Saunders Comprehensive NCLEX-RN Exam Review: UNIT 3; Foundations of Care. 300 Page Ch 8-16, and includes Questions, Answers and Rationale. 300 Pages

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THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS; C H A P T E R 8: Fluids and Electrolytes C H A P T E R 9: Acid-Base Balance C H A P T E R 1 0: Vital Signs and Laboratory Reference Intervals C H A P T E R 11: Nutrition... C H A P T E R 1 2: Health and Physical Assessment of the Adult Client C H A P T E R 1 3: Provision of a Safe Environment C H A P T E R 1 4: Calculation of Medication and Intravenous Prescriptions C H A P T E R 1 5: Perioperative Nursing Care C H A P T E R 1 6: Positioning Clients SAMPLE PRACTICE QUESTIONS The nurse notes that the client is dyspneic, and crackles are audible on auscultation. What additional manifestations would the nurse expect to note in this client if excess fluid volume is present? 1. Weight loss and dry skin 2. Flat neck and hand veins and decreased urinary output 3. An increase in blood pressure and increased respirations 4. Weakness and decreased central venous pressure (CVP) 40. The nurse reviews a client’s record and determines that the client is at risk for developing a potassium deficit if which situation is documented? 1. Sustained tissue damage 2. Requires nasogastric suction 3. Has a history of Addison’s disease 4. Uric acid level of 9.4 mg/dL (557 mcmol/L) 41. The nurse reviews a client’s electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L (2.5 mmol/L). Which patterns should the nurse watch for on the electrocardiogram (ECG) as a result of the laboratory value? Select all that apply. 1. U waves 2. Absent P waves 3. Inverted T waves 4. Depressed ST segment 5. Widened QRS complex 42. Potassium chloride intravenously is prescribed for a client with heart failure experiencing hypokalemia. Which actions should the nurse take to plan for preparation and administration of the potassium? Select all that apply. 1. Obtain an intravenous (IV) infusion pump. 2632. Monitor urine output during administration. 3. Prepare the medication for bolus administration. 4. Monitor the IV site for signs of infiltration or phlebitis. 5. Ensure that the medication is diluted in the appropriate volume of fluid. 6. Ensure that the bag is labeled so that it reads the volume of potassium in the solution. 43. The nurse is assessing a client with a lactose intolerance disorder for a suspected diagnosis of hypocalcemia. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to note in the client? 1. Twitching 2. Hypoactive bowel sounds 3. Negative Trousseau’s sign 4. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes 44. The nurse is caring for a client with Crohn’s disease who has a calcium level of 8 mg/dL (2 mmol/L). Which patterns would the nurse watch for on the electrocardiogram? Select all that apply. 1. U waves 2. Widened T wave 3. Prominent U wave 4. Prolonged QT interval 5. Prolonged ST segment 45. The nurse reviews the electrolyte results of a client with chronic kidney disease and notes that the potassium level is 5.7 mEq/L (5.7 mmol/L). Which patterns would the nurse watch for on the cardiac monitor as a result of the laboratory value? Select all that apply. 1. ST depression 2. Prominent U wave 3. Tall peaked T waves 4. Prolonged ST segment 5. Widened QRS complexes 46. Which client is at risk for the development of a sodium level at 130 mEq/L (130 mmol/L)? 1. The client who is taking diuretics 2. The client with hyperaldosteronism 3. The client with Cushing’s syndrome 4. The client who is taking corticosteroids 47. The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving high doses of a diuretic. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client has flat neck veins, generalized muscle weakness, and diminished deep tendon reflexes. The nurse suspects hyponatremia. What additional signs would the nurse expect to note in a client with hyponatremia? 1. Muscle twitches 2. Decreased urinary output 3. Hyperactive bowel sounds 4. Increased specific gravity of the urine 48. The nurse reviews a client’s laboratory report and notes that the client’s serum phosphorus (phosphate) level is 1.8 mg/dL (0.58 mmol/L). Which 264condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level? 1. Malnutrition 2. Renal insufficiency 3. Hypoparathyroidism 4. Tumor lysis syndrome 49. The nurse is reading a primary health care provider’s (PHCP’s) progress notes in the client’s record and reads that the PHCP has documented “insensible fluid loss of approximately 800 mL daily.” The nurse makes a notation that insensible fluid loss occurs through which type of excretion? 1. Urinary output 2. Wound drainage 3. Integumentary output 4. The gastrointestinal tract 50. The nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients’ medical records, the nurse determines that which client is most likely at risk for a fluid volume deficit? 1. A client with an ileostomy 2. A client with heart failure 3. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy 4. A client receiving frequent wound irrigations 51. The nurse caring for a client who has been receiving intravenous (IV) diuretics suspects that the client is experiencing a fluid volume deficit. Which assessment finding would the nurse note in a client with this condition? 