Auditing and Assurance Services, 15e (Arens)
Chapter 24 Completing the Audit
Learning Objective 24-1
1) Auditors often integrate procedures for presentation and disclosure objectives with:
A)
Tests for planni
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Auditing and Assurance Services, 15e (Arens)
Chapter 24 Completing the Audit
Learning Objective 24-1
1) Auditors often integrate procedures for presentation and disclosure objectives with:
A)
Tests for planning objectives Tests for balance-related objectives
Yes Yes
B)
Tests for planning objectives Tests for balance-related objectives
No No
C)
Tests for planning objectives Tests for balance-related objectives
Yes No
D)
Tests for planning objectives Tests for balance-related objectives
No Yes
Terms: Procedures for presentation and disclosure objectives
Objective: LO 24-1
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
2) The auditor's primary concern relative to presentation and disclosure-related objectives is:
A) accuracy.
B) existence.
C) completeness.
D) occurrence.
Terms: Presentation and disclosure-related objectives
Objective: LO 24-1
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
Learning Objective 24-2
1) If a potential loss on a contingent liability is remote, the liability usually is:
A) disclosed in footnotes, but not accrued.
B) neither accrued nor disclosed in footnotes.
C) accrued and indicated in the body of the financial statements.
D) disclosed in the auditor's report but not disclosed on the financial statements.
Terms: Contingent liability; remote
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
2) A commitment is best described as:
A) an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in the future.
B) an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in the future that depends on company profitability.
C) an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in the future that depends on current market conditions.
D) a potential future obligation to an outside party for an as yet to be determined amount.
Terms: Commitments
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
3) Which of the following groups has the responsibility for identifying and deciding the appropriate accounting treatment for recording or disclosing contingent liabilities?
A) Auditors
B) Legal counsel
C) Management
D) Management and the auditors
Terms: Recording or disclosing contingent liabilities
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
4) You are auditing Rodgers and Company. You are aware of a potential loss due to non-compliance with environmental regulations. Management has assessed that there is a 40% chance that a $10M payment could result from the non-compliance. The appropriate financial statement treatment is to:
A) accrue a $4 million liability.
B) disclose a liability and provide a range of outcomes.
C) since there is less than a 50% chance of occurrence, ignore.
D) since there is greater that a remote chance of occurrence, accrue the $10 million.
Terms: Potential loss for noncompliance
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Analytic skills
5) Which of the following is a contingent liability with which an auditor is particularly concerned?
A)
Notes receivable discounted Product warranties
Yes Yes
B)
Notes receivable discounted Product warranties
No No
C)
Notes receivable discounted Product warranties
Yes No
D)
Notes receivable discounted Product warranties
No Yes
Terms: Contingent liability; auditor particularly concerned
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
6) Audit procedures related to contingent liabilities are initially focused on:
A) accuracy.
B) completeness.
C) existence.
D) occurrence.
Terms: Audit procedures related to contingent liabilities
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
7) With which of the following client personnel would it generally not be appropriate to inquire about commitments or contingent liabilities?
A) Controller
B) President
C) Accounts receivable clerk
D) Vice president of sales
Terms: Inquire for commitments or contingent liabilities
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
8) Inquiries of management regarding the possibility of unrecorded contingencies will be useful in uncovering:
A)
Management's intentional failure to disclose existing contingencies. When management does not comprehend accounting disclosure requirements.
Yes Yes
B)
Management's intentional failure to disclose existing contingencies. When management does not comprehend accounting disclosure requirements.
No No
C)
Management's intentional failure to disclose existing contingencies. When management does not comprehend accounting disclosure requirements.
Yes No
D)
Management's intentional failure to disclose existing contingencies. When management does not comprehend accounting disclosure requirements.
No Yes
Terms: Inquiries of management; Unrecorded contingencies
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
9) Which of the following is not considered a commitment?
A) Agreements to purchase raw materials
B) Pension plans
C) Agreements to lease facilities at set prices
D) Each of the above is a commitment.
Terms: Commitments
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
10) If an auditor concludes there are contingent liabilities, then he or she must evaluate the:
A)
Materiality of the potential liability. Nature of the disclosure to be included in
the financial statements.
Yes Yes
B)
Materiality of the potential liability. Nature of the disclosure to be included in
the financial statements.
No No
C)
Materiality of the potential liability. Nature of the disclosure to be included in
the financial statements.
Yes No
D)
Materiality of the potential liability. Nature of the disclosure to be included in
the financial statements.
No Yes
Terms: Contingent liabilities
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
11) One of the primary approaches in dealing with uncertainties in loss contingencies uses a ________ threshold.
A) monetary
B) materiality
C) probability
D) analytical
Terms: Contingent liabilities
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
12) If the auditor concludes that there are contingent liabilities, he or she must evaluate the significance of the potential liability and the nature of the disclosure needed in the financial statements. Which of the following statements is not true?
A) The potential liability is sufficiently well known in some instances to be included in the financial statements as an actual liability.
B) Disclosure may be unnecessary if the contingency is highly remote or immaterial.
C) A CPA firm often obtains a separate evaluation of the potential liability from its own legal counsel rather than relying on management or management's attorneys.
D) The client's attorneys must remain independent when evaluating the likelihood of losing the lawsuit.
