Bio 201 Exam 3 {2020} – Straighterline
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Golden rice is golden in color because it is rich in
Select one:
a. chromium picolinate
b. vit
...
Bio 201 Exam 3 {2020} – Straighterline
Question 1
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Golden rice is golden in color because it is rich in
Select one:
a. chromium picolinate
b. vitamin A
c. vitamin C
d. beta carotene
Question 2
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Which of the following statements about DNA technology is false?
Select one:
a. DNA technology is now used to mass-produce human insulin
b. DNA technology is now used to create cells that can identify and kill cancer cells
c. DNA technology is now used to mass-produce human growth hormone
d. DNA technology is now used to produce vaccines that are harmless mutants of a pathogen
Question 3
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What is the smallest number of cells needed to perform a successful DNA profile?
Select one:
a. 1
b. 200
c. 1,000
d. 20
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Gel electrophoresis sorts DNA molecules on the basis of their
Select one:
a. solubility in the gel
b. size
c. nucleotide sequence
d. ability to bind to mRNA
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Restriction enzymes specifically recognize and cut short sequences of DNA called
Select one:
a. short terminal repeats
b. sticky ends
c. restriction sites
d. promoter sequences
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The only recombinant cells that can correctly attach sugars to proteins to form glycoprotein products are
Select one:
a. algal cells
b. E. coli cells
c. mammalian cells
d. yeast cells
Question 7
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Approximately what percentage of human DNA is noncoding?
Select one:
a. 79%
b. 99.9%
c. 98.5%
d. 49%
Question 8
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The ________ approach to gene cloning employs a mixture of fragments from the entire genome of an organism and results in the production of thousands of different recombinant plasmids.
Select one:
a. shotgun
b. Ti
c. AK 47
d. V protein
Question 9
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The feature of sticky ends that makes them especially useful in DNA recombination is their ability to
Select one:
a. allow plasmids to attach to the main bacterial chromosome
b. bind to DNA and thereby activate transcription
c. bind to ribosomes and thereby activate translation
d. form hydrogen-bonded base pairs with complementary single stranded stretches of DNA
Question 10
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DNA ligase binds
Select one:
a. exons together
b. polymerase to the promotor
c. nucleotides together
d. an intron to an exon
Question 11
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Match the following definitions with the correct term.
An enzyme, essential for DNA replication, that catalyzes the covalent bonding of adjacent DNA polynucleotide strands Answer 1
The direct manipulation of genes for practical purposes Answer 2
Methods used to study and/or manipulate DNA Answer 3
The production of multiple copies of a gene Answer 4
A DNA molecule carrying nucleotide sequences derived from two or more sources Answer 5
In molecular biology, a piece of DNA, usually a plasmid or a viral genome, that is used to move genes from one cell to another Answer 6
Question 12
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Match the following definitions with the correct term.
A technique for separating and purifying macromolecules, either DNAs or proteins. Answer 1
A procedure that analyzes DNA samples to determine if they came from the same individual Answer 2
A technique used to obtain many copies of a DNA molecule or a specific part of a DNA molecule Answer 3
Short, artificially created, single-stranded DNA molecules that bind to each end of a target sequence during a PCR procedure Answer 4
The study of whole sets of genes and their interactions Answer 5
A treatment for a disease in which the patient’s defective gene is supplemented or altered Answer 6
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The number of proteins in humans
Select one:
a. is approximately equal to the number of genes
b. is less than half the number of genes
c. is much greater than the number of genes
d. cannot be determined because the human genome is too complex
Question 14
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The polymerase chain reaction relies upon unusual, heat-resistant ________ that were isolated from bacteria living in hot springs.
Select one:
a. restriction enzymes
b. plasmids
c. DNA polymerase molecules
d. phages
Question 15
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A vaccine works by
Select one:
a. inhibiting bacterial replication
b. stimulating the immune system
c. preventing the translation of mRNA
d. inhibiting viral replication
Question 16
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After DNA fragments with matching sticky ends are temporarily joined by complementary base pairing, the union can be made permanent by the pasting enzyme
Select one:
a. DNA ligase
b. DNA polymerase
c. DNA helicase
d. covalentase
Question 17
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Which of the following has not been a significant issue in the creation of genetically modified organisms?
Select one:
a. the fact that rogue microbes might transfer dangerous genes into other organisms
b. the fact that some plants carrying genes from other species might represent a threat to the environment
c. the fact that the protein products of transplanted genes might lead to allergic reactions
d. the fact that GM organisms cannot be modified to prevent them from reproducing once they pass beyond the experimental stage
Question 18
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Which of the following genetically modified organisms has not been developed by genetic engineers?
Select one:
a. Transgenic pig with a roundworm gene that allows them to make more omega-3 fatty acids
b. Transgenic salmon with a growth hormone gene that allows them to grow more quickly
c. Transgenic rice with genes for milk proteins
d. Transgenic corn with the gene for human insulin
Question 19
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Which of the following statements regarding repetitive DNA is false?
Select one:
a. Repetitive DNA is usually repeated multiple times in the genome
b. Repetitive DNA is identical in all humans
c. Repetitive DNA can show great variation among individuals
d. Repetitive DNA is usually found between genes
Question 20
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Which of the following statements about nucleic acid probes is false?
Select one:
a. A nucleic acid probe binds to a complementary sequence in the gene of interest
b. A nucleic acid probe is usually labeled with a radioactive isotope or fluorescent tag to help identify its location
c. A nucleic acid probe can be used to find a specific gene
d. A nucleic acid probe is a double-stranded section of DNA
Question 21
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A nucleic acid probe is
Select one:
a. an enzyme that locates a specific restriction site on RNA
b. a piece of radioactively labeled DNA that is used to locate a specific gene
c. a plasmid that recognizes a specific DNA sequence
d. a virus that transfers DNA to a recipient cell
Question 1
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The coding regions of a gene are called
Select one:
a. exons
b. redundant coding sections
c. introns
d. proto oncogenes
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Which of the following statements about fruit fly development is false?