1. Weight loss and poor skin turgor 2. Lung congestion and increased heart rate 3. Decreased hematocrit and increased urine output 4. Increased respirations and increased blood pressure 52. On review of the clients’ medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for fluid volume excess? 1. The client taking diuretics who has tenting of the skin 2. The client with an ileostomy from a recent abdominal surgery 3. The client who requires intermittent gastrointestinal suctioning 4. The client with kidney disease and a 12-year history of diabetes mellitus 53. Which client is at risk for the development of a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (5.5 mmol/L)? 1. The client with colitis 2. The client with Cushing’s syndrome 3. The client who has been overusing laxatives 4. The client who has sustained a traumatic burn 54. The nurse reviews the arterial blood gas results of a client and notes the following: pH 7.45, Paco2 of 30 mm Hg (30 mm Hg), and HCO3– of 20 mEq/L (20 mmol/L). The nurse analyzes these results as indicating which condition? 1. Metabolic acidosis, compensated 2. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated 3. Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated 4. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated 55. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube that is attached to low suction. The nurse monitors the client for manifestations of which disorder that the client is at risk for? 1. Metabolic acidosis 2. Metabolic alkalosis 3. Respiratory acidosis 4. Respiratory alkalosis 56. A client with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting presents to the emergency department. The client is hypoventilating and has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. The electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor displays tachycardia, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute. Arterial blood gases are drawn and the nurse reviews the results, expecting to note which finding? 1. A decreased pH and an increased Paco2 2. An increased pH and a decreased Paco2 3. A decreased pH and a decreased HCO3– 4. An increased pH and an increased HCO3– 57. The nurse is caring for a client having respiratory distress related to an anxiety attack. Recent arterial blood gas values are pH = 7.53, Pao2 = 72 mm Hg (72 mm Hg), Paco2 = 32 mm Hg (32 mm Hg), and = 28 mEq/L (28 mmol/L). Which conclusion about the client should the nurse make? 1. The client has acidotic blood. 2. The client is probably overreacting. 3. The client is fluid volume overloaded. 4. The client is probably hyperventilating. 58. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis and documents that the client is experiencing Kussmaul’s respirations. Which patterns did the nurse observe? Select all that apply. 1. Respirations that are shallow 2. Respirations that are increased in rate 2883. Respirations that are abnormally slow 4. Respirations that are abnormally deep 5. Respirations that cease for several seconds 59. A client who is found unresponsive has arterial blood gases drawn and the results indicate the following: pH is 7.12, Paco2 is 90 mm Hg (90 mm Hg), and is 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L). The nurse interprets the results as indicating which condition? 1. Metabolic acidosis with compensation 2. Respiratory acidosis with compensation 3. Metabolic acidosis without compensation 4. Respiratory acidosis without compensation 60. The nurse notes that a client’s arterial blood gas (ABG) results reveal a pH of 7.50 and a Paco2 of 30 mm Hg (30 mm Hg). The nurse monitors the client for which clinical manifestations associated with these ABG results? Select all that apply. 1. Nausea 2. Confusion 3. Bradypnea 4. Tachycardia 5. Hyperkalemia 6. Lightheadedness 61. The nurse reviews the blood gas results of a client with atelectasis. The nurse analyzes the results and determines that the client is experiencing respiratory acidosis. Which result validates the nurse’s findings? 1. pH 7.25, Paco2 50 mm Hg (50 mm Hg) 2. pH 7.35, Paco2 40 mm Hg (40 mm Hg) 3. pH 7.50, Paco2 52 mm Hg (52 mm Hg) 4. pH 7.52, Paco2 28 mm Hg (28 mm Hg) 62. The nurse is caring for a client who is on a mechanical ventilator. Blood gas results indicate a pH of 7.50 and a Paco2 of 30 mm Hg (30 mm Hg). The nurse has determined that the client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis. Which laboratory value would most likely be noted in this condition? 1. Sodium level of 145 mEq/L (145 mmol/L) 2. Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L (3.0 mmol/L) 3. Magnesium level of 1.8 (0.74 mmol/L) 4. Phosphorus level of 3.0 mg/dL (0.97 mmol/L) 63. The nurse is caring for a client with several broken ribs. The client is most likely to experience what type of acid-base imbalance? 1. Respiratory acidosis from inadequate ventilation 2. Respiratory alkalosis from 64. A client with atrial fibrillation who is receiving maintenance therapy of warfarin sodium has a prothrombin time (PT) of 35 seconds. On the basis of these laboratory values, the nurse anticipates which prescription? 