Terms: Contingent liabilities; significance of potential liability; nature of disclosure
Diff: Challenging
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
13) When using the probability threshold for contingencies, the likelihood of the occurrence of the event is classified as:
A) not likely, likely, or highly likely.
B) remote, reasonably possible, or probable.
C) slight, moderate, great.
D) remote, likely, possible.
Terms: Contingent liabilities
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
14) When dealing with contingencies:
A) all material contingencies must be disclosed or footnoted.
B) the auditor must exercise considerable professional judgment when evaluating whether the client has applied the appropriate treatment.
C) it is easy for the auditor to uncover contingencies without management's cooperation.
D) the review for contingent liabilities is only performed at the beginning and the end of the audit.
Terms: Contingent liabilities
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
15) Which of the following is not a common audit procedure used to search for contingent liabilities?
A) Examine letters of credit.
B) Examine payroll reports.
C) Review internal revenue agent reports.
D) Analyze legal expense.
Terms: Contingent liabilities
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
16) Contingent liability disclosure in the footnotes of the financial statements would normally be made when:
A) the outcome of the accounting event is deemed probable, but a reasonable estimation as to the amount cannot be made by the client or auditor.
B) a reasonable estimation of the loss can be made, but the outcome is not probable.
C) the outcome of the accounting event is deemed probable, and a reasonable estimation as to the amount can be made.
D) the outcome of the accounting event as well as a reasonable estimation of the loss cannot be made.
Terms: Contingent liability disclosure
Diff: Challenging
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
17) Distinguish between contingent liabilities and commitments.
ontingent liabilities are potential future obligations to an outside party for an unknown amount resulting from activities that have already taken place. Commitments are agreements that an entity will hold to a fixed set of conditions in the future regardless of what happens to profits or the economy as a whole.
Terms: Contingent liabilities; commitments
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
18) Define the term contingent liability and discuss the criteria accountants and auditors use to classify these accounting events.
ontingent liability: a potential future obligation to an outside party for an unknown amount resulting from activities that have already taken place. Three conditions are required for a contingent liability to exist: (1) there is a potential future payment to an outside party or the impairment of an asset that resulted from an existing condition; (2) there is uncertainty about the amount for the future payment or impairment; and (3) the outcome will be resolved by some future event or events. Accounting standards describe three levels of likelihood of occurrence and the appropriate financial statement treatment for each likelihood as follows:
a. Probable–future event likely to occur and amount can be reasonably estimated then the financial statement accounts are adjusted. If amount cannot be reasonably estimated, then a footnote disclosure is necessary.
b. Reasonably possible–chance of occurring is more than remote, but less than probable. Footnote disclosure is necessary.
c. Remote–chance of occurrence is slight, no disclosure is necessary.
Terms: Contingent liabilities
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
19) With what types of contingencies might an auditor be concerned?
20) What are the three required conditions for a contingent liability to exist?
21) An environmental clean-up lawsuit is pending against your client. What information about the lawsuit would you as the auditor need in order to determine the proper accounting treatment?
22) Discuss three audit procedures commonly used to search for contingent liabilities.
23) A lawsuit has been filed against your client. If, in the opinion of legal counsel, the likelihood your client will lose the lawsuit is remote, no financial statement accrual or disclosure of the potential loss would generally be required.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Lawsuit is remote; financial statement accrual or disclosure
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
24) Current professional auditing standards make it clear that management, not the auditor, is responsible for identifying and deciding the appropriate accounting treatment for contingent liabilities.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Auditing standards; contingent liabilities
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
25) Many of the audit procedures for finding contingencies are usually performed as an integral part of various segments of the audit rather than as a separate activity near the end of the audit.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Existence of contingent liabilities
Objective: LO 24-2
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
Learning Objective 24-3
1) Auditors will generally send a standard inquiry letter to:
A) only those attorneys who have devoted substantial time to client matters during the year.
B) every attorney that the client has been involved with in the current or preceding year, plus any attorney the client engages on occasion.
C) those attorneys whom the client relies on for advice related to substantial legal matters.
D) only the attorney who represents the client in proceeding where the client is defendant.
Terms: Standard inquiry letter
Objective: LO 24-3
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
2) What needs to be included in a letter of inquiry sent to a client's legal counsel?
A)
Any pending threatened litigation with which the attorney has had significant involvement The amount of legal fees paid by the client to the attorney
Yes Yes
B)
Any pending threatened litigation with which the attorney has had significant involvement The amount of legal fees paid by the client to the attorney
No No
C)
Any pending threatened litigation with which the attorney has had significant involvement The amount of legal fees paid by the client to the attorney
Yes No
D)
Any pending threatened litigation with which the attorney has had significant involvement The amount of legal fees paid by the client to the attorney
No Yes
Terms: Letter of inquiry
Objective: LO 24-3
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
3) Auditors, as part of completing the audit, will request the client to send a letter of inquiry to those attorneys the company has been consulting with during the year under audit regarding legal matters of concern to the company. The primary reason the auditor requests this information is to:
A) determine the range of probable loss for asserted claims.
B) corroborate of information supplied by management concerning litigation, claims, and assessments.
C) outside opinion of probability of losses in determining accruals for contingencies.
D) outside opinion of probability of losses in determining the proper footnote disclosure.