Select one:
a. Homeotic genes regulate batteries of other genes that direct the anatomical identity of body parts
b. One of the earliest development events is the determination of the head and tail ends of the egg
c. Cascades of gene expression routinely direct fruit fly development
d. The location of the head and tail ends of the egg is primarily determined by the location of sperm entry during fertilization
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Match the following definitions to the correct term.
A technique in which the nucleus of one cell is placed into another cell that already has a nucleus or in which the nucleus has been previously destroyed Answer 1
to produce genetically identical copies of a cell, organism, or DNA molecule Answer 2
A glass slide carrying thousands of different kinds of single-stranded DNA fragments arranged in an array.
Answer 3
Cell in the early animal embryo that differentiates during development to give rise to all the different kinds of specialized cells in the body Answer 4
A cancer-causing agent, either high-energy radiation or a chemical Answer 5
The regrowth of body parts from pieces of an organism Answer 6
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Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells use ________ to turn certain genes on or off.
Select one:
a. intron segments
b. RNA transcriptase
c. nucleosome packing
d. proteins
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Enhancers are
Select one:
a. DNA sequences to which activator proteins bind
b. required to facilitate the binding of DNA polymerases
c. required to turn on gene expression when transcription factors are in short supply
d. adjacent to the gene that they regulate
Question 6
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The lac operon in E. coli
Select one:
a. coordinates the production of tryptophan-utilizing enzymes when it is present
b. regulates the rate of binary fission
c. allows the bacterium to resist antibiotics in the penicillin family
d. prevents lactose-utilizing enzymes from being expressed when lactose is absent from the environment
Question 7
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Which of the following statements about microarrays is false?
Select one:
a. Microarrays use fluorescently labeled cDNA molecules to identify particular genes expressed at a particular time
b. Microarrays are used to determine which genes are active in different tissues or in tissues of different states of health
c. Microarrays enable scientists to determine the activity of thousands of genes at once
d. Microarrays use tiny portions of double-stranded RNA fragments from a large number of genes
Question 8
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All of the following mechanisms are used to regulate protein production except
Select one:
a. the breakdown of mRNA
b. DNA editing
c. protein breakdown
d. protein activation
Question 9
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In female mammals, the inactive X chromosome in each cell
Select one:
a. can be activated if mutations occur in the active X chromosome
b. becomes a Barr body
c. is broken down, and its nucleotides are degraded and reused
d. is absorbed and used in energy production
Question 10
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Which of the following statements regarding cancer risk factors is false?
Select one:
a. X rays and ultraviolet radiation are two of the most potent carcinogens
b. Factors that alter DNA and make cells cancerous are called carcinogens
c. Mutagens are usually not carcinogens
d. Eating 20 to 30 grams of plant fiber daily and reducing the intake of animal fat can reduce your risk of developing colon cancer
Question 11
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To initiate a signal transduction pathway, a signal binds to a receptor protein usually located in the
Select one:
a. nucleus
b. ER
c. cytoplasm
d. plasma membrane
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The cloning of Dolly the sheep
Select one:
a. demonstrated that the nuclei from differentiated mammalian cells can retain their full genetic potential
b. demonstrated that differentiated cells contain only a fraction of their full genetic potential
c. revealed that cloned mammals most resemble the egg donor
d. demonstrated, for the first time, that eggs are haploid and body cells are diploid
Question 13
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The expression of the tryptophan operon is controlled by
Select one:
a. a repressor that is active when it binds to tryptophan
b. a repressor that is inactive when it binds to lactose
c. an activator that turns the operon on by binding to DNA
d. a repressor that is active when it is alone
Question 14
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The lac operon of E. coli is ________ when the repressor is bound to lactose
Select one:
a. inactive
b. active
c. cloned
d. unregulated
Question 15
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Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to normal cells becoming cancerous?
Select one:
a. damage to a tumor suppressor gene
b. one or more of the cells genes being removed by a virus
c. excessive replication of proto oncogenes
d. the conversion of a proto oncogene to an oncogene
Question 16
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The term gene expression refers to the
Select one:
a. process by which genetic information flows from genes to proteins
b. fact that each individual of a species has a unique set of genes
c. fact that individuals of the same species have different phenotypes
d. flow of information from parent to offspring
Question 17
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Which of the following statements regarding DNA packing is false?
Select one:
a. Highly compacted chromatin is generally not expressed at all
b. DNA packing tends to promote gene expression
c. A nucleosome consists of DNA wound around a protein core of eight histone molecules
d. Prokaryotes have proteins analogous to histones
Question 18
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Cancer of the colon is caused by
Select one:
a. a single gene mutation
b. exposure of colon cells to a mutagen
c. the proto oncogene, lac
d. several somatic cell mutations
Question 19
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Signal transduction pathways
Select one:
a. are found strictly in multicellular organisms, which require cell to cell communication
b. are mechanisms of communication that probably evolved in ancient prokaryotes
c. originally evolved in vertebrates
d. are limited for use in sexual identification
Question 20
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Match the following definitions to the correct term.
A type of regulation at the RNA-processing level in which different mRNA molecules are produced from the same primary transcript, depending on which RNA segments are treated as exons and which as introns Answer 1
In female mammals, the inactivation of one X-chromosome in each somatic cell Answer 2
The process whereby genetic information flows from genes to proteins Answer 3
In the eukaryotic cell, a protein that functions in initiating or regulating transcription. Answer 4
The turning on and off of genes within a cell in response to environmental stimuli or other factors Answer 5
A dense body formed from a deactivated X chromosome found in the nuclei of female mammalian cells Answer 6
Question 21
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Mutations in the p53 gene can lead to cancer by
Select one:
a. increasing the production of growth hormones, which trigger faster cell cycles
b. causing the production of excessive amounts of relay proteins
c. promoting the expression of mRNA that can interact with DNA, resulting in new mutations
d. causing the production of a faulty protein that is no longer able to inhibit cell division
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Conjugation, transformation, and transduction are all ways that bacteria
Select one:
a. increase their genetic diversity
b. alter their oxygen requirements
c. reduce their DNA content
d. increase the amount of RNA in the cytoplasm
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In the 1920s, Frederick Griffith conducted an experiment in which he mixed the dead cells of a bacterial strain that can cause pneumonia with live cells of a bacterial strain that cannot. When he cultured the live cells, some of the daughter colonies proved able to cause pneumonia. Which of the following processes of bacterial DNA transfer does this experiment demonstrate?