1. Adding a dose of heparin sodium 2. Holding the next dose of warfarin 3. Increasing the next dose of warfarin 4. Administering the next dose of warfarin 65. A staff nurse is precepting a new graduate nurse and the new graduate is assigned to care for a client with chronic pain. Which statement, if made by 323the new graduate nurse, indicates the need for further teaching regarding pain management? 1. “I will be sure to ask my client what his pain level is on a scale of 0 to 10.” 2. “I know that I should follow up after giving medication to make sure it is effective.” 3. “I will be sure to cue in to any indicators that the client may be exaggerating their pain.” 4. “I know that pain in the older client might manifest as sleep disturbances or depression.” 66. A client has been admitted to the hospital for gastroenteritis and dehydration. The nurse determines that the client has received adequate volume replacement if the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level drops to which value? 1. 3 mg/dL (1.08 mmol/L) 2. 15 mg/dL (5.4 mmol/L) 3. 29 mg/dL (10.44 mmol/L) 4. 35 mg/dL (12.6 mmol/L) 67. The nurse is explaining the appropriate methods for measuring an accurate temperature to an assistive personnel (AP). Which method, if noted by the UAP as being an appropriate method, indicates the need for further teaching? 1. Taking a rectal temperature for a client who has undergone nasal surgery 2. Taking an oral temperature for a client with a cough and nasal congestion 3. Taking an axillary temperature for a client who has just consumed hot coffee 4. Taking a temperature on the neck behind the ear using an electronic device for a client who is diaphoretic 68. A client is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin sodium to treat deep vein thrombosis. The client’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 65 seconds. The nurse anticipates that which action is needed? 1. Discontinuing the heparin infusion 2. Increasing the rate of the heparin infusion 3. Decreasing the rate of the heparin infusion 4. Leaving the rate of the heparin infusion as is 69. 69. A client with a history of heart failure is due for a morning dose of furosemide. Which serum potassium level, if noted in the client’s laboratory report, should be reported before administering the dose of furosemide? 1. 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) 2. 3.8 mEq/L (3.8 mmol/L) 3. 2 mEq/L (4.2 mmol/L) 4. 8 mEq/L (4.8 mmol/L) 70. Several laboratory tests are prescribed for a client, and the nurse reviews the results of the tests. Which laboratory test results should the nurse report? Select all that apply. 3241. Platelets 35,000 mm3 (35 × 109/L) 2. Sodium 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L) 3. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L) 4. Segmented neutrophils 40% (0.40) 5. Serum creatinine, 1 mg/dL (88.3 mcmol/L) 6. White blood cells, 3000 mm3 (3.0 × 109/L) 71. The nurse is caring for a client who takes ibuprofen for pain. The nurse is gathering information on the client’s medication history and determines it is necessary to contact the primary health care provider (PHCP) if the client is also taking which medications? Select all that apply. 1. Warfarin 2. Glimepiride 3. Amlodipine 4. Simvastatin 5. Atorvastatin 72. A client with diabetes mellitus has a glycosylated hemoglobin A1c level of 8%. On the basis of this test result, the nurse plans to teach the client about the need for which measure? 1. Avoiding infection 2. Taking in adequate fluids 3. Preventing and recognizing hypoglycemia 4. Preventing and recognizing hyperglycemia 73. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of breast cancer who is immunosuppressed. The nurse would consider implementing neutropenic precautions if the client’s white blood cell count was which value? 1. 2000 mm3 (2.0 × 109/L) 2. 5800 mm3 (5.8 × 109/L) 3. 8400 mm3 (8.4 × 109/L) 4. 11,500 mm3 (11.5 × 109/L) 74. A client brought to the emergency department states that he has accidentally been taking 2 times his prescribed dose of warfarin for the past week. After noting that the client has no evidence of obvious bleeding, the nurse plans to take which action? 1. Prepare to administer an antidote. 2. Draw a sample for type and crossmatch and transfuse the client. 3. Draw a sample for an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level. 4. Draw a sample for prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR). 75. The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who is receiving demand-dose hydromorphone via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump for pain 325control. The nurse enters the client’s room and finds the client drowsy and records the following vital signs: temperature 97.2° F (36.2° C) orally, pulse 52 beats per minute, blood pressure 101/58 mm Hg, respiratory rate 11 breaths per minute, and SpO2 of 93% on 3 liters of oxygen via nasal cannula. Which action should the nurse take next? 1. Document the findings. 2. Attempt to arouse the client. 3. Contact the primary health care provider (PHCP) immediately. 