist DOS in preparing and implementing plans for _____. a) foreign humanitarian assistance b) non-combat evacuation c) foreign internal defense d) military support 503. _____ is generally limited in scope and duration because it is intended to supplement or complement efforts of civil authorities or agencies with the primary responsibility for providing assistance. a) Civil defense b) Foreign internal defense c) Deterrence d) Foreign humanitarian assistance 504. To achieve military strategic objectives quickly and at least cost, JFCs normally will seek the earliest opportunity to conduct decisive _____ operations. a) planning b) defensive c) offensive d) stability505. _____ contributions provide operational leverage by gathering critical information, undermining a potential adversary's will or capacity to wage war, and enhancing the capabilities of conventional U.S. or multinational forces. a) FDO b) CA c) SOF d) USSOCOM 506. U. S. Forces may be required to engage in several types of joint operations simultaneously, across a range of military operations. Commanders combine and sequence offensive, defensive, and _____ operations to achieve objectives. a) deterrence b) crisis response c) stability d) contingency 507. Supporting the conditions for economic reconstruction is an action in the _____ phase. a) shape b) stabilize c) deter d) enable 508. When JFCs consider incorporating combinations of contiguous and noncontiguous AOs with linear and nonlinear operations, they choose the combination that fits the operational environment and the purpose of the operation. Which of the following combinations describe a typical sustained offensive and defensive operation against powerful, echeloned, and symmetrically organized forces and where the forward line of own troops focus combat power and protect sustainment functions? a) linear operations in noncontiguous AOs b) nonlinear operations in contiguous AOs c) nonlinear operations in noncontiguous AOs d) linear operations in contiguous AOs 509. _____ are DoD activities, normally in support of the United States Agency for International Development or the Department of State, conducted outside the U.S., its territories, and possessions, to relieve or reduce human suffering, disease, hunger, or privation. a) Stability operations b) Civil support c) Foreign humanitarian assistance d) Foreign internal defense 510. Military engagement occurs as part of _____, but also extends to interaction with domestic civilian authorities. a) civil defense b) planning c) security cooperation d) counterinsurgency511. If the crisis revolves around _____ to a regional partner, combat commanders employ joint forces to deter aggression and signal U.S. commitment a) internal conflict b) credible threats c) coup d'etat d) external threats 512. Joint Logisticians coordinate sustained logistic readiness through the integrating functions of _____. a) Translating strategic guidance, developing operational concepts, and assessing logistic plans b) Planning, executing, and controlling joint logistic operations c) Unity of effort, environment-wide visibility, and rapid and precise response d) Organizing for execution, achieving situational awareness, and designating lead Service responsibilities 513. Which of the following key global providers is responsible for recruiting, organizing, supplying, and maintaining ready forces for deployment? a) Services b) Defense Logistics Agency (DLS) Service c) Joint Staff d) USTRANSCOM 514. Which of the following joint logistic imperatives links the mission, commander’s intent, and operational objectives to core logistic capabilities, procedures, and organizations? a) Assessment b) Execution c) Planning d) Control 515. Which of the following statements describes the “supply” functional capability within joint logistics? a) The joint logistician manages supplies and equipment, inventory, and supplier networks b) The joint logistician manages people, material, and transportation c) The join logistician balances Commander’s Critical Information Requirements (CCIRs) with risk, force availability, and unit readiness. d) The logistician develops plans, studies, feasibility, and identifies who is responsible for executing the plan. 516. The purpose if field maintenance operations is to repair, modify, rebuild, and overhaul both entire systems and components and is directly linked to life cycle systems readiness. a) True b) False 517. Which statement describes the difference between the responsibilities of the supported combatant commander (CCDR) and the supporting CCDR? a) The supported CCDR establishes a collaborative process, whereas the supporting CCDR determines preemployment standards. b) The supported CCDR regulates the transportation flow of support personnel, whereas the supporting CCDR regulates the force flow based on strategic, operational, and tactical control. c) The supported CCDR builds and validates force and movement requirements, whereas the supporting CCDR reports force movement requirements data.518. Match each core capability with the correct description. Use the following terms to answer questions 1 - 7 below: Logistics Services; Operational contract Support; Health Services Support; Deployment and Distribution; Supply; Maintenance Operations; or Engineering Operations. Question 1: ______ provides managed materiel inventories that are determined through deliberate collaboration with maintenance and distribution providers to optimize the end effect of the supply chain to the warfighter. Supply Question 2: ______ provides life cycle systems readiness capability that enables the requirements, acquisition and sustainment communities to provide systems with optimal availability and