Select one:
a. transduction
b. conjugation
c. transformation
d. transposition
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Which of the following options best depicts the flow of information when a gene directs the synthesis of a cellular component?
Select one:
a. RNA to DNA to RNA to protein
b. protein to RNA to DNA
c. DNA to tRNA to mRNA to protein
d. DNA to RNA to protein
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How do viroids harm the plants that are infected with them?
Select one:
a. by destroying the root system
b. by increasing the plants metabolic rate
c. by reducing the plants' seed production
d. by altering the plants' growth
Question 5
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Which of the following human activities has contributed to an increase in the number of bacteria having R plasmids?
Select one:
a. improper use of restriction enzymes in research and medical facilities
b. heavy use of antibiotics in medicine and in agriculture
c. increased carcinogen exposure from excessive fossil fuel burning
d. nitrogen fixation by genetically engineered plants
Question 6
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Which of the following occurs when RNA polymerase attaches to the promoter DNA?
Select one:
a. initiation of a new RNA molecule
b. initiation of a new polypeptide chain
c. elongation of the growing RNA molecule
d. termination of the RNA molecule
Question 7
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Which of the following enzymes does HIV use to synthesize DNA on an RNA template?
Select one:
a. RNA polymerase
b. ligase
c. DNA convertase
d. reverse transcriptase
Question 8
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Match the following definitions to the correct term.
A double-stranded helical nucleic acid molecule consisting of nucleotide monomers with deoxyribose sugar and the nitrogenous bases adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine. Answer 1
The study of the molecular basis of genes and gene expression Answer 2
The form of native DNA, referring to its two adjacent polynucleotide strands interwound into a spiral shape Answer 3
A virus that infects bacteria; also called a phage Answer 4
Type of DNA replication in which the replicated double helix consists of one old strand, derived from the old molecule, and one newly made strand. Answer 5
A building block of nucleic acids, consisting of five-carbon sugar covalently bonded to a nitrogenous base and one or more phosphate groups Answer 6
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Which of the following features characterizes the lytic cycle of a viral infection?
Select one:
a. The cycle typically ends when the host bacterium divides
b. The cycle typically leads to the lysis of the host cell
c. The virus reproduces outside of the host cell
d. The viral genes typically remain inactive once they are inside the host cell
Question 10
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Which of the following statements about the treatment or prevention for a prion infection is true?
Select one:
a. High doses of anti-inflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen reduce the symptoms of prion infections
b. Antibiotic therapies such as penicillin are very effective cures
c. There is no known treatment or cure for prion infections
d. Preventative vaccines have recently been shown to be effective in preventing prion infections
Question 11
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Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the linking together of RNA nucleotides to form RNA?
Select one:
a. a ribozyme
b. tRNA
c. RNA polymerase
d. RNA ligase
Question 12
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Which of the following statements is false?
Select one:
a. During the first step of initiation, an mRNA molecule binds to a small ribosomal subunit
b. An mRNA molecule transcribed from DNA is shorter than the genetic message it carries
c. Translation consists of initiation, elongation, and termination
d. During polypeptide initiation, an mRNA, the first amino acid attached to its tRNA, and the two subunits of a ribosome are brought together
Question 13
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Which of the following takes place during translation?
Select one:
a. the conversion of genetic information from the language of nucleic acids to the language of proteins
b. the conversion of genetic information from DNA nucleotides into RNA nucleotides
c. DNA replication
d. the conversion of genetic information from the language of proteins to the language of enzymes
Question 14
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We would expect that a 15-nucleotide sequence ending with a stop codon will direct the production of a polypeptide that consists of
Select one:
a. 5 amino acids
b. 3 amino acids
c. 2 amino acids
d. 4 amino acids
Question 15
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Any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called
Select one:
a. a mutagen
b. an anticodon
c. a base substitution
d. a mutation
Question 16
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Which of the following statements about eukaryotic RNA is true?
Select one:
a. The modified RNA molecule is transported into the nucleus
b. Exons are spliced together
c. Introns are added to the RNA
d. A small cap of extra nucleotides is added to both ends of the RNA
Question 17
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Match the following definitions to the correct term.
Any nucleotide sequence encoded by a gene that remains present within the final mature RNA product of that gene after introns have been removed by RNA splicing. Answer 1
A change in the nucleotide sequence of an organisms DNA Answer 2
A specific nucleotide sequence in DNA located near the start of a gene that is binding site for RNA polymerase and the place where transcriptions begin Answer 3
A special sequence of nucleotides in DNA that marks the end of a gene Answer 4
The type of ribonucleic acid that encodes genetic information from DNA and conveys it to ribosomes, where the information is translated into amino acid sequences Answer 5
An intron is any nucleotide sequence within a gene that is removed by RNA splicing while the final mature RNA product of a gene is being generated Answer 6
Question 18
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Match the following definitions to the correct term.
The synthesis of RNA on a DNA template Answer 1
A large molecular complex that assembles DNA nucleotides into polynucleotides using a preexisting strand of DNA as a template Answer 2
An enzyme, essential for DNA replication, that catalyzes the covalent bonding of adjacent DNA polynucleotide strands. Answer 3
A three nucleotide sequence in mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid or polypeptide termination signal Answer 4
A large molecule complex that links together the growing chain of RNA nucleotides during transcription, using a DNA strand as a template Answer 5
The set of rules that dictates the correspondence between RNA codons in an mRNA molecule and amino acids in protein Answer 6
Question 19
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Which of the following statements regarding DNA is false?
Select one:
a. DNA molecules have a sugar-phosphate backbone
b. One DNA molecule can include four different nucleotides in its structure
c. DNA uses the sugar deoxyribose
d. DNA uses the nitrogenous base uracil
Question 1
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Match the following definitions with the correct term.
