ATI TEAS Study Guide 2020 and 2021 ATI TEAS Study Manual with 2 Complete Practice Tests for the 6th Edition Exam [Includes Detailed Answer Explanations] Assessment Technologies Institute (ATI) and Test of Essential Academic Skills (TEAS)

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ATI TEAS Study Guide 2020 and 2021 ATI TEAS Study Manual with 2 Complete Practice Tests for the 6th Edition Exam [Includes Detailed Answer Explanations] Test Prep Books Quick Overview Test-T... aking Strategies FREE DVD OFFER Study Prep Plan Introduction to the ATI TEAS Reading Key Ideas and Details Craft and Structure Integration of Knowledge and Ideas Mathematics Number and Algebra Measurement and Data Science Human Anatomy and Physiology Life and Physical Sciences Scientific Reasoning English and Language Usage Conventions of Standard English Knowledge of Language Vocabulary Acquisition ATI TEAS Practice Test #1 Reading Mathematics Science English and Language Usage Answer Explanations Reading Mathematics Science English and Language Usage ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 Reading Mathematics Science English and Language Usage Answer Explanations Reading Mathematics Science English and Language Usage Index Reading 1. Xavier propagated his belief that dragons were real to his friends gathered around the campfire. Which of the following words could most logically replace the underlined word without altering the intent of the sentence? a. Whispered b. Expressed c. Persuaded d. Shouted 2. Which of the following statements least supports the argument that the American economy is healthy? a. The United States' Gross Domestic Product (GDP), which is the measure of all the goods and services produced in a country, increased by two percent last year. b. Unemployment is the lowest it's been in over a decade due to a spike in job creation. c. Average household income just hit a historical high point for the twentieth consecutive quarter. d. Last year, the output of the United States’ manufacturing sector decreased despite repeated massive investments by both the private and public sectors. The next three questions are based on the following table. The Dewey Decimal System is a library classification system. The Dewey Decimal Classes 000 Computer science, information, and general works 100 Philosophy and psychology 200 Religion 300 Social sciences 400 Languages 500 Science and mathematics 600 Technical and applied science 700 Arts and recreation 800 Literature 900 History, geography, and biography 3. Teddy has been assigned to write a history paper about the United States during the Cold War. His teacher advised him to read some of the works of Noam Chomsky, an American linguist, philosopher, social scientist, cognitive scientist, historian, social critic, and political activist. Teddy was not sure where to begin, so he consulted the Dewey Decimal classes. While not all inclusive, what choice of three classes would likely be the most useful? a. 100, 300, 700 b. 100, 300, 800 c. 100, 400, 900 d. 200, 300, 900 4. While researching Chomsky's many theories and arguments, Teddy became interested in post-World War II anarchism, a social science theory asserting the political philosophy that rejects a compulsory government. He wants to find the most appropriate works related to the subject. Which section of the library is the most likely to contain the relevant books? a. 000 b. 200 c. 300 d. 900 5. Also during his research, Teddy discovered information about Chomsky’s Jewish heritage, and he wants to research traditional Judaism as practiced in the early twentieth century. Which section of the library would most likely contain the most relevant information? a. 100 b. 200 c. 300 d. 900 6. Samuel teaches at a high school in one of the biggest cities in the United States. His students come from diverse family backgrounds. Samuel observes that the best students in his class are from homes where parental supervision is minimal. The parents of the bottom five students are the most involved, by a large margin. There are 24 students in his class. Samuel is going to write an academic paper based on his students' family backgrounds and academic performance. The paper will argue that parental involvement is not an important factor in academic success. Which of the following statements best describes Samuel's sample size? a. The sample is biased because he has firsthand experience and personal knowledge of its participants. b. The sample contains too few members to make meaningful claims applicable to a large group. c. The sample contains too many members to understand the context and specifics of any given student's situation. d. The sample is unbiased and appropriately sized to draw conclusions on the role of parental supervision in education. The next question is based on the following passage. Annabelle Rice started having trouble sleeping. Her biological clock was suddenly amiss and she began to lead a nocturnal schedule. She thought her insomnia was due to spending nights writing a horror story, but then she realized that even the idea of going outside into the bright world scared her to bits. She concluded she was now suffering from heliophobia. 7. Which of the following most accurately describes the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence above? a. Fear of dreams b. Fear of sunlight c. Fear of strangers d. Anxiety spectrum disorder The next question is based on the following directions. Follow these instructions in chronological order to transform the word into something new. 1. Start with the word LOATHING. 