NUR 3065 - Chapter 17. Hematologic and Immune Problems, Latest Complete Solution Guide.

NUR 3065 Chapter 17. Hematologic and Immune Problems Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Sandra is 42 years old and has just been diagnosed with leuk ...

NUR 3065 Chapter 17. Hematologic and Immune Problems Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Sandra is 42 years old and has just been diagnosed with leukemia. She is complaining of bone and joint pain. Which type of leukemia is most likely the culprit? a. Acute lymphocytic leukemia b. Acute myelogenous leukemia c. Chronic myelogenous leukemia d. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia 2. Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin? a. Autogenic b. Autologous c. Allogeneic d. Syngeneic 3. During treatment for anaphylaxis, what site is used for the initial injection of epinephrine? a. IV b. Abdomen c. Upper lateral thigh d. Deltoid 4. After the initial treatment for anaphylaxis, which medication should be added to prevent late-phase anaphylactic reactions? a. Albuterol b. Diphenhydramine c. An H2 blocker d. Corticosteroids 5. When analyzing synovial fluid, if it is opaque, white, or translucent; has 5,000 leukocytes/Ml; 80% polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMN); and a low red blood cell count, it may be indicative of which of the following conditions? a. This is a normal result. b. Scleroderma c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Sickle cell disease 6. Which of the following disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs is a folic acid antagonist? a. Methotrexate (Rheumatrex) b. Etanercept (Enbrel) c. Rituximab (Rituxan) d. Anakinra (Kineret) 7. Which statement about HIV postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) for health-care workers is the most accurate? a. PEP should be started within hours of exposure. b. PEP should be started within 72 hours of exposure. c. Renal and hepatic function tests should be done 6 weeks after beginning PEP. d. PEP will prevent potential hepatitis C infection if present. 8. Which household solution should be used to clean a bathroom if sharing with a friend who has HIV? a. 100% bleach b. 50% bleach and 50% vinegar c. Nine parts H2O to one part bleach d. The friend must have his or her own bathroom. 9. Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral load. What does this indicate? a. A favorable prognostic trend b. Disease progression c. The need to be more aggressive with Reuben’s medications d. The eradication of the HIV 10. If the international normalized ratio (INR) result is above the therapeutic range in a patient with atrial fibrillation on warfarin, what might the clinician do? a. Stop the warfarin for 1 week, and then repeat the INR. b. Withhold one or more days of anticoagulant therapy. c. Restart therapy at a lower dose immediately. d. The prothrombin time and INR should be reevaluated within 1 month of the dosage adjustments. 11. Which of the following is identified as an eating disorder in which a person craves food substitutes, such as clay, ice chips, and cotton, and is considered an objective finding associated with severe iron deficiency? a. Ferritin b. Porter’s syndrome c. Hypochromasia d. Pica 12. As a rule of thumb, the estimated level of hematocrit is how many times the value of the hemoglobin? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five 13. What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia? a. Anemia of chronic disease b. Sideroblastic anemia c. Iron-deficiency anemia d. Thalassemia 14. The cardinal subjective symptom of sickle cell crisis is which of the following? a. Pain b. Nausea c. Light-headedness d. Palpitations 15. In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints? a. Osteoarthritis b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Sjögren’s syndrome 16. Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the severity and course of an inflammatory process? a. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate b. White blood cell count c. Polymorphonuclear cells d. C-reactive protein (CRP) 17. Infectious mononucleosis results from an acute infection with which of the following? a. Epstein-Barr virus b. Acute HIV infection c. Guillain-Barré d. Hepatitis 18. What is the most common cause of generalized musculoskeletal pain in women ages 20 to 55? a. Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) b. Anemia c. Fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS) d. Sports-related injuries 19. After returning from visiting his grandchildren in England, George, age 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering? a. A viral syndrome b. Lyme disease c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever d. Relapsing fever 20. Dryness of the eyes and mouth is typical of which condition? a. Sjögren’s syndrome b. CFS c. FMS d. Hypothyroidism 21. Triggering factors for acute exacerbations of which of the following conditions include exposure to ultraviolet (UV)-B and UV-A rays? a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Scleroderma c. SLE d. Sjögren’s syndrome 22. The current goal of treatment for a patient with HIV infection is which of the following? a. Viral suppression of HIV to undetectable levels in the peripheral blood b. Compete eradication of the virus c. Encouraging the person to have no contact with uninfected individuals d. Complete abstinence 23. The most cost-effective screening test for determining HIV status is which of the following? a. Western blot b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay c. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test d. Viral load 24. An important complication of antiretroviral (ARV) therapy in patients with advanced AIDS is which of the following? a. Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome b. Improvement in opportunistic infections c. Restoration of immune system to preinfection status d. Progression to AIDS 25. Which drug category of ARV therapy is generally effective in crossing the blood–brain barrier and may be useful in managing HIV-associated dementia? a. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors b. Protease inhibitors c. Integrase inhibitors d. Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors 26. Spontaneous bruising may be seen with platelet counts below what level? a. 100,000 cells/mL b. 75,000 cells/mL c. 50,000 cells/mL d. 30,000 cells/ml 27. Which type of the following is characterized by fatigue on awakening that may improve with exercise? a. Functional fatigue b. Fatigue with an organic origin c. Fatigue of chronic anemia d. Fatigue of depression and anxiety 28. Early rheumatoid disease is characterized by: a. Pain and swelling in both small and large peripheral joints b. Rigid joints with diminished range of motion c. Joint swelling and immobility on rising d. A cardiac rub or pulmonary friction rub 29. Which test is diagnostic of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Rheumatoid factor b. ESR c. CRP d. Anti-CCP titers 30. What is the mainstay of management for infectious mononucleosis? a. Antivirals b. Symptom control c. Corticosteroids d. Isolation 31. CFS tends to occur in which individuals? a. Active, highly functional adults b. Depressed middle-aged persons c. Individuals with a depressed immune system d. Individuals who are hypochondriacs 32. The exanthem of Lyme disease is: a. Erythema infectiosum b. Laterothoracic exanthem c. Erythema migrans d. Morbilli exanthem 33. If left untreated, this condition will progress to complaints that include multiple joint arthritis. a. Sjögren’s syndrome b. HIV/AIDS c. Guillain-Barré d. Lyme disease 34. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is a classic sign of which condition? a. SLE b. Sjögren’s syndrome c. CFS/FMS d. Lyme disease 35. Which person is four times more likely to develop SLE than a Caucasian? a. Persons of African descent b. Asians c. Hispanics d. Middle Eastern Jews