The expressed traits of an organism Answer 1
The allele that determines the phenotype of a gene when the individual is heterozyguous for that gene Answer 2
An allele that has no noticeable effect on the phenotype of a gene when the individual is heterozygous for that gene Answer 3
The genetic makeup of an organism Answer 4
Have two different alleles for a given gene Answer 5
Having two identical allele’s for a given gene Answer 6
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Using a six sided die, what is the probability of rolling either a 5 or a 6?
Select one:
a. 1/6
b. 1/6 plus 1/6 equals 1/3
c. 1/6 plus 1/6 equals 2/3
d. 1/6 × 1/6 equals 1/36
Question 3
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A color blind woman marries a man who is not color blind. All of their sons, but none of their daughters, are color blind. Which of the following statements correctly explains these results?
Select one:
a. The gene for color vision is found on the X chromosome
b. The gene for color vision is incompletely dominant to the gene for sex determination
c. The gene for color vision is codominant with the gene for sex determination
d. The gene for color vision is found on the Y chromosome
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Which of the following statements regarding genetic testing is false?
Select one:
a. Genetic testing before birth requires the collection of fetal cells
b. The screening of newborns can catch inherited disorders right after birth
c. Carrier testing helps determine if a person carries a potentially harmful disorder
d. Most human genetic diseases are treatable if caught early
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Sickle cell disease is an example of
Select one:
a. Multiple alleles and pleiotropy
b. Multiple alleles, pleiotropy, and blended inheritance
c. Codominance and pleiotropy
d. Codominance and multiple alleles
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Recessive X linked traits are more likely to be expressed in a male fruit fly than a female fruit fly because
Select one:
a. the male chromosome is more susceptible to mutations
b. the male chromosome is more fragile than the female chromosome
c. males are haploid
d. the males phenotype results entirely from his single X linked gene
Question 7
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Which of the following kinds of data could be used to map the relative position of three genes on a chromosome?
Select one:
a. the frequencies with which the corresponding traits occur together in offspring
b. the frequencies of mutations in the genes
c. the frequencies with which the genes exhibit incomplete dominance over each other
d. the frequencies with which the genes are inherited from the mother and from the father
Question 8
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Mendels law of independent assortment states that
Select one:
a. Chromosomes sort independently of each other during mitosis and meiosis
b. Independent sorting of genes produces polyploid plants under some circumstances
c. Each pair of alleles segregates independently of the other pairs of alleles during gamete formation
d. Genes are sorted concurrently during gamete formation
Question 9
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Which of the following statements regarding hypotheses about inheritance is false?
Select one:
a. The blending hypothesis suggests that all of the traits of the offspring come from either the mother or the father
b. The blending hypothesis does not explain how traits that disappear in one generation can reappear in later generations
c. Contrary to the theory of pangenesis, somatic cells do not influence eggs or sperm
d. The theory of pangenesis incorrectly suggests that reproductive cells receive particles from somatic cells
Question 10
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A person with AB blood illustrates the principle of
Select one:
a. Codominance
b. Polygenic inheritance
c. Pleiotropy
d. Incomplete dominance
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A carrier of a genetic disorder who does not show symptoms is most likely to be ________ to transmit it to offspring.
Select one:
a. Heterozygous for the trait and able
b. Homozygous for the trait and unable
c. Homozygous for the trait and able
d. Heterozygous for the trait and unable
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A monohybrid cross is
Select one:
a. A breeding experiment in which the parental varieties differ in only one character
b. The second generation of a self fertilized plant
c. A breeding experiment in which the parental varieties have only one prominent trait
d. A breeding experiment in which the parental varieties have only one trait in common
Question 13
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Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is false?
Select one:
a. Sickle cell disease causes white blood cells to be sickle shaped
b. Persons who are heterozygous for sickle-cell disease are also resistant to malaria
c. About one in ten African Americans is a carrier of sickle cell disease
d. All of the symptoms of sickle cell disease result from the actions of just one allele
Question 14
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Imagine that beak color in a finch species is controlled by a single gene. You mate a finch homozygous for orange beak with a finch homozygous for ivory beak and get numerous offspring, all of which have a pale, ivory-orange beak. This pattern of color expression is most likely to be an example of
Select one:
a. Incomplete dominance
b. Polygenic inheritance
c. Pleiotropy
d. Codominance
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The chromosome theory of inheritance states that
Select one:
a. Humans have 46 chromosomes
b. The behavior of chromosomes during mitosis accounts for inheritance patterns
c. The behavior of chromosomes during meiosis and fertilization accounts for patterns of inheritance
d. Chromosomes that exhibit mutations are the source of genetic variation
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Which of the following statements best represents the theory of pangenesis developed by Hippocrates?
Select one:
a. Particles called pangenes, which originate in each part of an organism's body, collect in the sperm or eggs and are passed on to the next generation
b. Pregnancy is a spontaneous event, and the characteristics of the offspring are determined by the gods
c. Heritable traits are influenced by the environment and the behaviors of the parents
d. Offspring inherit the traits of either the mother or the father, but not both
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What is meant by the statement that male bees are fatherless?
Select one:
a. The queen bee's mate dies before the male eggs hatch
b. Male bees don't play a role in the rearing of bee young
c. Male bees are produced by budding
d. Male bees develop from unfertilized eggs
Question 18
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A testcross is
Select one:
a. A mating between two individuals heterozygous for the trait of interest
b. A mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual heterozygous for the trait of interest
c. A mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual homozygous recessive for the trait of interest
d. A mating between two individuals of unknown genotype
Question 19
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The mechanism that "breaks" the linkage between linked genes is
Select one:
a. crossing over
b. codominance
c. independent assortment
d. pleiotropy
Question 20
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Match the following definitions with the correct term.