2. Eliminate the first and last letter in the starting word. 3. Eliminate all the vowels, except I, from the word. 4. Eliminate the letter H from the word. 8. What new word has been spelled? a. TON b. THIN c. TIN d. TAN 9. Which of these descriptions gives the most detailed and objective support for the claim that drinking and driving is unsafe? a. A dramatized television commercial reenacting a fatal drinking and driving accident, including heart-wrenching testimonials from loved ones b. The Department of Transportation's press release noting the additional drinking and driving special patrol units that will be on the road during the holiday season c. Congressional written testimony on the number of drinking and driving incidents across the country and their relationship to underage drinking statistics, according to experts d. A highway bulletin warning drivers of penalties associated with drinking and driving The next question is based on the following passage. A famous children’s author recently published a historical fiction novel under a pseudonym; however, it did not sell as many copies as her children’s books. In her earlier years, she had majored in history and earned a graduate degree in Antebellum American History, which is the time frame of her new novel. Critics praised this newest work far more than the children's series that made her famous. In fact, her new novel was nominated for the prestigious Albert J. Beveridge Award but still isn’t selling like her children’s books, which fly off the shelves because of her name alone. 10. Which one of the following statements might be accurately inferred based on the above passage? a. The famous children’s author produced an inferior book under her pseudonym. b. The famous children’s author is the foremost expert on Antebellum America. c. The famous children’s author did not receive the bump in publicity for her historical novel that it would have received if it were written under her given name. d. People generally prefer to read children's series than historical fiction. The next four questions are based on the following passage. Smoking tobacco products is terribly destructive. A single cigarette contains over 4,000 chemicals, including 43 known carcinogens and 400 deadly toxins. Some of the most dangerous ingredients include tar, carbon monoxide, formaldehyde, ammonia, arsenic, and DDT. Smoking can cause numerous types of cancer including throat, mouth, nasal cavity, esophageal, gastric, pancreatic, renal, bladder, and cervical cancer. Cigarettes contain a drug called nicotine, one of the most addictive substances known to man. Addiction is defined as a compulsion to seek the substance despite negative consequences. According to the National Institute of Drug Abuse, nearly 35 million smokers expressed a desire to quit smoking in 2015; however, more than 85 percent of those who struggle with addiction will not achieve their goal. Almost all smokers regret picking up that first cigarette. You would be wise to learn from their mistake if you have not yet started smoking. According to the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 16 million people in the United States presently suffer from a smoking-related condition and nearly nine million suffer from a serious smoking-related illness. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), tobacco products cause nearly six million deaths per year. This number is projected to rise to over eight million deaths by 2030. Smokers, on average, die ten years earlier than their nonsmoking peers. In the United States, local, state, and federal governments typically tax tobacco products, which leads to high prices. Nicotine users who struggle with addiction sometimes pay more for a pack of cigarettes than for a few gallons of gas. Additionally, smokers tend to stink. The smell of smoke is all- consuming and creates a pervasive nastiness. Smokers also risk staining their teeth and fingers with yellow residue from the tar. Smoking is deadly, expensive, and socially unappealing. Clearly, smoking is not worth the risks. 11. Which of the following best describes the passage? a. Narrative b. Persuasive c. Expository d. Technical 12. Which of the following statements most accurately summarizes the passage? a. Tobacco is less healthy than many alternatives. b. Tobacco is deadly, expensive, and socially unappealing, and smokers would be much better off kicking the addiction. c. In the United States, local, state, and federal governments typically tax tobacco products, which leads to high prices. d. Tobacco products shorten smokers' lives by ten years and kill more than six million people per year. 13. The author would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements? a. Smokers should only quit cold turkey and avoid all nicotine cessation devices. b. Other substances are more addictive than tobacco. c. Smokers should quit for whatever reason that gets them to stop smoking. d. People who want to continue smoking should advocate for a reduction in tobacco product taxes. 14. Which of the following represents an opinion statement on the part of the author? a. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), tobacco products cause nearly six million deaths per year. b. Nicotine users who struggle with addiction sometimes pay more for a pack of cigarettes than a few gallons of gas. c. They also risk staining their teeth and fingers with yellow residue from the tar. d. Additionally, smokers tend to stink. The smell of smoke is all- consuming and creates a pervasive nastiness. The next question is based on the following passage. In 2015, 28 countries, including Estonia, Portugal, Slovenia, and Latvia, scored significantly higher than the United States on standardized high school math tests. In the 1960s, the United States consistently ranked first in the world. Today, the United States spends more than $800 billion dollars on education, which exceeds the next highest country by more than $600 billion dollars. The United States also leads the world in spending per school-aged child by an enormous margin. 15. If these statements above are factual, which of the following statements must be correct? a. Outspending other countries on education has benefits beyond standardized math tests. b. The United States' education system is corrupt and broken. c. The standardized math tests are not representative of American academic prowess. d. Spending more money does not guarantee success on standardized math tests. 16. At the top of an encyclopedia's page are the following two guide terms: kingcraft and klieg light. Which one of the following words will be found on this page? a. Kleptomania b. Knead c. Kinesthesia d. Kickback 17. Which of the following is a primary source? a. A critic's summary and review of a new book on the life of Abraham Lincoln b. A peer-reviewed scientific journal's table of contents c. A report containing the data, summary, and conclusions of a recent gene splicing study d. A news article quoting recent groundbreaking research into curing cancer The next question is based on the following passage. Cynthia keeps to a strict vegetarian diet, which is part of her religion. She absolutely cannot have any meat or fish dishes. This is more than a preference; her body has never developed the enzymes to process meat or fish, so she becomes violently ill if she accidentally eats any of the offending foods. Cynthia is attending a full day event at her college next week. When at an event that serves meals, she always likes to bring a platter of vegetarian food for herself and to share with other attendees who have similar dietary restrictions. She requested a menu in advance to determine when her platter might be most useful to vegetarians. Here is the menu: Breakfast: Hazelnut coffee or English breakfast tea, French toast, eggs, and bacon strips Lunch: Assorted sandwiches (vegetarian options available), French fries, and baked beans Cocktail hour: Alcoholic beverages, fruit, and cheese Dinner: Roasted pork loin, seared trout, and bacon-bit topped macaroni and cheese 18. If Cynthia wants to pick the meal where there would be the least options for her and fellow vegetarians, during what meal should she bring the platter? a. Breakfast b. Lunch c. Cocktail hour d. Dinner The next three questions are based on the following passage. George Washington emerged out of the American Revolution as an unlikely champion of liberty. On June 14, 1775, the Second Continental Congress created the Continental Army, and John Adams, serving in the Congress, nominated Washington to be its first commander. Washington fought under the British during the French and Indian War, and his experience and prestige proved instrumental to the American war effort. Washington provided invaluable leadership, training, and strategy during the Revolutionary War. He emerged from the war as the embodiment of liberty and freedom from tyranny. After vanquishing the heavily favored British forces, Washington could have pronounced himself as the autocratic leader of the former colonies without any opposition, but he famously refused and returned to his Mount Vernon plantation. His restraint proved his commitment to the fledgling state's republicanism. Washington was later unanimously elected as the first American president. But it is Washington's farewell address that cemented his legacy as a visionary worthy of study. In 1796, President Washington issued his farewell address by public letter. Washington enlisted his good friend, Alexander Hamilton, in drafting his most famous address. The letter expressed Washington's faith in the Constitution and rule of law. He encouraged his fellow Americans to put aside partisan differences and establish a national union. Washington warned Americans against meddling in foreign affairs and entering military alliances. Additionally, he stated his opposition to national political parties, which he considered partisan and counterproductive. Americans would be wise to remember Washington's farewell, especially during presidential elections when politics hits a fever pitch. They might want to question the political institutions that were not planned by the Founding Fathers, such as the nomination process and political parties themselves. 19. Which of the following statements is logically based on the information contained in the passage above? a. George Washington's background as a wealthy landholder directly led to his faith in equality, liberty, and democracy. b. George Washington would have opposed America's involvement in the Second World War. c. George Washington would not have been able to write as great a farewell address without the assistance of Alexander Hamilton. d. George Washington would probably not approve of modern political parties. 