Terms: Completing the audit; Letter of inquiry
Objective: LO 24-3
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
4) The standard letter of inquiry to the client's legal counsel should be prepared on:
A) plain paper (no letterhead) and be unsigned.
B) lawyer's stationery and signed by the lawyer.
C) auditor's stationery and signed by an audit partner.
D) client's stationery and signed by a company official.
Terms: Letter of inquiry
Objective: LO 24-3
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
5) What is one of the main reasons an attorney may refuse to provide auditors with complete information about contingent liabilities?
A)
The attorneys refuse to disclose information they consider confidential. The attorneys refuse to respond due to a lack of knowledge about matters involving contingent liabilities.
Yes Yes
B)
The attorneys refuse to disclose information they consider confidential. The attorneys refuse to respond due to a lack of knowledge about matters involving contingent liabilities.
No No
C)
The attorneys refuse to disclose information they consider confidential. The attorneys refuse to respond due to a lack of knowledge about matters involving contingent liabilities.
Yes No
D)
The attorneys refuse to disclose information they consider confidential. The attorneys refuse to respond due to a lack of knowledge about matters involving contingent liabilities.
No Yes
Terms: Letter of inquiry
Objective: LO 24-3
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
6) An attorney is aware of a violation of a patent agreement that could result in a significant loss to the client if it were known. This is an example of a(n):
A) commitment.
B) unasserted claim.
C) pending litigation.
D) subsequent event.
Terms: Letter of inquiry
Objective: LO 24-3
AACSB: Analytic skills
7) Management furnishes the independent auditor with information concerning litigation, claims, and assessments. Which of the following is the auditor's primary means of initiating action to corroborate such information?
A) Request that client lawyers undertake a reconsideration of matters of litigation, claims, and assessments with which they were consulted during the period under examination.
B) Request that client management send a letter of inquiry to those lawyers with whom management consulted concerning litigation, claims, and assessments.
C) Request that client lawyers provide a legal opinion concerning the policies and procedures adopted by management to identify, evaluate, and account for litigation, claims, and assessments.
D) Request that client management engage outside attorneys to suggest wording for the text of a footnote explaining the nature and probable outcome of existing litigation, claims, and assessments.
Terms: Corroborate information concerning litigation, claims, and assessments
Diff: Challenging
Objective: LO 24-3
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
8) An attorney is responding to an independent auditor as a result of the client's letter of inquiry. The attorney may appropriately limit the response to:
A) asserted claims and litigation.
B) asserted, overtly threatened, or pending claims and litigation.
C) items which have an extremely high probability of being resolved to the client's detriment.
D) matters to which the attorney has given substantive attention in the form of legal consultation or representation.
Terms: Response to client's letter of inquiry
Diff: Challenging
Objective: LO 24-3
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
9) Attorneys in recent years have become reluctant to provide certain information to auditors because of their own exposure to legal liability for providing incorrect or confidential information. State the two main reasons that attorneys refuse to provide the auditors with complete information.
Objective: LO 24-3
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
Topic: Public
10) State three items that should be included in a standard "inquiry of attorney" letter.
11) When preparing a standard inquiry of client's attorney letter, the client's letterhead should be used, and the letter should be signed by the client company's officials.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Standard inquiry of client's attorney letter
Objective: LO 24-3
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
12) In a standard inquiry of client's attorney letter, the attorney is requested to communicate about contingencies up to the balance sheet date.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Standard inquiry of client's attorney letter
Objective: LO 24-3
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
13) If an attorney refuses to provide the auditor with information about material existing lawsuits or unasserted claims, current professional standards require that the auditor consider the refusal as a scope limitation.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Attorney refuses to provide auditor with information about material existing lawsuits
Objective: LO 24-3
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
Learning Objective 24-4
1) The auditor has a responsibility to review transactions and activities occurring after the balance sheet date to determine whether anything occurred that might affect the statements being audited. The procedures required to verify these transactions are commonly referred to as the review for:
A) contingent liabilities.
B) subsequent year's transactions.
C) late unusual occurrences.
D) subsequent events.
Terms: Review transactions and activities occurring after balance sheet date
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
2) Which type of subsequent event requires consideration by management and evaluation by the auditor?
A)
Subsequent events that have a direct effect on the financial statements and require adjustment. Subsequent events that do not have a direct effect on the financial statements but for which disclosure may be required.
Yes Yes
B)
Subsequent events that have a direct effect on the financial statements and require adjustment. Subsequent events that do not have a direct effect on the financial statements but for which disclosure may be required.
No No
C)
Subsequent events that have a direct effect on the financial statements and require adjustment. Subsequent events that do not have a direct effect on the financial statements but for which disclosure may be required.
Yes No
D)
Subsequent events that have a direct effect on the financial statements and require adjustment. Subsequent events that do not have a direct effect on the financial statements but for which disclosure may be required.
No Yes
Terms: Subsequent events requiring consideration by management
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
3) Whenever subsequent events are used to evaluate the amounts included in the statements, care must be taken to distinguish between conditions that existed at the balance sheet date and those that come into being after the balance sheet date. The subsequent information should not be incorporated directly into the statements if the conditions causing the change in valuation:
A) took place before the balance sheet date.
B) did not take place until after the balance sheet date.
C) occurred both before and after the balance sheet date.
D) are reimbursable through insurance policies.