The transmission of traits from one generation to the next Answer 1
A variant of a character found within a population, such as purple or white flowers in pea plants. Answer 2
Referring to organisms for which sexual reproduction produces offspring with inherited traits identical to those of the parents. The organisms are homozygous for the characteristics under consideration Answer 3
An offspring of parents of two different species or of two different varieties of one species; an offspring of two parents that differ in one or more inherited traits; an individual that is heterozygous for one or more pairs of genes Answer 4
The scientific study of heredity. Answer 5
An alternative version of a gene Answer 6
Question 21
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Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allow for ________ and ________ of the fetus so that it can be tested for abnormalities.
Select one:
a. Direct observation, biochemical testing
b. Sexing, imaging
c. Imaging, karyotyping
d. Karyotyping, biochemical testing
Question 22
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Female inheritance patterns cannot be analyzed by simply studying the X chromosome because
Select one:
a. the X chromosome sometimes exchanges genetic information with the Y chromosome
b. the X chromosome is too large to analyze effectively
c. the X chromosome is obtained from both father and mother
d. one X chromosome is deactivated in females
Question 23
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Imagine that we mate two black Labrador dogs with normal vision and find that three of the puppies are like the parents, but one puppy is chocolate with normal vision and another is black with PRA (progressive retinal atrophy, a serious disease of vision). We can conclude that
Select one:
a. The alleles for color and vision segregate dependently during gamete formation
b. The alleles for color and vision segregate independently during gamete formation
c. The same alleles that control coat color can also cause PRA
d. Both of the parents are homozygous for both traits
Question 1
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DNA ligase binds
Select one:
a. exons together
b. polymerase to the promotor
c. nucleotides together
d. an intron to an exon
Question 2
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Dr. Smiths parents have normal hearing. However, Dr. Smith has an inherited form of deafness. Deafness is a recessive trait that is associated with the abnormal allele d. The normal allele at this locus, associated with normal hearing, is D. Dr. Smith's parents could have which of the following genotypes?
Select one:
a. Dd and Dd
b. Or dd and dd
c. DD and dd
d. Dd and DD
Question 3
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When DNA from two sources is combined into one single piece of DNA, it is known as
Select one:
a. recombinant DNA
b. a vector
c. cloned DNA
d. a plasmid
Question 4
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Varieties of plants in which self-fertilization produces offspring that are identical to the parents are referred to as
Select one:
a. True breeding
b. Monohybrid crosses
c. The F2 generation
d. Hybrids
Question 5
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miRNA can be used by
Select one:
a. researchers to induce the production of more mRNA
b. viruses to stop the production of new proteins
c. researchers to artificially turn on gene expression
d. cells to prevent infections from double stranded RNA viruses
Question 6
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Match the following definitions with the correct term.
Have two different alleles for a given gene Answer 1
An allele that has no noticeable effect on the phenotype of a gene when the individual is heterozygous for that gene Answer 2
Having two identical allele’s for a given gene Answer 3
The expressed traits of an organism Answer 4
The genetic makeup of an organism Answer 5
The allele that determines the phenotype of a gene when the individual is heterozyguous for that gene Answer 6
Question 7
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What is the preferred name of the technique used to determine if DNA comes from a particular individual?
Select one:
a. DNA fingerprinting
b. DNA outline
c. DNA profiling
d. DNA scrutiny
Question 8
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Which of the following human activities has contributed to an increase in the number of bacteria having R plasmids?
Select one:
a. nitrogen fixation by genetically engineered plants
b. heavy use of antibiotics in medicine and in agriculture
c. increased carcinogen exposure from excessive fossil fuel burning
d. improper use of restriction enzymes in research and medical facilities
Question 9
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Sickle cell disease is an example of
Select one:
a. Codominance and multiple alleles
b. Codominance and pleiotropy
c. Multiple alleles, pleiotropy, and blended inheritance
d. Multiple alleles and pleiotropy
Question 10
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Match the following definitions with the correct term.
The transmission of traits from one generation to the next Answer 1
An offspring of parents of two different species or of two different varieties of one species; an offspring of two parents that differ in one or more inherited traits; an individual that is heterozygous for one or more pairs of genes Answer 2
The scientific study of heredity. Answer 3
A variant of a character found within a population, such as purple or white flowers in pea plants. Answer 4
An alternative version of a gene Answer 5
Referring to organisms for which sexual reproduction produces offspring with inherited traits identical to those of the parents. The organisms are homozygous for the characteristics under consideration Answer 6
Question 11
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Which of the following mammals has not yet been cloned and brought through the complete gestation cycle?
Select one:
a. pig
b. cow
c. human
d. cat
Question 12
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A collection of DNA fragments obtained from the genome of one organism, inserted by recombinant DNA techniques into the genome of a host organism (one fragment per host genome), and maintained there is called a
Select one:
a. DNA file
b. DNA collection
c. gene bank
d. genomic library
Question 13
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In the process of human gene cloning using plasmids, the bacterial plasmid
Select one:
a. is used to insert the human gene into the bacterial chromosome
b. is the source of the gene to be cloned
c. is cultured inside the human cell, which contains the gene to be cloned
d. functions as a vector
Question 14
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The one gene one polypeptide theory states that
Select one:
a. the function of an individual gene is to dictate the production of a specific polypeptide
b. the synthesis of each enzyme is catalyzed by one specific gene
c. the synthesis of each gene is catalyzed by one specific enzyme
d. the function of each polypeptide is to regulate the synthesis of each corresponding gene
Question 15
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The use of cloning to produce special embryonic stem cells is called
Select one:
a. regenerative cloning
b. therapeutic cloning
c. reproductive cloning
d. transplantational cloning
Question 16
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The advantage of being able to clone the gene for human insulin is that
Select one:
a. cow, pig, or horse insulin cannot keep a diabetic alive for more than three months
b. there are too few cows, pigs, and horses to provide an adequate supply of their insulin
c. human insulin is less likely to cause harmful side effects than cow, pig, or horse insulin
d. using human insulin increases the probability that, in the future, the person suffering from diabetes can be weaned from a dependence on insulin
Question 17
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Which of the following is likely to occur in E. coli cells that are grown in skim milk?