20. Which of the following statements is the best description of the author's purpose in writing this passage about George Washington? a. To inform American voters about a Founding Father's sage advice on a contemporary issue and explain its applicability to modern times b. To introduce George Washington to readers as a historical figure worthy of study c. To note that George Washington was more than a famous military hero d. To convince readers that George Washington is a hero of republicanism and liberty 21. In which of the following materials would the author be the most likely to include this passage? a. A history textbook b. An obituary c. A fictional story d. A newspaper editorial The next question is based on the following conversation between a scientist and a politician. Scientist: Last year was the warmest ever recorded in the last 134 years. During that time period, the ten warmest years have all occurred since 2000. This correlates directly with the recent increases in carbon dioxide as large countries like China, India, and Brazil continue developing and industrializing. No longer do just a handful of countries burn massive amounts of carbon-based fossil fuels; it is quickly becoming the case throughout the whole world as technology and industry spread. Politician: Yes, but there is no causal link between increases in carbon emissions and increasing temperatures. The link is tenuous and nothing close to certain. We need to wait for all of the data before drawing hasty conclusions. For all we know, the temperature increase could be entirely natural. I believe the temperatures also rose dramatically during the dinosaurs' time, and I do not think they were burning any fossil fuels back then. 22. What is one point on which the scientist and politician agree? a. Burning fossil fuels causes global temperatures to rise. b. Global temperatures are increasing. c. Countries must revisit their energy policies before it's too late. d. Earth's climate naturally goes through warming and cooling periods. 23. Raul is going to Egypt next month. He has been looking forward to this vacation all year. Since childhood, Raul has been fascinated with pyramids, especially the Great Pyramid of Giza, which is the oldest of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World. According to religious custom, Egyptian royalty is buried in the tombs located within the pyramid's great labyrinths. Since it has been many years since Raul read about the pyramid's history, he wants to read a book describing how and why the Egyptians built the Great Pyramid thousands of years ago. Which of the following guides would be the best for Raul? a. A Beginner's Guide to Giza, a short book describing the city's best historical sites, published by the Egyptian Tourism Bureau (2015) b. The Life of Zahi Hawass, the autobiography of one of Egypt's most famous archaeologists who was one of the first explorers at Giza (2014) c. A History of Hieroglyphics, an in-depth look at how archaeologists first broke the ancient code, published by the University of Giza's famed history department (2013) d. Who Built the Great Pyramids?, a short summary of the latest research and theories on the ancient Egyptians' religious beliefs and archaeological skills, written by a team of leading experts in the field (2015) The next five questions are based on the following passage. Christopher Columbus is often credited for discovering America. This is incorrect. First, it is impossible to "discover" something where people already live; however, Christopher Columbus did explore places in the New World that were previously untouched by Europe, so the term “explorer” would be more accurate. Another correction must be made, as well: Christopher Columbus was not the first European explorer to reach the present day Americas! Rather, it was Leif Erikson who first came to the New World and contacted the natives, nearly five hundred years before Christopher Columbus. Leif Erikson, the son of Erik the Red (a famous Viking outlaw and explorer in his own right), was born in either 970 or 980, depending on which historian you seek. His own family, though, did not raise Leif, which was a Viking tradition. Instead, one of Erik's prisoners taught Leif reading and writing, languages, sailing, and weaponry. At age 12, Leif was considered a man and returned to his family. He killed a man during a dispute shortly after his return, and the council banished the Erikson clan to Greenland. In 999, Leif left Greenland and traveled to Norway where he would serve as a guard to King Olaf Tryggvason. It was there that he became a convert to Christianity. Leif later tried to return home with the intention of taking supplies and spreading Christianity to Greenland, however his ship was blown off course and he arrived in a strange new land: present day Newfoundland, Canada”. When he finally returned to his adopted homeland Greenland, Leif consulted with a merchant who had also seen the shores of this previously unknown land we now know as Canada. The son of the legendary Viking explorer then gathered a crew of 35 men and set sail. Leif became the first European to touch foot in the New World as he explored present-day Baffin Island and Labrador, Canada. His crew called