Terms: Subsequent events; balance sheet date and after the end of the year
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
4) An auditor has the responsibility to actively search for subsequent events that occur subsequent to the:
A) balance sheet date.
B) date of the auditor's report.
C) balance sheet date, but prior to the audit report.
D) date of the management representation letter.
Terms: Subsequent events
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
5) Which of the following subsequent events is most likely to result in an adjustment to a company's financial statements?
A) Merger or acquisition activities
B) Bankruptcy (due to deteriorating financial condition) of a customer with an outstanding accounts receivable balance
C) Issuance of common stock
D) An uninsured loss of inventories due to a fire
Terms: Subsequent events; Adjustment to financial statements
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Analytic skills
6) After the balance sheet date, but prior to the issuance of the audit report, the client suffers an uninsured loss of their inventory as a result of a fire. The amount of the loss is material. The auditor should:
A) adjust the financial statements for the year under audit.
B) add a paragraph to the audit report.
C) advise the client to disclose the event in the notes to the financial statements.
D) advise the client to delay issuing the financial statements until the economic loss can be determined.
Terms: Event will have a material effect on the financial statements
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Analytic skills
7) The auditor has completed her assessment of subsequent events. The proper accounting for subsequent events that have a direct effect on the financial statements is to:
A) adjust the financial statements for the year under audit.
B) disclose in the notes to financial statement the amount of the adjustment.
C) duly note in the audit workpapers that next year's financial statements need to be adjusted.
D) make no adjustment of the financial statements for the year under audit.
Terms: Subsequent events; direct effect on the financial statements
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
8) The audit procedures for the subsequent events review can be divided into two categories: (1) procedures integrated as a part of the verification of year-end account balances, and (2) those performed specifically for the purpose of discovering subsequent events. Which of the following procedures is in the first category?
A) Inquire of client regarding contingent liabilities.
B) Obtain a letter of representation written by client.
C) Subsequent period sales and purchases transactions are examined to determine whether the cutoff is accurate.
D) Review journals and ledgers of year 2 to determine the existence of any transactions related to year 1.
Terms: Audit procedures for subsequent events review
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
9) The audit procedures for the subsequent events review can be divided into two categories: (1) procedures normally integrated as a part of the verification of year-end account balances, and (2) those performed specifically for the purpose of discovering subsequent events. Which of the following procedures is in the second category?
A) Correspond with attorneys.
B) Test the collectability of accounts receivable by reviewing subsequent period cash receipts.
C) Subsequent period sales and purchases transactions are examined to determine whether the cutoff is accurate.
D) Compare the subsequent-period purchase price of inventory with the recorded cost as a test of lower of cost or market valuation.
Terms: Audit procedures for subsequent events review
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
10) Which of the following would be a subsequent discovery of facts which would not require a response by the auditor?
A) Discovery of the inclusion of material nonexistent sales
B) Discovery of the failure to write off material obsolete inventory
C) Discovery of the omission of a material footnote
D) Discovery of management's intent to increase selling prices in the future
Terms: Subsequent discovery of facts
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
11) In connection with the annual audit, which of the following is not a "subsequent events" procedure?
A) Prepare any necessary closing journal entries.
B) Examine the minutes of stockholders and directors meetings subsequent to the balance sheet date.
C) Review journals and ledgers.
D) Obtain a letter of representation.
Terms: Subsequent events procedure
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
12) An auditor performs interim work at various times throughout the year. The auditor's subsequent events work should be extended to the date of:
A) the auditor's report.
B) a post-dated footnote.
C) the next scheduled interim visit.
D) the final billing for audit services rendered.
Terms: Interim work; Subsequent events
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
13) Which event that occurred after the end of the fiscal year under audit but prior to issuance of the auditor's report would not require disclosure in the financial statements?
A) Sale of a bond or capital stock issue
B) Loss of plant or inventories as a result of fire or flood
C) A significant decline in the market price of the corporation's stock
D) A merger or acquisition
Terms: Event that occurred after the end of the fiscal year
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Analytic skills
14) Which of the following material events occurring subsequent to the balance sheet date would require an adjustment to the financial statements before they could be issued?
A) Loss of a plant as a result of a flood
B) Sale of long-term debt or capital stock
C) Settlement of litigation in excess of the recorded liability
D) Major purchase of a business that is expected to double the sales volume
Terms: Events occurring subsequent to the balance sheet date; Adjustment
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Analytic skills
15) If the auditor determines that a subsequent event that affects the current period financial statements occurred after fieldwork was completed but before the audit report was issued, what date(s) may the auditor use on the report?
A)
The date of the
original last day of
fieldwork only. The date of the
subsequent
event only. The date on which the last day of fieldwork occurred along with the date of the subsequent event.
Yes Yes No
B)
The date of the
original last day of
fieldwork only. The date of the
subsequent
event only. The date on which the last day of fieldwork occurred along with the date of the subsequent event.
No Yes Yes
C)
The date of the
original last day of
fieldwork only. The date of the
subsequent
event only. The date on which the last day of fieldwork occurred along with the date of the subsequent event.
No Yes No
D)
The date of the
original last day of
fieldwork only. The date of the
subsequent
event only. The date on which the last day of fieldwork occurred along with the date of the subsequent event.
No No Yes
Terms: Subsequent event; report date
Diff: Challenging
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Analytic skills
16) An auditor's decision concerning whether or not to dual date an audit report is primarily based on the auditor's decision to:
A) extend appropriate audit procedures.