4. Check the medication administration history on the PCA pump. 76. An adult female client has a hemoglobin level of 10.8 g/dL (108 mmol/L). The nurse interprets that this result is most likely caused by which condition noted in the client’s history? 1. Dehydration 2. Heart failure 3. Iron deficiency anemia 4. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 77. A client with a history of upper gastrointestinal bleeding has a platelet count of 300,000 mm3 (300 × 109/L). The nurse should take which action after seeing the laboratory results? 1. Report the abnormally low count. 2. Report the abnormally high count. 3. Place the client on bleeding precautions. 4. Place the normal report in the client’s medical record. 78. The nurse is teaching a client who has iron deficiency anemia about foods she should include in the diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the dietary modifications if which items are selected from the menu? 1. Nuts and milk 2. Coffee and tea 3. Cooked rolled oats and fish 4. Oranges and dark green leafy vegetables 79. The nurse is planning to teach a client with malabsorption syndrome about the necessity of following a low-fat diet. The nurse develops a list of high-fat foods to avoid and should include which food items on the list? Select all that apply. 1. Oranges 2. Broccoli 3. Margarine 4. Cream cheese 5. Luncheon meats 6. Broiled haddock 80. The nurse instructs a client with chronic kidney disease who is receiving hemodialysis about dietary modifications. The nurse determines that the client understands these dietary modifications if the client selects which items from the dietary menu? 1. Cream of wheat, blueberries, coffee 2. Sausage and eggs, banana, orange juice 3543. Bacon, cantaloupe melon, tomato juice 4. Cured pork, grits, strawberries, orange juice 81. The nurse is conducting a dietary assessment on a client who is on a vegan diet. The nurse provides dietary teaching and should focus on foods high in which vitamin that may be lacking in a vegan diet? 1. Vitamin A 2. Vitamin B12 3. Vitamin C 4. Vitamin E 82. A client with hypertension has been told to maintain a diet low in sodium. The nurse who is teaching this client about foods that are allowed should include which food item in a list provided to the client? 1. Tomato soup 2. Boiled shrimp 3. Instant oatmeal 4. Summer squash 83. A postoperative client has been placed on a clear liquid diet. The nurse should provide the client with which items that are allowed to be consumed on this diet? Select all that apply. 1. Broth 2. Coffee 3. Gelatin 4. Pudding 5. Vegetable juice 6. Pureed vegetables 84. The nurse is instructing a client with hypertension on the importance of choosing foods low in sodium. The nurse should teach the client to limit intake of which food? 1. Apples 2. Bananas 3. Smoked salami 4. Steamed vegetables 85. A client who is recovering from surgery has been advanced from a clear liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The client is looking forward to the diet change because he has been “bored” with the clear liquid diet. The nurse should offer which full liquid item to the client? 1. Tea 2. Gelatin 3. Custard 4. Ice pop 86. A client is recovering from abdominal surgery and has a large abdominal wound. The nurse should encourage the client to eat which food item that is naturally high in vitamin C to promote wound healing? 3551. Milk 2. Oranges 3. Bananas 4. Chicken 87. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. To minimize the effects of the disorder, the nurse teaches the client about foods that are high in thiamine. The nurse determines that the client has the best understanding of the dietary measures to follow if the client states an intention to increase the intake of which food? 1. Milk 2. Chicken 3. Broccoli 4. Legumes 88. The nurse provides instructions to a client with a low potassium level about the foods that are high in potassium and tells the client to consume which foods? Select all that apply. 1. Peas 2. Raisins 3. Potatoes 4. Cantaloupe 5. Cauliflower 6. Strawberries 89. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes that a client’s serum sodium level is 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L). The nurse reports the serum sodium level to the primary health care provider (PHCP), and the PHCP prescribes dietary instructions based on the sodium level. Which acceptable food items does the nurse instruct the client to consume? Select all that apply. 1. Peas 2. Nuts 3. Cheese 4. Cauliflower 90. A Spanish-speaking client arrives at the triage desk in the emergency department and states to the nurse that an interpreter is needed. Which is the best action for the nurse to take? 1. Have one of the client’s family members interpret. 2. Have the Spanish-speaking triage receptionist interpret. 3. Page an interpreter from the hospital’s interpreter services. 4. Obtain a Spanish-English dictionary and attempt to triage the client. 91. The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client and notes a positive Romberg’s test. The nurse makes this determination based on which observation? 