the land Vinland since it was plentiful with grapes. During their time in present-day Newfoundland, Leif's expedition made contact with the natives whom they referred to as Skraelings (which translates to "wretched ones" in Norse). There are several secondhand accounts of their meetings. Some contemporaries described trade between the peoples. Other accounts describe clashes where the Skraelings defeated the Viking explorers with long spears, while still others claim the Vikings dominated the natives. Regardless of the circumstances, it seems that the Vikings made contact of some kind. This happened around 1000, nearly five hundred years before Columbus famously sailed the ocean blue. Eventually, in 1003, Leif set sail for home and arrived at Greenland with a ship full of timber. In 1020, seventeen years later, the legendary Viking died. Many believe that Leif Erikson should receive more credit for his contributions in exploring the New World. 24. Which of the following best describes how the author generally presents the information? a. Chronological order b. Comparison-contrast c. Cause-effect d. Conclusion-premises 25. Which of the following is an opinion, rather than historical fact, expressed by the author? a. Leif Erikson was definitely the son of Erik the Red; however, historians debate the year of his birth. b. Leif Erikson's crew called the land Vinland since it was plentiful with grapes. c. Leif Erikson deserves more credit for his contributions in exploring the New World. d. Leif Erikson explored the Americas nearly five hundred years before Christopher Columbus. 26. Which of the following most accurately describes the author's main conclusion? a. Leif Erikson is a legendary Viking explorer. b. Leif Erikson deserves more credit for exploring America hundreds of years before Columbus. c. Spreading Christianity motivated Leif Erikson's expeditions more than any other factor. d. Leif Erikson contacted the natives nearly five hundred years before Columbus. 27. Which of the following best describes the author’s intent in the passage? a. To entertain b. To inform c. To alert d. To suggest 28. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the passage? a. The Vikings disliked exploring the New World. b. Leif Erikson's banishment from Iceland led to his exploration of present-day Canada. c. Leif Erikson never shared his stories of exploration with the King of Norway. d. Historians have difficulty definitively pinpointing events in the Vikings' history. The next five questions are based on the chart following a brief introduction to the topic. The American Civil War was fought from 1861 to 1865. It is the only civil war in American history. While the South's secession was the initiating event of the war, the conflict grew out of several issues like slavery and differing interpretations of individual state rights. General Robert E. Lee led the Confederate Army for the South for the duration of the conflict (although other generals held command positions over individual battles, as you will see next). The North employed a variety of lead generals, but Ulysses S. Grant finished the war as the victorious general. There were more American casualties in the Civil War than any other military conflict in American history. 29. In which of the following battles were there more Confederate casualties than Union casualties? a. Cold Harbor b. Chancellorsville c. Atlanta d. Shiloh 30. Which one of the following battles occurred first? a. Cold Harbor b. Chancellorsville c. Atlanta d. Shiloh 31. Robert E. Lee did not lead the Confederate forces in which one of the following battles? a. Atlanta b. Chancellorsville c. Cold Harbor d. Gettysburg 32. In which of the following battles did the Union casualties exceed the Confederate casualties by the greatest number? a. Cold Harbor b. Chancellorsville c. Atlanta d. Shiloh 33. The total number of American casualties suffered at the battle of Gettysburg is about double the total number of casualties suffered at which one of the following battles? a. Cold Harbor b. Chancellorsville c. Atlanta d. Shiloh The next two questions are based on the graphic that follows a brief introduction to the topic. The United States Constitution directs Congress to conduct a census of the population to determine the country's population and demographic information. The United States Census Bureau carries out the survey. In 1790, then Secretary of State Thomas Jefferson conducted the first census, and the most recent U.S. census was in 2010. The next U.S. census will be the first to be issued primarily through the Internet. 34. In which of the following years was the United States population less than it was in 1930? a. 1950 b. 1970 c. 1910 d. 1990 35. In what year did the population increase the most during a twenty-year interval? a. From 1930 to 1950 b. From 1950 to 1970 c. From 1970 to 1990 d. From 1990 to 2010 The next question is based on the following outline. Chapter 5: Outdoor Activities 1. Hiking a. Gear b. First Aid 2. Camping a. Tents & Gear b. Camping Activities 3. Cycling a. Safety b. Finding Cycling Trails 4. Canoeing a. Equipment b. Tips for Maneuvering 36. What aspect of this outline is inconsistent? a. Hiking, which starts with an H, is included with activities that all start with C. b. There is no information about gear/equipment for cycling c. Rock climbing is not included in the outline. d. There is no