B) assume responsibility for events after the date of the auditor's report.
C) assume responsibility for event from fiscal year end to the date of the audit report.
D) roll the dice and hope for a successful outcome.
Terms: Dual date audit report
Diff: Challenging
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
17) The auditor's responsibility for "reviewing the subsequent events" of a public company that is about to issue new securities is normally limited to the period of time:
A) beginning with the balance sheet date and ending with the date of the auditor's report.
B) beginning with the start of the fiscal year under audit and ending with the balance sheet date.
C) beginning with the start of the fiscal year under audit and ending with the date of the auditor's report.
D) beginning with the balance sheet date and ending with the date the registration statement becomes effective.
Terms: Reviewing subsequent events; public company; issue new securities
Diff: Challenging
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
18) Subsequent events affecting the realization of assets ordinarily will require adjustments of the financial statements under examination because such events typically represent:
A) the culmination of conditions that existed at the balance sheet date.
B) additional new information related to events that were in existence on the balance sheet date.
C) final estimates of losses relating to casualties occurring in the subsequent events period.
D) preliminary estimate of losses relating to new events that occurred subsequent to the balance sheet date.
Terms: Subsequent events; realization of assets
Diff: Challenging
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
19) An auditor's decision concerning whether or not to "dual date" the audit report is based upon the auditor's willingness to:
A) extend auditing procedures and assume responsibility for a greater period of time.
B) accept responsibility for subsequent events.
C) permit inclusion of a footnote captioned: event (unaudited) subsequent to the date of the auditor's report.
D) assume responsibility for events subsequent to the issuance of the auditor's report.
Terms: Dual date audit report
Diff: Challenging
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
20) After an auditor has issued an audit report on a nonpublic entity, there is no obligation to make any further audit tests or inquiries with respect to the audited financial statements covered by that report unless:
A) material adverse events occur after the date of the auditor's report.
B) final determination or resolution was made of a contingency which had been disclosed in the financial statements.
C) final determination or resolution was made on matters which had resulted in a qualification in the auditor's report.
D) new information comes to the auditor's attention concerning an event that occurred prior to the date of the auditor's report that may have affected the auditor's report.
Terms: Issued audit report; further audit tests or inquiries
Diff: Challenging
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
21) A client has a calendar year-end. Listed below are four events that occurred after December 31. Which one of these subsequent events might result in adjustment of the December 31 financial statements?
A) Sale of a major subsidiary
B) Adoption of accelerated depreciation methods
C) Write-off of a substantial portion of inventory as obsolete
D) Collection of 90% of the accounts receivable existing at December 31
Terms: Subsequent events
Diff: Challenging
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Analytic skills
22) The auditor's responsibility with respect to events occurring between the balance sheet date and the end of the audit examination is best expressed by which of the following statements?
A) The auditor is fully responsible for events occurring in the subsequent period and should extend all detailed procedures through the last day of fieldwork.
B) The auditor is responsible for determining that a proper cutoff has been made and performing a general review of events occurring in the subsequent period.
C) The auditor's responsibility is to determine that a proper cutoff has been made and that transactions recorded on or before the balance sheet date actually occurred.
D) The auditor has no responsibility for events occurring in the subsequent period unless these events affect transactions recorded on or before the balance sheet date.
Terms: Events occurring between balance sheet date and end of audit examination
Diff: Challenging
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
23) The fieldwork for the December 31, 2013 audit of Schmidt Corporation ended on March 17, 2014. The financial statements and auditor's report were issued on March 29, 2014. In each of the material situations (1 through 5) below, indicate the appropriate action (a, b, c ). The possible actions are as follows:
a. Adjust the December 31, 2013 financial statements.
b. Disclose the information in a footnote in the December 31, 2013 financial statements.
c. No action is required.
The situations are as follows:
________ 1. On March 1, 2014, one of Schmidt Corporation's major customers declared bankruptcy. The customer's financial condition in 2013 was deteriorating and they owed Schmidt Corporation a large sum of money as of the balance sheet date.
________ 2. On February 17, 2014, Schmidt Corporation sold some machinery for its book value.
________ 3. On February 20, 2014, a flood destroyed the entire uninsured inventory in one of Schmidt's warehouses.
________ 4. On January 5, 2014, there was a significant decline in the market value of the securities held for resale from their value as of the balance sheet date.
________ 5. On March 10, 2014, the company settled a lawsuit at an amount significantly higher than the amount recorded as a liability on the books as of the balance sheet date.
24) State the two primary types of subsequent events that require consideration by management and evaluation by the auditor, and give two examples of each type.
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
25) The issuance of bonds by the client subsequent to the balance sheet date would require a footnote disclosure in, but no adjustment to, the financial statements under audit.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Issuance of bonds by client subsequent to year-end
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
26) Subsequent events which require adjustment to the financial statements provide additional information about significant conditions/events which did not exist at the balance sheet date.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Subsequent events
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
27) When subsequent events are used to evaluate the amounts included in the year-end financial statements, auditors must distinguish between conditions that existed at the balance sheet date and those that came into being after the balance sheet date.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Subsequent events
Objective: LO 24-4
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
Learning Objective 24-5
1) The date of the management representation letter received from the client should coincide with which of the following?