Select one:
a. The trp repressor is activated and the cells will produce lactose-utilizing enzymes
b. The lac operon is shut off and the cells will not produce lactose-utilizing enzymes
c. The trp operon and the lac operon are both switched off
d. The trp operon is turned on but the bacteria will not produce lactose-utilizing enzymes
Question 18
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Which of the following statements regarding DNA is false?
Select one:
a. Current estimates are that there are 20,000 genes in the human genome
b. Scientists think that the typical human gene specifies just one polypeptide
c. Long stretches of repetitive DNA are prominent at centromeres and ends of chromosomes
d. Telomeres seem to have a structural function
Question 19
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Match the following definitions to the correct term.
Any nucleotide sequence encoded by a gene that remains present within the final mature RNA product of that gene after introns have been removed by RNA splicing. Answer 1
An intron is any nucleotide sequence within a gene that is removed by RNA splicing while the final mature RNA product of a gene is being generated Answer 2
A change in the nucleotide sequence of an organisms DNA Answer 3
A specific nucleotide sequence in DNA located near the start of a gene that is binding site for RNA polymerase and the place where transcriptions begin Answer 4
A special sequence of nucleotides in DNA that marks the end of a gene Answer 5
The type of ribonucleic acid that encodes genetic information from DNA and conveys it to ribosomes, where the information is translated into amino acid sequences Answer 6
Question 20
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Match the following definitions to the correct term.
The process whereby genetic information flows from genes to proteins Answer 1
A type of regulation at the RNA-processing level in which different mRNA molecules are produced from the same primary transcript, depending on which RNA segments are treated as exons and which as introns Answer 2
In the eukaryotic cell, a protein that functions in initiating or regulating transcription. Answer 3
A dense body formed from a deactivated X chromosome found in the nuclei of female mammalian cells Answer 4
In female mammals, the inactivation of one X-chromosome in each somatic cell Answer 5
The turning on and off of genes within a cell in response to environmental stimuli or other factors Answer 6
Question 21
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The genes for the enzymes of glycolysis
Select one:
a. are inactive in all metabolizing cells, but the genes for specialized proteins are expressed in all cell types
b. and the genes for all specialized proteins are expressed in all metabolizing cells
c. and the genes for all specialized proteins are expressed in all embryonic cells
d. are active in all metabolizing cells, but the genes for specialized proteins are expressed only in particular cell types
Question 22
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Enhancers are
Select one:
a. required to facilitate the binding of DNA polymerases
b. DNA sequences to which activator proteins bind
c. adjacent to the gene that they regulate
d. required to turn on gene expression when transcription factors are in short supply
Question 23
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Which of the following statements about proto-oncogenes is false?
Select one:
a. Proto oncogenes are normal genes with the potential to become oncogenes
b. A mutation in a tumor suppressor gene can stop cell division immediately
c. Many proto oncogenes code for growth factors
d. A mutation must occur in a cells DNA for a proto oncogene to become an oncogene
Question 24
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What is the smallest number of cells needed to perform a successful DNA profile?
Select one:
a. 200
b. 1,000
c. 1
d. 20
Question 25
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Which of the following statements regarding DNA packing is false?
Select one:
a. Highly compacted chromatin is generally not expressed at all
b. DNA packing tends to promote gene expression
c. Prokaryotes have proteins analogous to histones
d. A nucleosome consists of DNA wound around a protein core of eight histone molecules
Question 26
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Signal transduction pathways
Select one:
a. are found strictly in multicellular organisms, which require cell to cell communication
b. originally evolved in vertebrates
c. are limited for use in sexual identification
d. are mechanisms of communication that probably evolved in ancient prokaryotes
Question 27
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A gene that can cause cancer when present in a single copy in a cell is called a
Select one:
a. enhancer gene
b. proto oncogene
c. oncogene
d. carcinogen
Question 28
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How is sex determined in most ants and bees?
Select one:
a. by the number of chromosomes
b. by the X Y system
c. by the size of the sex chromosome
d. by the Z W system
Question 29
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All the offspring of a cross between a black-eyed mendelien and an orange-eyed mendelien have black eyes. This means that the allele for black eyes is ________ the allele for orange eyes.
Select one:
a. Codominant to
b. More aggressive than
c. Recessive to
d. Dominant to
Question 30
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A monohybrid cross is
Select one:
a. A breeding experiment in which the parental varieties differ in only one character
b. A breeding experiment in which the parental varieties have only one prominent trait
c. The second generation of a self fertilized plant
d. A breeding experiment in which the parental varieties have only one trait in common
Question 31
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Match the following definitions with the correct term.
A technique for diagnosing genetic defects while a fetus is in the uterus. Answer 1
A general rule in inheritance that when gametes form during meiosis, each pair of alleles for a particular characteristic segregate independently of other pairs Answer 2
A family genetic tree representing the occurrence of heritable traits in parents and offspring across a number of generations. Answer 3
A type of inheritance in which the phenotypes of the heterozygote and dominant homozygote are indistinguishable Answer 4
The mating between an individual of unknown genotype for a particular characteristic and an individual that is homozygous recessive for that same characteristic. Answer 5
A type of inheritance in which the phenotype of a heterozygote is intermediate between the phenotypes of the two types of homozygotes Answer 6
Question 32
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Imagine that we mate two black Labrador dogs with normal vision and find that three of the puppies are like the parents, but one puppy is chocolate with normal vision and another is black with PRA (progressive retinal atrophy, a serious disease of vision). We can conclude that
Select one:
a. The same alleles that control coat color can also cause PRA
b. Both of the parents are homozygous for both traits
c. The alleles for color and vision segregate independently during gamete formation
d. The alleles for color and vision segregate dependently during gamete formation
Question 33
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A testcross is
Select one:
a. A mating between two individuals of unknown genotype
b. A mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual heterozygous for the trait of interest
c. A mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual homozygous recessive for the trait of interest
d. A mating between two individuals heterozygous for the trait of interest
Question 34
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The lac operon of E. coli is ________ when the repressor is bound to lactose
Select one:
a. active
b. inactive
c. cloned
d. unregulated
Question 35
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The type of recombinant bacteria most often used to mass produce genes is
Select one:
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
c. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
d. Escherichia coli
Question 36
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Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to normal cells becoming cancerous?