1. An involuntary rhythmic, rapid, twitching of the eyeballs 2. A dorsiflexion of the great toe with fanning of the other toes 3. A significant sway when the client stands erect with feet together, arms at the side, and the eyes closed 4. A lack of normal sense of position when the client is unable to return extended fingers to a point of reference 92. The nurse notes documentation that a client is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes respirations. On assessment of the client, the nurse should expect to note which finding? 4071. Rhythmic respirations with periods of apnea 2. Regular rapid and deep, sustained respirations 3. Totally irregular respiration in rhythm and depth 4. Irregular respirations with pauses at the end of inspiration and expiration 93. A client diagnosed with conductive hearing loss asks the nurse to explain the cause of the hearing problem. The nurse plans to explain to the client that this condition is caused by which problem? 1. A defect in the cochlea 2. A defect in cranial nerve VIII 3. A physical obstruction to the transmission of sound waves 4. A defect in the sensory fibers that lead to the cerebral cortex 94. While performing a cardiac assessment on a client with an incompetent heart valve, the nurse auscultates a murmur. The nurse documents the finding and describes the sound as which? 1. Lub-dub sounds 2. Scratchy, leathery heart noise 3. A blowing or swooshing noise 4. Abrupt, high-pitched snapping noise 95. The nurse is testing the extraocular movements in a client to assess for muscle weakness in the eyes. The nurse should implement which assessment technique to assess for muscle weakness in the eye? 1. Test the corneal reflexes. 2. Test the 6 cardinal positions of gaze. 3. Test visual acuity, using a Snellen eye chart. 4. Test sensory function by asking the client to close the eyes and then lightly touching the forehead, cheeks, and chin. 96. The nurse is instructing a client how to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). The nurse should explain that which is the best time to perform this exam? 1. After a shower or bath 2. While standing to void 3. After having a bowel movement 4. While lying in bed before arising 97. The nurse is assessing a client suspected of having meningitis for meningeal irritation and elicits a positive Brudzinski’s sign. Which finding did the nurse observe? 1. The client rigidly extends the arms with pronated forearms and plantar flexion of the feet. 2. The client flexes a leg at the hip and knee and reports pain in the vertebral column when the leg is extended. 3. The client passively flexes the hip and knee in response to neck flexion and reports pain in the vertebral column. 4. The client’s upper arms are flexed and held tightly to the sides of the body and the legs are extended and internally rotated. 98. A client with a diagnosis of asthma is admitted to the hospital with respiratory distress. Which type of adventitious lung sounds should the nurse expect to hear when performing a respiratory assessment on this 408client? 1. Stridor 2. Crackles 3. Wheezes 4. Diminished 99. The clinic nurse prepares to perform a focused assessment on a client who is complaining of symptoms of a cold, a cough, and lung congestion. Which should the nurse include for this type of assessment? Select all that apply. 1. Auscultating lung sounds 2. Obtaining the client’s temperature 3. Assessing the strength of peripheral pulses 4. Obtaining information about the client’s respirations 5. Performing a musculoskeletal and neurological examination 6. Asking the client about a family history of any illness or disease 100. The nurse is preparing to initiate an intravenous (IV) line containing a high dose of potassium chloride using an IV infusion pump. While preparing to plug the pump cord into the wall, the nurse finds that no receptacle is available in the wall socket. The nurse should take which action? 1. Initiate the IV line without the use of a pump. 2. Contact the electrical maintenance department for assistance. 3. Plug in the pump cord in the available plug above the room sink. 4. Use an extension cord from the nurses’ lounge for the pump plug. 101. The nurse obtains a prescription from a primary health care provider to restrain a client and instructs an assistive personnel (AP) to apply the safety device to the client. Which observation of unsafe application of the safety device would indicate that further instruction is required for the AP? 1. Placing a safety knot in the safety device straps 2. Safely securing the safety device straps to the side rails 3. Applying safety device straps that do not tighten when force is applied against them 4. Securing so that 2 fingers can slide easily between the safety device and the client’s skin 102. The community health nurse is providing a teaching session about anthrax to 434members of the community and asks the participants about the methods of transmission. Which answers by the participants would indicate that teaching was effective? Select all that apply. 