A) Date of latest subsequent event disclosed in the notes to the financial statements
B) Date of the auditor's report
C) Balance sheet date
D) Engagement agreement
Terms: Management representation letter
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
2) Which of the following procedures and methods are important in assessing a company's ability to continue as a going concern?
A)
Discussions with management regarding potential financial difficulties. Evaluation of management's plans to avoid bankruptcy.
Yes Yes
B)
Discussions with management regarding potential financial difficulties. Evaluation of management's plans to avoid bankruptcy.
No No
C)
Discussions with management regarding potential financial difficulties. Evaluation of management's plans to avoid bankruptcy.
Yes No
D)
Discussions with management regarding potential financial difficulties. Evaluation of management's plans to avoid bankruptcy.
No Yes
Terms: Going concern
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
3) The letter of representation obtained from an audit client should be:
A) dated as of the end of the period under audit.
B) dated as of the audit report date.
C) dated as of any date decided upon by the client and auditor.
D) dated as of the issuance of the financial statement.
Terms: Letter of representation
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
4) When should auditors generally assess a client's ability to continue as a going concern?
A) Upon completion of the audit
B) During the planning stages of the audit
C) Throughout the entire audit process
D) During testing and completion phases of the audit
Terms: Going concern
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
5) Which of the following would the auditor expect to find in the client's management representation letter?
A) Management's recommendations for internal control effectiveness improvements
B) Management's plans for improving product quality
C) Management's compliance with contractual arrangements that impact the financial statements
D) Management's goals for improving earnings per share
Terms: Management representation letter
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
6) Auditing standards require that the auditor evaluate whether there is a substantial doubt about a client's ability to continue as a going concern for at least:
A) one quarter beyond the balance sheet date.
B) one quarter beyond the date of the auditor's report.
C) one year beyond the balance sheet date.
D) one year beyond the date of the auditor's report.
Terms: Auditing standards; Going-concern issues
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
7) Auditing standards require auditors to evaluate whether there is a substantial doubt about a client's ability to continue as a going concern. One of the most important audit procedures to perform to assess the going concern question is:
A) analytical procedures.
B) confirmations from creditors.
C) statistical sampling procedures.
D) inquiries of client and its legal counsel.
Terms: Audit procedures to assess going concern
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
8) Which of the following statements regarding the letter of representation is not correct?
A) It is prepared on the client's letterhead.
B) It is addressed to the CPA firm.
C) It is signed by high-level corporate officials, usually the president and chief financial officer.
D) It is optional, not required, that the auditor obtain such a letter from management.
Terms: Letter of representation
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
9) Refusal by a client to prepare and sign the representation letter would require the auditor to issue a:
A) qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion.
B) adverse opinion or a disclaimer of opinion.
C) qualified or an adverse opinion.
D) unqualified opinion with an explanatory paragraph.
Terms: Refusal to prepare and sign the letter of representation
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
10) A client representation letter is:
A) prepared on the CPA's letterhead.
B) addressed to the client.
C) signed by high-level corporate officials.
D) dated as of the balance sheet date.
Terms: Client representation letter
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
11) Which of the following is correct regarding supplementary information?
A) The auditor must express an opinion on the supplementary information.
B) When reporting on supplementary information, the auditor uses a different materiality threshold from that used in forming an opinion on the basic financial statements.
C) If the auditor's report on the audited financial statements contains an adverse opinion, the auditor can still issue an unqualified opinion on the supplementary information.
D) The auditor can issue a separate report on the supplementary information; it does not need to be part of the report on the financial statements.
Terms: Supplementary information accompanying basic financial statements
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
12) Which of the following is not one of the categories of items included in the client letter of representation?
A) Subsequent events
B) Completeness of information
C) Recognition, measurement, and disclosure
D) Materiality
Terms: Client letter of representation
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
13) Which of the following audit procedures would most likely assist an auditor in identifying conditions and events that may indicate there could be substantial doubt about an entity's ability to continue as a going concern?
A) Review compliance with the terms of debt agreements
B) Confirmation of accounts receivable from principal customers
C) Reconciliation of interest expense with debt outstanding
D) Confirmation of bank balances
Terms: Audit procedures; entity's ability to continue as a going concern
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
14) Which of the following statements is correct?
A) A letter of representation is documentation of management's acceptance of responsibility for the financial statements and is deemed to be reliable evidence.
B) A letter of representation is not deemed to be reliable evidence because of the potential incompetence of management.
C) A letter of representation is not deemed to be reliable evidence because of the lack of independence of the preparers.
D) A letter of representation is documentation of the CPA's acceptance of responsibility for the audit of the financial statement and is deemed to be reliable.
Terms: Letter of representation
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
15) Auditing standards require the auditor to ________ other information included in annual reports pertaining directly to the financial statements.
A) audit
B) express an opinion on
C) read
D) analyze
Terms: Other information included in annual reports
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
16) An auditor must obtain written client representations that might be signed by all but which of the following?
A) Treasurer
B) Chief financial officer
C) Vice president of operations
D) Chief executive officer
Terms: Client representations signed by
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
17) Which of the following is not a reason why the auditor requests that the client provide a letter of representation?
A) Professional auditing standards require the auditor to obtain a letter of representation.
B) It impresses upon management its responsibility for the accuracy of the information in the financial statements.