section for hiking tips. The next three questions are based on the graphic following a brief introduction to the topic. A food chain is a diagram used by biologists to better understand ecosystems. It represents the interrelationships between different plants and animals. The energy is derived from the sun and converted into stored energy by plants through photosynthesis, which travels up the food chain. The energy returns to the ecosystem after the organisms die and decompose back into the Earth. This process is an endless cycle. In food chains, living organisms are grouped into categories called primary producers and consumers, which come in multiple tiers. For example, secondary consumers feed on primary consumers, while tertiary consumers feed on secondary consumers. Apex predators are the animals at the top of the food chain. They are the highest category consumer in an ecosystem, and apex predators do not have natural predators. 37. Which of the following animals eats primary producers according to the food chain diagram? a. Cobra b. Gazelle c. Wild dog d. Aardvark 38. Which of the following animals has no natural predators according to the food chain diagram? a. Vulture b. Cobra c. Mongoose d. Aardvark 39. Which of the following is something that the mongoose would eat? a. Shrub b. Aardvark c. Vulture d. Mouse The next four questions are based on the timeline of the life of Alexander Graham Bell. 40. Which of the following is the event that occurred fourth on the timeline? a. Helped found National Geographic Society b. Developed a metal detector c. Moved to Canada d. Started a school for the deaf 41. Of the pairings in the answer choices, which has the longest gap between the two events? a. Moved to Canada and Became friends with Helen Keller b. Became friends with Helen Keller and Died in Canada c. Started school for the deaf and Developed a metal detector d. Born in Scotland and Started school for the deaf 42. Which one of the following statements is accurate based on the timeline? a. Bell did nothing significant after he helped found the National Geographic Society. b. Bell started a school for the deaf in Canada. c. Bell lived in at least two countries. d. Developing a metal detector allowed Bell to meet Helen Keller. 43. Which one of the following events occurred most recently? a. Bell’s invention of the telephone b. Bell’s founding of the school. c. Bell’s birth d. Bell’s move to Canada 44. Which of the following statements would make the best conclusion to an essay about civil rights activist Rosa Parks? a. On December 1, 1955, Rosa Parks refused to give up her bus seat to a white passenger, setting in motion the Montgomery bus boycott. b. Rosa Parks was a hero to many and came to symbolize the way that ordinary people could bring about real change in the Civil Rights Movement. c. Rosa Parks died in 2005 in Detroit, having moved from Montgomery shortly after the bus boycott. d. Rosa Parks’ arrest was an early part of the Civil Rights Movement and helped lead to the passage of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. 45. The following exchange occurred after the Baseball Coach's team suffered a heartbreaking loss in the final inning. Reporter: The team clearly did not rise to the challenge. I'm sure that getting zero hits in twenty at-bats with runners in scoring position hurt the team's chances at winning the game. What are your thoughts on this devastating loss? Baseball Coach: Hitting with runners in scoring position was not the reason we lost this game. We made numerous errors in the field, and our pitchers gave out too many free passes. Also, we did not even need a hit with runners in scoring position. Many of those at-bats could have driven in the run by simply making contact. Our team did not deserve to win the game. Which of the following best describes the main point of dispute between the reporter and baseball coach? a. Whether the loss was heartbreaking. b. Whether getting zero hits in twenty at-bats with runners in scoring position caused the loss. c. Numerous errors in the field and pitchers giving too many free passes caused the loss. d. Whether the team deserved to win the game. 46. Read the following poem. Which option best expresses the symbolic meaning of the “road” and the overall theme? Two roads diverged in a yellow wood, And sorry I could not travel both And be one traveler, long I stood And looked down one as far as I could To where it bent in the undergrowth; Then took the other, as just as fair, And having perhaps the better claim, Because it was grassy and wanted wear; Though as for that the passing there Had worn them really about the same, And both that morning equally lay In leaves no step had trodden black. Oh, I kept the first for another day! Yet knowing how way leads on to way, I doubted if I should ever come back. I shall be telling this with a sigh Somewhere ages and ages hence: Two roads diverged in a wood, and I— I took the one less traveled by, And that has made all the difference—Robert Frost, “The Road Not Taken” a. A divergent spot where the traveler had to choose the correct path to his destination b. A choice between good and evil that the traveler needs to make c. The traveler’s struggle between his lost love and his future prospects d. Life’s journey and the choices with which humans are faced 47. Kimmy is a world-famous actress. Millions of people downloaded her leaked movie co-starring her previous boyfriend. Kimmy earns millions through her television show and marketing appearances. There's little wonder that paparazzi track her every move. What is the argument's primary purpose? a. Kimmy does not deserve her fame. b. Kimmy starred in an extremely popular movie. c. Kimmy earns millions of dollars through her television show and marketing appearances. d. Kimmy is a highly compensated and extremely popular television and movie actress. 