1. Bites from ticks or deer flies 2. Inhalation of bacterial spores 3. Through a cut or abrasion in the skin 4. Direct contact with an infected individual 5. Sexual contact with an infected individual 6. Ingestion of contaminated undercooked meat 103. The nurse is giving report to an assistive personnel (AP) who will be caring for a client in hand restraints (safety devices). How frequently should the nurse instruct the AP to check the tightness of the restrained hands? 1. Every 2 hours 2. Every 3 hours 3. Every 4 hours 4. Every 30 minutes 104. The nurse is reviewing a plan of care for a client with an internal radiation implant. Which intervention, if noted in the plan, indicates the need for revision of the plan? 1. Wearing gloves when emptying the client’s bedpan 2. Keeping all linens in the room until the implant is removed 3. Wearing a lead apron when providing direct care to the client 4. Placing the client in a semiprivate room at the end of the hallway 105. Contact precautions are initiated for a client with a health care–associated (nosocomial) infection caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse prepares to provide colostomy care and should obtain which protective items to perform this procedure? 1. Gloves and gown 2. Gloves and goggles 3. Gloves, gown, and shoe protectors 4. Gloves, gown, goggles, and a mask or face shield 106. The nurse enters a client’s room and finds that the wastebasket is on fire. The nurse immediately assists the client out of the room. What is the next nursing action? 1. Call for help. 2. Extinguish the fire. 3. Activate the fire alarm. 4. Confine the fire by closing the room door. 107. A mother calls a neighbor who is a nurse and tells the nurse that her 3-yearold child has just ingested liquid furniture polish. The nurse would direct the mother to take which immediate action? 1. Induce vomiting. 2. Call an ambulance. 3. Call the Poison Control Center. 4354. Bring the child to the emergency department. 108. The emergency department (ED) nurse receives a telephone call and is informed that a tornado has hit a local residential area and that numerous casualties have occurred. The victims will be brought to the ED. The nurse should take which initial action? 1. Prepare the triage rooms. 2. Activate the emergency response plan specific to the facility. 3. Obtain additional supplies from the central supply department. 4. Obtain additional nursing staff to assist in treating the casualties. 109. The nurse is caring for a client with meningitis and implements which transmission-based precaution for this client? 1. Private room or cohort client 2. Personal respiratory protection device 3. Private room with negative airflow pressure 4. Mask worn by staff when the client needs to leave the room 110. The nurse working in the emergency department (ED) is assessing a client who recently returned from Nigeria and presented complaining of a fever at home, fatigue, muscle pain, and abdominal pain. Which action should the nurse take next? 1. Check the client’s temperature. 2. Isolate the client in a private room. 3. Check a complete set of vital signs. 4. Contact the primary health care provider. 111. A prescription reads 1000 mL of normal saline (NS) to infuse over 12 hours. The drop factor is 15 drops (gtt)/1 mL. The nurse prepares to set the flow rate at how many drops per minute? 112. A prescription reads to administer an intravenous (IV) dose of 400,000 units of penicillin G benzathine. The label on the 10-milliliters (mL) ampule sent from the pharmacy reads penicillin G benzathine, 300,000 units/mL. The nurse prepares how much medication to administer the correct dose? 113. A prescription reads potassium chloride 30 mEq to be added to 1000 mL normal saline (NS) and to be administered over a 10-hour period. The label on the medication bottle reads 40 mEq/20 mL. The nurse prepares how many milliliters (mL) of potassium chloride to administer the correct dose of medication? 114. A prescription reads clindamycin phosphate 0.3 g in 50 mL normal saline (NS) to be administered intravenously over 30 minutes. The medication label reads clindamycin phosphate 900 mg in 6 mL. The nurse prepares how many milliliters (mL) of the medication to administer the correct dose? 115. A prescription reads phenytoin 0.2 g orally twice daily. The medication label states that each capsule is 100 mg. The nurse prepares how many capsule(s) to administer 1 dose? 116. A prescription reads 1000 mL of normal saline 0.9% to infuse over 8 hours. The drop factor is 15 drops (gtt)/1 mL. The nurse sets the flow rate at how many drops per minute? 117. A prescription reads heparin sodium, 1300 units/hr by continuous intravenous (IV) infusion. The pharmacy prepares the medication and delivers an IV bag labeled heparin sodium 20,000 units/250 mL D5W. An infusion pump must be used to administer the medication. The nurse sets the infusion pump at how many milliliters (mL) per hour to deliver 1300 units/hour? 458 118. A prescription reads 3000 mL of D5W to be administered over a 24-hour period. The nurse determines that how many milliliters (mL) per hour will be administered to the client? 119. Gentamicin sulfate, 80 mg in 100 mL normal saline (NS), is to be administered over 30 minutes. The drop factor is 10 drops (gtt)/1 mL. The nurse sets the flow rate at how many drops per minute? 