C) It provides written documentation of the oral responses already received to inquiries of management.
D) It determines the type of opinion the auditor will issue on the financial statements.
Terms: Letter of representation
Diff: Challenging
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
18) At the completion of the audit, management is asked to make a written statement that it is not aware of any undisclosed contingent liabilities. This statement would appear in the:
A) management letter.
B) letter of inquiry.
C) letters testamentary.
D) management letter of representation.
Terms: Completion of audit; written statement by management
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
19) What two steps must an auditor do if they have reservations about the audit client continuing as a going concern?
20) State the three purposes of the client letter of representation.
21) List four specific matters that should be included in a client representation letter.
22) Besides the search for contingent liabilities and the review for subsequent events, the auditor has four important final evidence accumulation responsibilities, all of which are required by current professional auditing standards. Discuss each of these four responsibilities.
23) Current professional auditing standards require the performance of analytical procedures during the planning and completion phases of the audit.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Analytical procedures; Planning and completion phases of the audit
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
24) Current professional auditing standards mandate the use of analytical procedures during the testing phase of the audit.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Professional auditing standards; Analytical procedures; Testing phase of audit
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
25) Auditing standards require the auditor's assessment of going-concern issues.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Auditing standards; Going-concern issues
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
26) Results from the final analytical procedures may indicate that additional audit evidence is necessary.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Analytical procedures in stages of audit
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
27) Although the letter of representation is typed on the client's letterhead and signed by the client, it is common for the auditor to prepare the letter.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Letter of representation
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
28) Auditors of public companies must obtain certain representations from management regarding internal control over financial reporting.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Representations from management regarding internal control
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
Topic: Public
29) At the completion of the audit, management is typically asked to make a written statement as a part of the engagement letter that it is aware of no undisclosed contingent liabilities.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Completion of audit; written statement by management; undisclosed liabilities
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
30) Auditors are required to obtain a letter of representation that describes management's planned solutions to all internal control weaknesses identified during an audit.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Letter of representation
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
31) The letter of representation is prepared on the CPA firm's letterhead, addressed to the client's chief executive officer, and signed by the audit engagement partner.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Letter of representation
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
32) If the client refuses to prepare and sign a letter of representation, the auditor would be required to issue either a qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Letter of representation; issue opinion
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
33) Because a management representation letter is a written statement from a nonindependent source, it cannot be regarded as reliable evidence.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Client representation letter; reliable evidence
Objective: LO 24-5
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
Learning Objective 24-6
1) To make a final evaluation as to whether sufficient appropriate evidence has been accumulated, the auditor will do all of the following except:
A) review the audit documentation for the entire audit to determine whether all material classes of transactions have been adequately tested.
B) make sure that all parts of the audit program have been accurately completed and documented.
C) obtain the management representation letter.
D) decide whether the audit program is adequate.
Terms: Sufficient evidence to draw a conclusion
Objective: LO 24-6
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
2) When reviewing the summary of misstatements found in the audit:
A) an adjusting journal entry must be made by the auditor for all material misstatements.
B) auditors must combine individually immaterial misstatements to evaluate whether the combined amount is material.
C) the auditor is not required to consider the impact on the current financial statements of misstatements in the prior year that were not corrected.
D) auditors only need to consider the misstatements that impact the income statement.
Terms: Sufficient evidence to draw a conclusion
Objective: LO 24-6
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
3) Match seven of the terms (a-p) with the description/definitions provided below (1-7):
a. Commitments
b. Completing the engagement checklist
c. Contingent liability
d. Dual-dated audit report
e. Financial statement disclosure checklist
f. Independent review
g. Inquiry of client's attorneys
h. Letter of representation
i. Other information in annual reports
j. Review for subsequent events
k. Subsequent events
l. Unadjusted misstatement worksheet
m. Management letter
n. Pending claim
o. Unasserted claim
p. Audit documentation review
________ 1. A review of the financial statements and the entire set of audit files by an independent reviewer to whom the audit team must justify the evidence accumulated and the conclusions reached.
________ 2. A potential future obligation to an outside party for an unknown amount resulting from activities that have already taken place.
________ 3. A written communication from the client to the auditor formalizing statements that the client has made about matters pertinent to the audit.
________ 4. A potential legal claim against a client where the condition for a claim exists but no claim has been filed.
________ 5. Transactions that occurred after the balance sheet date, which affect the fair presentation or disclosure of the statements being audited.
________ 6. Agreements that the entity will hold to a fixed set of conditions, such as the purchase or sale of merchandise at a stated price.
________ 7. The use of one audit report date for normal subsequent events and a later date for one or more subsequent events.
4) List the three reasons why an experienced member of the audit firm must thoroughly review audit documentation at the completion of the audit.
5) An independent review must be performed of all audits.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Independent review
Objective: LO 24-6
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
6) If, during the completion phase of the audit, the auditor determines that he or she has not obtained sufficient evidence to draw a conclusion about the fairness of the client's financial statements, there are two choices: accumulate additional evidence or issue either a qualified or an adverse opinion.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Sufficient evidence to draw a conclusion
Objective: LO 24-6
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
7) After performing all audit procedures in each area, the auditor must integrate the results into an overall conclusion about the financial statements.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Sufficient evidence to draw a conclusion
Objective: LO 24-6
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
Learning Objective 24-7
1) The auditor is responsible for communicating significant internal control deficiencies to the audit committee, or those charged with governance. This communication:
A) may be oral or written.