Select one:
a. damage to a tumor suppressor gene
b. the conversion of a proto oncogene to an oncogene
c. excessive replication of proto oncogenes
d. one or more of the cells genes being removed by a virus
Question 37
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Viral DNA incorporated into host cell DNA is known as a
Select one:
a. prophage
b. capsid
c. envelope
d. phage
Question 38
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Which of the following statements about DNA technology is false?
Select one:
a. DNA technology is now used to mass-produce human growth hormone
b. DNA technology is now used to produce vaccines that are harmless mutants of a pathogen
c. DNA technology is now used to create cells that can identify and kill cancer cells
d. DNA technology is now used to mass-produce human insulin
Question 39
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Which of the following statements about the treatment or prevention for a prion infection is true?
Select one:
a. High doses of anti-inflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen reduce the symptoms of prion infections
b. There is no known treatment or cure for prion infections
c. Antibiotic therapies such as penicillin are very effective cures
d. Preventative vaccines have recently been shown to be effective in preventing prion infections
Question 40
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Match the following definitions to the correct term.
A technique in which the nucleus of one cell is placed into another cell that already has a nucleus or in which the nucleus has been previously destroyed Answer 1
to produce genetically identical copies of a cell, organism, or DNA molecule Answer 2
Cell in the early animal embryo that differentiates during development to give rise to all the different kinds of specialized cells in the body Answer 3
A glass slide carrying thousands of different kinds of single-stranded DNA fragments arranged in an array.
Answer 4
A cancer-causing agent, either high-energy radiation or a chemical Answer 5
The regrowth of body parts from pieces of an organism Answer 6
Question 41
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What is the normal complement of sex chromosomes in a human male?
Select one:
a. one Y chromosome
b. two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome
c. two Y chromosomes
d. one X chromosome and one Y chromosome
Question 42
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Which of the following genetically modified organisms has not been developed by genetic engineers?
Select one:
a. Transgenic rice with genes for milk proteins
b. Transgenic corn with the gene for human insulin
c. Transgenic salmon with a growth hormone gene that allows them to grow more quickly
d. Transgenic pig with a roundworm gene that allows them to make more omega-3 fatty acids
Question 43
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Which of the following mechanisms of controlling gene expression occurs outside of the nucleus?
Select one:
a. adding a cap and tail to RNA
b. DNA packing/unpacking
c. RNA splicing
d. translation
Question 44
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In the genetic code,
Select one:
a. some codons consist of two nucleotides
b. some amino acids are not specified by any codons
c. many amino acids are specified by more than one codon
d. some codons specify more than one amino acid
Question 45
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When a bacterial cell with a chromosome-borne F factor conjugates with another bacterium, how is the transmitted donor DNA incorporated into the recipients genome?
Select one:
a. It circularizes and becomes one of the recipient cells plasmids
b. The genes on the donor DNA of which the recipient does not have a copy are added to the recipient chromosome; the remainder of the donor DNA is degraded
c. It is substituted for the equivalent portion of the recipient's chromosome by the process of crossing over
d. The donor and recipient DNA are both chopped into segments by restriction enzymes, and a new, composite chromosome is assembled from the fragments
Question 46
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Match the following definitions with the correct term.
The study of whole sets of genes and their interactions Answer 1
A procedure that analyzes DNA samples to determine if they came from the same individual Answer 2
A technique for separating and purifying macromolecules, either DNAs or proteins. Answer 3
A technique used to obtain many copies of a DNA molecule or a specific part of a DNA molecule Answer 4
Short, artificially created, single-stranded DNA molecules that bind to each end of a target sequence during a PCR procedure Answer 5
A treatment for a disease in which the patient’s defective gene is supplemented or altered Answer 6
Question 47
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Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allow for ________ and ________ of the fetus so that it can be tested for abnormalities.
Select one:
a. Direct observation, biochemical testing
b. Imaging, karyotyping
c. Sexing, imaging
d. Karyotyping, biochemical testing
Question 48
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Small pieces of RNA that can regulate translation of mRNA are called
Select one:
a. minuteRNA
b. microRNA
c. monoRNA
d. miniRNA
Question 49
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Genetically modifying ________ cells may directly affect future generations.
Select one:
a. somatic
b. basal
c. T
d. germ
Question 50
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The relationship between DNA and chromosomes is most like
Select one:
a. a spoon cradling some peas
b. the candy shell surrounding the chocolate in a piece of M & M candy
c. thread wrapped around a spool
d. an egg yolk inside of an egg
Question 51
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Match the following definitions to the correct term.
A building block of nucleic acids, consisting of five-carbon sugar covalently bonded to a nitrogenous base and one or more phosphate groups Answer 1
Type of DNA replication in which the replicated double helix consists of one old strand, derived from the old molecule, and one newly made strand. Answer 2
A virus that infects bacteria; also called a phage Answer 3
A double-stranded helical nucleic acid molecule consisting of nucleotide monomers with deoxyribose sugar and the nitrogenous bases adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine. Answer 4
The form of native DNA, referring to its two adjacent polynucleotide strands interwound into a spiral shape Answer 5
The study of the molecular basis of genes and gene expression Answer 6
Question 52
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Yeast are able to communicate with each other
Select one:
a. through chemical signaling
b. only if they can touch each other and have merged cell walls
c. with pseudopodia
d. by close cell to cell contact
Question 53
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Which of the following enzymes does HIV use to synthesize DNA on an RNA template?
Select one:
a. DNA convertase
b. reverse transcriptase
c. RNA polymerase
d. ligase
Question 54
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Which of the following statements about eukaryotic RNA is true?
Select one:
a. Exons are spliced together
b. Introns are added to the RNA
c. The modified RNA molecule is transported into the nucleus
d. A small cap of extra nucleotides is added to both ends of the RNA
Question 55
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Which of the following terms refers to a situation where a single phenotypic character is determined by the additive effects of two or more genes?