120. A prescription reads levothyroxine, 150 mcg orally daily. The medication label reads levothyroxine, 0.1 mg/tablet. The nurse administers how many tablet(s) to the client? 121. Cefuroxime sodium, 1 g in 50 mL normal saline (NS), is to be administered over 30 minutes. The drop factor is 15 drops (gtt)/1 mL. The nurse sets the flow rate at how many drops per minute? 122. A prescription reads 1000 mL D5W to infuse at a rate of 125 mL/hr. The nurse determines that it will take how many hours for 1 L to infuse? 123. A prescription reads to infuse 1 unit of packed red blood cells over 4 hours. The unit of blood contains 250 mL. The drop factor is 10 drops (gtt)/1 mL. The nurse prepares to set the flow rate at how many drops per minute? 124. A prescription reads morphine sulfate, 8 mg stat. The medication ampule reads morphine sulfate, 10 mg/mL. The nurse prepares how many milliliters (mL) to administer the correct dose? Fill in the blank. 126. The nurse has just reassessed the condition of a postoperative client who was admitted 1 hour ago to the surgical unit. The nurse plans to monitor which parameter most carefully during the next hour? 1. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr 2. Temperature of 37.6° C (99.6° F) 3. Blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg 4. Serous drainage on the surgical dressing 127. The nurse is teaching a client about coughing and deep-breathing techniques to prevent postoperative complications. Which statement is most appropriate for the nurse to make to the client at this time as it relates to these techniques? 1. “Use of an incentive spirometer will help prevent pneumonia.” 2. “Close monitoring of your oxygen saturation will detect hypoxemia.” 3. “Administration of intravenous fluids will prevent or treat fluid imbalance.” 4. “Early ambulation and administration of blood thinners will prevent pulmonary embolism.” 128. The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client scheduled for surgery. The nurse should include which activity in the nursing care plan for the client on the day of surgery? 4981. Avoid oral hygiene and rinsing with mouthwash. 2. Verify that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours. 3. Have the client void immediately before going into surgery. 4. Report immediately any slight increase in blood pressure or pulse. 129. A client with a gastric ulcer is scheduled for surgery. The client cannot sign the operative consent form because of sedation from opioid analgesics that have been administered. The nurse should take which most appropriate action in the care of this client? 1. Obtain a court order for the surgery. 2. Have the charge nurse sign the informed consent immediately. 3. Send the client to surgery without the consent form being signed. 4. Obtain a telephone consent from a family member, following agency policy. 130. A preoperative client expresses anxiety to the nurse about upcoming surgery. Which response by the nurse is most likely to stimulate further discussion between the client and the nurse? 1. “If it’s any help, everyone is nervous before surgery.” 2. “I will be happy to explain the entire surgical procedure to you.” 3. “Can you share with me what you’ve been told about your surgery?” 4. “Let me tell you about the care you’ll receive after surgery and the amount of pain you can anticipate.” 131. The nurse is conducting preoperative teaching with a client about the use of an incentive spirometer. The nurse should include which piece of information in discussions with the client? 1. Inhale as rapidly as possible. 2. Keep a loose seal between the lips and the mouthpiece. 3. After maximum inspiration, hold the breath for 15 seconds and exhale. 4. The best results are achieved when sitting up or with the head of the bed elevated 45 to 90 degrees. 132. The nurse has conducted preoperative teaching for a client scheduled for surgery in 1 week. The client has a history of arthritis and has been taking acetylsalicylic acid. The nurse determines that the client needs additional teaching if the client makes which statement? 1. “Aspirin can cause bleeding after surgery.” 2. “Aspirin can cause my ability to clot blood to be abnormal.” 3. “I need to continue to take the aspirin until the day of surgery.” 4. “I need to check with my doctor about the need to stop the aspirin before the scheduled surgery.” 133. The nurse assesses a client’s surgical incision for signs of infection. Which finding by the nurse would be interpreted as a normal finding at the surgical site? 1. Red, hard skin 2. Serous drainage 3. Purulent drainage 4. Warm, tender skin 134. The nurse is monitoring the status of a postoperative client in the immediate 499postoperative period. The nurse would become most concerned with which sign that could indicate an evolving complication? 1. Increasing restlessness 2. A pulse of 86 beats per minute 3. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg 4. Hypoactive bowel sounds in all 4 quadrants 135. A client who has had abdominal surgery complains of feeling as though “something gave way” in the incisional site. The nurse removes the dressing and notes the presence of a loop of bowel protruding through the incision. Which interventions should the nurse take? Select all that apply. 