B) must be oral.
C) must be written.
D) must be oral via direct communication.
Terms: Communicate significant internal control deficiencies
Objective: LO 24-7
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
2) Which of the following statements is most correct about an auditor's required communication with management and those charged with corporate governance?
A) The auditor is required to inform those charged with governance about significant errors discovered and subsequently corrected by management.
B) Any significant matter reported to those charged with governance must also be communicated to management.
C) Communication is required before the audit report is issued.
D) Auditor does not have any requirement to communicate with anyone other than the company's senior management.
Terms: Required communication with management; corporate governance
Objective: LO 24-7
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
3) While there is no professional requirement to do so on audit engagements, CPAs frequently issue a formal "management" letter to clients. The primary purpose of this letter is to provide:
A) evidence indicating whether the auditor is reasonably certain that internal accounting control is operating as prescribed.
B) a permanent record of the internal accounting control work performed by the auditor during the course of the engagement.
C) a written record of discussions between auditor and client concerning the auditor's observations and suggestions for improvements.
D) a summary of the auditor's observations that resulted from the auditor's special study of internal control.
Terms: Management letter purpose
Objective: LO 24-7
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
4) When communicating with the audit committee and management:
A) only material fraud and illegal acts are required by auditing standards to be communicated.
B) all internal control deficiencies are required by auditing standards to be communicated.
C) the communications should be made in a timely manner to allow those charged with governance to take appropriate actions.
D) all communications with the audit committee and management must be in writing.
Terms: Communicated to the audit committee or designate body
Objective: LO 24-7
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
5) Auditing standards require the auditor to communicate all management frauds and illegal acts to the audit committee:
A) only if the act is immaterial.
B) only if the act is material.
C) only if the act is highly material.
D) regardless of materiality.
Terms: Auditing standards; Frauds and illegal acts; Audit committee
Objective: LO 24-7
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
6) Discuss the four principal purposes of the required communication with the audit committee regarding certain additional information obtained during the audit.
7) Auditors are required to communicate either orally or in writing with the audit committee about internal control weaknesses.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Auditors required to communicate with audit committee; Internal control weaknesses
Objective: LO 24-7
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
8) Auditors must communicate in writing about internal control weaknesses to the audit committee or those charged with governance.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Auditors communicate internal control weaknesses
Objective: LO 24-7
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
9) Client representation letters are required by professional auditing standards, whereas management letters are optional.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Client representation letters; Management letters; Auditing standards
Objective: LO 24-5 and LO 24-7
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
Learning Objective 24-8
1) The audit firm issues an audit report for its client. The auditor's have NO obligation to make further inquiries with respect to the client's audited financial statements unless:
A) a development occurs that may affect the company's long term viability as a company.
B) final resolution was made on disclosed contingency for which no liability needed to be accrued.
C) new information comes to the auditor's attention concerning an event that occurred prior to the date of the audit report that, if known, would have impacted the audit opinion.
D) a lawsuit, in which the risk of loss was considered remote, was resolved in the company's favor.
Terms: Audit report; Further inquiries
Objective: LO 24-8
AACSB: Analytic skills
2) The fieldwork for the December 31, 2013 audit of Treble Corporation ended on March 17, 2014. The financial statements and auditor's report were issued and mailed to stockholders on March 29, 2014. In each of the material situations (1 through 5) below, indicate the appropriate action (a, b, c, d, or e). The possible actions are as follows:
a. Adjust the December 31, 2013 financial statements.
b. Disclose the information in a footnote in the December 31, 2013 financial statements.
c. Request the client revise and reissue the December 31, 2013 financial statements. The revision should involve an adjustment to the December 31, 2013 financial statements.
d. Request the client revise and reissue the December 31, 2013 financial statements. The revision should involve the addition of a footnote, but no adjustment, to the December 31, 2013 financial statements.
e. No action is required.
The situations are as follows:
________ 1. On January 16, 2014 a lawsuit was filed against Treble for a patent infringement action that allegedly took place in early 2010. In the opinion of Treble's attorneys, there is a reasonable (but not probable) danger of a significant loss to Treble.
________ 2. On February 19, 2014, Treble settled a lawsuit out of court that had originated in 2009 and is currently listed as a contingent liability.
________ 3. On March 30, 2014, Treble settled a lawsuit out of court that had originated in 2007 and is currently listed as a contingent liability.
________ 4. On February 2, 2014, you discovered an uninsured lawsuit against Treble that had originated on August 30, 2010.
________ 5. On April 7, 2014, you discovered that a debtor of Treble went bankrupt on January 22, 2014, due to a major uninsured fire that occurred on January 2, 2014.
3) If an auditor discovers that previously issued financial statements are misleading, the most desirable approach to follow is to request that the client issue an immediate revision of the financial statements containing an explanation of the reasons for the revision.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Auditor discovers that previously issued financial statements are misleading
Objective: LO 24-8
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
4) Subsequent discoveries of facts requiring the reissuance of financial statements arise from events occurring after the date of the auditor's report.
A) True
B) False
Terms: Events that occur after the date of the auditor's report
Objective: LO 24-8
AACSB: Reflective thinking skills
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