reliability to the joint warfighter at best value to the Services. Maintenance Operations Question 3: ______ supports the materiel movement during logistical sustainment of operations. Deployment and Distribution Question 4: ______ promotes individual practices that prevent or correct any human condition that would impair or preclude the joint force from achieving its objectives. Health Services Support Question 5: ______ force multiplier that helps commander integrate, synchronize and direct operations. Engineering Operations Question 6: ______ comprised of disparate activities that enable the global sustainment for military forces. Logistics Services Question 7: ______ensures that the Service is augmented by military and government sources of support, that the support is orchestrated and manage and that visibility is maintained. Operational Contract Support 519. Within the Personnel Services Division, which support organization is responsible for maintaining personal data of Service members related to their employment? a) Financial Management b) Religious Ministry c) Human Resources d) Legal Support 520. Which two of the following describe J1 functions? (Select all that apply) a) The J1 participates in all applicable planning and assessment process b) The J1 advises joint logistic requirements and requires various nongovernmental organizations (NGOs) to support all of these c) The J1 coordinates with higher, supporting, and subordinate manpower and personnel directories 521. Once a Mission is defined by the SecDef, the joint task force (jtf) headquarters identifies its personnel requirements. These requirements are summarized in the _____. a) Global Force Management Plan b) Concept of Operations (CONOPS) c) Joint Manning Document d) Operation Plan (OPLAN)522. The President and SecDef are responsible for assigning forces to specified combatant commands. a) True b) False 523. Who is responsible for the organization and employment of legal personnel assigned or attached to a joint task force (JTF) headquarters? a) Joint Force Commander b) Staff Judge Advocate c) SecDef d) Geographic Combatant Commander 524. Staff Judge Advocates (SHAs) are responsible for _____/ (Select all that apply) a) Developing the organizational structure for their sections b) Understanding the legal support requirements of the joint task force (JTF) to which they are assigned c) Identifying the personnel requirements for their sections d) Operating on a sustained 24-hour battle rhythm 525. The responsible personnel for Global Force Management Process 1 – Assignment is: a) SecDef b) SecDef and Secretaries of Military Departments c) Chairman of Joint Chiefs of Staff 526. The responsible personnel for Global Force Management Process 2 – Appointment is: a) SecDef b) SecDef and Secretaries of Military Departments c) Chairman of Joint Chiefs of Staff 527. The responsible personnel for Global Force Management Process 3 – Allocation is: a) SecDef b) SecDef and Secretaries of Military Departments c) Chairman of Joint Chiefs of Staff 528. An environment in which operations may or may not be opposed at any point during deployment by forces or individuals not under the host government’s control in a/an _____environment. a) Uncertain b) Permissive c) Hostile d) Operational 529. Which stage of the protection process assembles and organizes national resources to support national objectives in time of war or any other emergency? a) Joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) b) Deployment c) Mobilization d) Employment530. Who is responsible for assigning forces and resources to combatant commands? a) Supporting Combatant Commander b) Commander, Joint Chief of Staff c) Supported Combatant Commander d) SecDef 531. Who is responsible for organizing, training, equipping, and providing administrative and logistic support for forces? a) SecDef b) Military Departments c) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) d) Supported Combatant Commander (CCDR) 532. Which of the following are phases of the deployment process? (Select all that apply) a) Deployment planning b) Mobility c) Redeployment activities d) Movement 533. Which of the following reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) elements are defined as “enabling”? (Select all that apply.) a) Force protection b) Multinational support c) Contract support d) Legal support 534. Redeployment encompasses which of the following phases? (Select all that apply.) a) Planning b) Redeployment activities c) Movement d) Joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) 535. Which of the following are issues considered during redeployment planning? (Select all that apply.) a) Intelligence preparation b) Protection c) Infrastructure assessment d) Force health protection 536. Which of the following is described as the quality or capability of military forces that permits them to transition from place to place while retaining their ability to fulfill their primary mission? a) Deployment b) Transportability c) Flexibility d) Mobility537. The purpose of the personnel estimate is to _____. (Select all that apply.) a) identify the most appropriate forces that best meet the SecDef's requirements b) apportion forces to the combatant commander c) develop the most effective solution to a problem d) collect and analyze relevant information 538. The movement phase of deployment is comprised of which of the following three segments? a) POE operations b) maintain, repair, or sustain equipment c) POE to port of debarkation (POD) d) origin to air or sea ports of embarkation (POE) 539. Which of the following is described as the ability to project the military instrument of national power? a) Global force management b) Operation