Select one:
a. Incomplete dominance
b. Polygenic inheritance
c. Pleiotropy
d. Codominance
Question 56
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Any gene located on a sex chromosome
Select one:
a. is called a sex linked gene
b. is called a recessive gene
c. will exhibit codominance
d. will exhibit pleiotropy
Question 57
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Match the following definitions to the correct term.
The set of rules that dictates the correspondence between RNA codons in an mRNA molecule and amino acids in protein Answer 1
A large molecule complex that links together the growing chain of RNA nucleotides during transcription, using a DNA strand as a template Answer 2
A large molecular complex that assembles DNA nucleotides into polynucleotides using a preexisting strand of DNA as a template Answer 3
An enzyme, essential for DNA replication, that catalyzes the covalent bonding of adjacent DNA polynucleotide strands. Answer 4
The synthesis of RNA on a DNA template Answer 5
A three nucleotide sequence in mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid or polypeptide termination signal Answer 6
Question 58
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Restriction enzymes
Select one:
a. edit proteins
b. cut DNA at specific sites
c. stop transcription
d. bind together strands of DNA
Question 59
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Mendel conducted his most memorable experiments on
Select one:
a. Guinea pigs
b. Fruit flies
c. Peas
d. Roses
Question 60
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Restriction enzymes specifically recognize and cut short sequences of DNA called
Select one:
a. restriction sites
b. promoter sequences
c. short terminal repeats
d. sticky ends
Question 61
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The production of multiple identical copies of gene sized pieces of DNA defines
Select one:
a. tissue culturing
b. plasmid transformation
c. clonal selection
d. gene cloning
Question 62
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Conjugation
Select one:
a. is the direct transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another
b. occurs when a bacterium acquires DNA from the surrounding environment
c. is the result of crossing over
d. occurs when a phage transfers bacterial DNA from one bacterium to another
Question 63
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Gel electrophoresis sorts DNA molecules on the basis of their
Select one:
a. size
b. solubility in the gel
c. nucleotide sequence
d. ability to bind to mRNA
Question 64
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The ________ approach to gene cloning employs a mixture of fragments from the entire genome of an organism and results in the production of thousands of different recombinant plasmids.
Select one:
a. Ti
b. shotgun
c. AK 47
d. V protein
Question 65
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In multicellular organisms, the coordination of cellular activities relies on
Select one:
a. cell to cell signaling and signal transduction pathways
b. cell receptors that detect transcription factors
c. operons
d. the availability of certain "key" nutrients as cells divide
Question 66
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Consider the following sentence: The dog did not eat. Which of the following variations of this sentence is most like a base substitution mutation?
Select one:
a. The dog dog did not eat
b. The dog did not et
c. The did dog not eat
d. The doe did not eat
Question 67
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Which of the following statements regarding prenatal testing is false?
Select one:
a. Ultrasound imaging has no known risk
b. Results from chorionic villus sampling come faster than from amniocentesis
c. Chorionic villus sampling is typically performed later in the pregnancy than amniocentesis
d. Chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis are usually reserved for pregnancies with higher than usual risks of complications
Question 68
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A nucleic acid probe is
Select one:
a. a piece of radioactively labeled DNA that is used to locate a specific gene
b. a virus that transfers DNA to a recipient cell
c. a plasmid that recognizes a specific DNA sequence
d. an enzyme that locates a specific restriction site on RNA
Question 69
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All of the following mechanisms are used to regulate protein production except
Select one:
a. protein breakdown
b. the breakdown of mRNA
c. DNA editing
d. protein activation
Question 70
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Which of the following statements regarding the flow of genetic information is false?
Select one:
a. Polypeptides form proteins that determine the appearance and function of the cell and organism
b. Eukaryotic mRNA is processed in several ways before export out of the nucleus
c. Transcription occurs in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells
d. Ribosomes function as factories that coordinate the functioning of mRNA and tRNA
Question 71
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Transduction
Select one:
a. requires DNA polymerase
b. occurs when a phage transfers bacterial DNA from one bacterium to another
c. occurs when a bacterium acquires DNA from the surrounding environment
d. is the direct transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another
Question 72
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The carcinogen known to cause the most cases and types of cancer is
Select one:
a. tobacco
b. plutonium
c. ultraviolet light
d. alcohol
Question 73
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What is the current standard tool used for DNA profiling by forensic scientists?
Select one:
a. PCR
b. Gel electrophoresis
c. STR analysis
d. DNA microarrays
Question 74
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Match the following definitions with the correct term.
The direct manipulation of genes for practical purposes Answer 1
A DNA molecule carrying nucleotide sequences derived from two or more sources Answer 2
Methods used to study and/or manipulate DNA Answer 3
An enzyme, essential for DNA replication, that catalyzes the covalent bonding of adjacent DNA polynucleotide strands Answer 4
The production of multiple copies of a gene Answer 5
In molecular biology, a piece of DNA, usually a plasmid or a viral genome, that is used to move genes from one cell to another Answer 6
Question 75
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Which of the following statements regarding a DNA double helix is always true?
Select one:
a. The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of guanine, and the amount of thymine is equal to the amount of cytosine
b. The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of uracil, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine
c. The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of cytosine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of thymine
d. The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine
Question 76
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The individual features of all organisms are the result of
Select one:
a. The environment
b. The environment and individual needs
c. Genetics and the environment
d. Genetics
Question 77
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DNA replication
Select one:
a. uses each strand of a DNA molecule as a template for the creation of a new strand
b. results in the formation of four new DNA strands
c. begins when two DNA molecules join together to exchange segments
d. occurs through the addition of nucleotides to the end of the parental DNA molecule
Question 78
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Which of the following permits a single gene to code for more than one polypeptide?
Select one:
a. genetic differentiation
b. alternative RNA splicing
c. retention of different introns in the final version of the different mRNA strands
d. addition of different types of caps and tails to the final version of the mRNA strands
Question 79
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The ________ are a major source of restriction enzymes.
Select one:
a. Parietal cells
b. Bacteria
c. Chief cells
d. Archaea
Question 80
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Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand?
Select one:
a. DNA polymerase
b. ligase
c. single stranded binding protein
d. helicase
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