1. Contact the surgeon. 2. Instruct the client to remain quiet. 3. Prepare the client for wound closure. 4. Document the findings and actions taken. 5. Place a sterile saline dressing and ice packs over the wound. 6. Place the client in a supine position without a pillow under the head. 136. A client who has undergone preadmission testing has had blood drawn for serum laboratory studies, including a complete blood count, coagulation studies, and electrolytes and creatinine levels. Which laboratory result should be reported to the surgeon’s office by the nurse, knowing that it could cause surgery to be postponed? 1. Hemoglobin, 8.0 g/dL (80 mmol/L) 2. Sodium, 145 mEq/L (145 mmol/L) 3. Serum creatinine, 0.8 mg/dL (70.6 mcmol/L) 4. Platelets, 210,000 cells/mm3 (210 × 109/L) 137. The nurse receives a telephone call from the postanesthesia care unit stating that a client is being transferred to the surgical unit. The nurse plans to take which action first on arrival of the client? 1. Assess the patency of the airway. 2. Check tubes or drains for patency. 3. Check the dressing to assess for bleeding. 4. Assess the vital signs to compare with preoperative measurements. 138. The nurse is reviewing a surgeon’s prescription sheet for a preoperative client that states that the client must be nothing by mouth (NPO) after midnight. The nurse should call the surgeon to clarify that which medication should be given to the client and not withheld? 1. Prednisone 2. Ferrous sulfate 3. Cyclobenzaprine 4. Conjugated estrogen 500 139. A client is being prepared for a thoracentesis. The nurse should assist the client to which position for the procedure? 1. Lying in bed on the affected side 2. Lying in bed on the unaffected side 3. Sims’ position with the head of the bed flat 4. Prone with the head turned to the side and supported by a pillow 140. The nurse is caring for a client following a craniotomy, in which a large cancerous tumor was removed from the left side. In which position can the nurse safely place the client? Refer to the figures in options 1 to 4. 1. 5202. 3. 4. 141. The nurse creates a plan of care for a client with deep vein thrombosis. Which client position or activity in the plan should be included? 1. Out-of-bed activities as desired 2. Bed rest with the affected extremity kept flat 3. Bed rest with elevation of the affected extremity 4. Bed rest with the affected extremity in a dependent position 142. The nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative for a total hip replacement. Which is the best position in which the nurse should place the client? 1. Head elevated lying on the operative side 2. On the nonoperative side with the legs abducted 3. Side-lying with the affected leg internally rotated 4. Side-lying with the affected leg externally rotated 143. The nurse is providing instructions to a client and the family regarding home care after right eye cataract removal. Which statement by the client would indicate an understanding of the instructions? 1. “I should sleep on my left side.” 2. “I should sleep on my right side.” 3. “I should sleep with my head flat.” 4. “I should not wear my glasses at any time.” 144. The nurse is administering a cleansing enema to a client with a fecal impaction. Before administering the enema, the nurse should place the client in which position? 1. Left Sims’ position 2. Right Sims’ position 3. On the left side of the body, with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees 4. On the right side of the body, with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees 145. A client has just returned to a nursing unit after an above-knee amputation of the right leg. The nurse should place the client in which position? 5211. Prone 2. Reverse Trendelenburg’s 3. Supine, with the residual limb flat on the bed 4. Supine, with the residual limb supported with pillows 146. The nurse is caring for a client with a severe burn who is scheduled for an autograft to be placed on the lower extremity. The nurse creates a postoperative plan of care for the client and should include which intervention in the plan? 1. Maintain the client in a prone position. 2. Elevate and immobilize the grafted extremity. 3. Maintain the grafted extremity in a flat position. 4. Keep the grafted extremity covered with a blanket. 147. The nurse is preparing to care for a client who has returned to the nursing unit after cardiac catheterization performed through the femoral vessel. The nurse checks the primary health care provider’s (PHCP’s) prescription and plans to allow which client position or activity after the procedure? 1. Bed rest in high-Fowler’s position 2. Bed rest with bathroom privileges only 3. Bed rest with head elevation at 60 degrees 4. Bed rest with head elevation no greater than 30 degrees 148. The nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube into a client. The nurse should place the client in which position for insertion? 1. Right side 2. Low-Fowler’s 3. High-Fowler’s 4. Supine with the head flat [Show More]

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