plan (OPLAN) c) Concept of operations (CONOPS) d) Global force projection 540. Which of the following are phases of the deployment process? (Select all that apply.) a) Deployment planning b) Mobility c) Predeployment activities d) Movement 541. Which of the segments of joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) is defined as the process of offloading, marshalling, and transporting personnel, equipment, and materiel? a) Staging b) Reception c) Integration d) Onward movement 542. During which phase of projection are forces and materiel transferred to support another joint force commander's operational requirements? a) Sustainment b) Joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) c) Deployment d) Redeployment 543. The operational environment is generally described by which of the following conditions? a) tolerant, liberal, and autocratic b) foreign, native, and unrestricted c) strategic, tactical, and dictated d) permissive, uncertain, and hostile544. Which of the segments of joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) is defined as the process of synchronizing the transfer of capabilities into an operational commander's force? a) Staging b) Onward movement c) Integration d) Reception 545. When identifying support activities during pre-redeployment, redeploying forces _____. a) perform all personnel, supply, and inspection activities b) confirm readiness and available movement dates c) must be supported with medical care, life support, supplies, and materiel d) may move to a designated staging area to prepare 546. 16) The purpose of field maintenance operations is to repair, modify, rebuild, and overhaul both entire systems and components and is directly linked to life cycle systems readiness. a) True b) False 17) Which of the following types of plans describes the most probable outcomes of a mission and identifies force requirements? a) Operation plan (OPLAN) b) Crisis Plan c) Concept of operations (CONOPS) d) Contingency Plan 18) The joint logistics environment (JLE) exists within the _____ environment and consists of _____ that affect the employment of logistic capabilities. a) strategic; authorities, logistic providers, and imperatives b) strategic; operation plans, service capabilities, and climates c) operational; conditions, circumstances, and influences d) tactical; situations, provisions, and restrictions 19) Who is responsible for the organization and employment of legal personnel assigned or attached to a joint task force headquarters? a) Joint Force Commander b) Geographic Combatant Commander c) Staff Judge Advocate d) SecDef 20) While employed, the Staff Judge Advocate ensures that the joint force commander understands the _____. a) requirements from host nations for a transparent legal environment in which to conduct joint operations b) laws, treaties, and agreements that apply to U.S. relations with the foreign governments and their inhabitants c) cultures and religious beliefs that impact U.S. relationships with the foreign inhabitantsd) traffic laws and ports of entry requirements that impact transportation of personnel and materiel into the foreign nation 21) Which stage of the projection process is identified by the movement of forces within the operational areas (OAs), the positioning of forces into a formation for battle, or the relocation of forces and materiel to a different OA? a) Sustainment b) Mobilization c) Deployment d) Redeployment 22) During the joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) phase of redeployment, destination reception refers to _____. a) preparing the force for the next crisis b) recovering the unit's assigned personnel and equipment c) tracking the force to determine exact location of personnel, equipment, and materiel d) transporting forces via a common user or commercial lift from a port of debarkation (POD) to a demobilization station 23) Which of the following describe the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff's (CJCS's) responsibilities? (Select all that apply.) a) Monitors the capabilities of United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) b) Prescribes a movement priority system to ensure responsiveness to meet the needs of the combatant commander (CCDR) c) Prepares joint logistic and mobility plans to support joint operation plans (OPLANS) d) Reviews the CCDR's plans and programs to determine adequacy, consistency, acceptability, and feasibility to perform the assigned mission 24) Which statement describes the difference between the responsibilities of the supported combatant commander (CCDR) and the supporting CCDR? a) The supported CCDR establishes a collaborative process, whereas the supporting CCDR must prioritize mission, align forces, and consider planned theater distribution. b) The supported CCDR ensures units retain visibility and mobility, whereas the supporting CCDR determines predeployment standards. c) The supported CCDR builds and validates force and movement requirements, whereas the supporting CCDR reports force movement requirements data. d) The supported CCDR regulates the transportation flow of support personnel, whereas the supporting CCDR regulates the force flow based on strategic, operational, and tactical control. 25) Which three of the following when combined are some of the functions that comprise core capabilities of joint logistics? a) battle rhythm b) supply c) situational awareness d) maintenance operations e) health service support26) Within the Personnel Services Division, which support organization is responsible for maintaining personal data of Service members related to their employment? a) Human Resources b) Religious Ministry c) Legal Support d) Financial Management