48. Dwight works at a mid-sized regional tech company. He approaches all tasks with unmatched enthusiasm and leads the company in annual sales. The top salesman is always the best employee. Therefore, Dwight is the best employee. Which of the following most accurately describes how the argument proceeds? a. The argument proceeds by first stating a conclusion and then offering several premises to justify that conclusion. b. The argument proceeds by stating a universal rule and then proceeds to show how this situation is the exception. c. The argument proceeds by stating several facts that serve as the basis for the conclusion at the end of the argument. d. The argument proceeds by stating several facts, offering a universal rule, and then drawing a conclusion by applying the facts to the rule. Questions 49-51 are based upon the following passage: This excerpt is adaptation from “The ‘Hatchery’ of the Sun-Fish”--- Scientific American, #711 I have thought that an example of the intelligence (instinct?) of a class of fish which has come under my observation during my excursions into the Adirondack region of New York State might possibly be of interest to your readers, especially as I am not aware that any one except myself has noticed it, or, at least, has given it publicity. The female sun-fish (called, I believe, in England, the roach or bream) makes a "hatchery" for her eggs in this wise. Selecting a spot near the banks of the numerous lakes in which this region abounds, and where the water is about 4 inches deep, and still, she builds, with her tail and snout, a circular embankment 3 inches in height and 2 thick. The circle, which is as perfect a one as could be formed with mathematical instruments, is usually a foot and a half in diameter; and at one side of this circular wall an opening is left by the fish of just sufficient width to admit her body. The mother sun-fish, having now built or provided her "hatchery," deposits her spawn within the circular inclosure, and mounts guard at the entrance until the fry are hatched out and are sufficiently large to take charge of themselves. As the embankment, moreover, is built up to the surface of the water, no enemy can very easily obtain an entrance within the inclosure from the top; while there being only one entrance, the fish is able, with comparative ease, to keep out all intruders. I have, as I say, noticed this beautiful instinct of the sun-fish for the perpetuity of her species more particularly in the lakes of this region; but doubtless the same habit is common to these fish in other waters. 49. What is the purpose of this passage? a. To show the effects of fish hatcheries on the Adirondack region b. To persuade the audience to study Ichthyology (fish science) c. To depict the sequence of mating among sun-fish d. To enlighten the audience on the habits of sun-fish and their hatcheries 50. What does the word wise in this passage most closely mean? a. Knowledge b. Manner c. Shrewd d. Ignorance 51. What is the definition of the word fry as it appears in the following passage? The mother sun-fish, having now built or provided her "hatchery," deposits her spawn within the circular inclosure, and mounts guard at the entrance until the fry are hatched out and are sufficiently large to take charge of themselves. a. Fish at the stage of development where they are capable of feeding themselves. b. Fish eggs that have been fertilized. c. A place where larvae is kept out of danger from other predators. d. A dish where fish is placed in oil and fried until golden brown. 52. Read the following passage: Last week, we adopted a dog from the local animal shelter, after looking for our perfect pet for several months. We wanted a dog that was not too old, but also past the puppy stage, so that training would be less time-intensive and to give an older animal a home. Robin, as she’s called, was a perfect match and we filled out our application and upon approval, were permitted to bring her home. Her physical exam and lab work all confirmed she was healthy. We went to the pet store and bought all sorts of bedding, food, toys, and treats to outfit our house as a dog-friendly and fun place. The shelter told us she liked dry food only, which is a relief because wet food is expensive and pretty off- putting. We even got fencing and installed a dog run in the backyard for Robin to roam unattended. Then we took her to the vet to make sure she was healthy. Next week, she starts the dog obedience class that we enrolled her in with a discount coupon from the shelter. It will be a good opportunity to bond with her and establish commands and dominance. When we took her to the park the afternoon after we adopted her, it was clear that she is a sociable and friendly dog, easily playing cohesively with dogs of all sizes and dispositions. Which of the following is out of sequence in the story? a. Last week, we adopted a dog from the local animal shelter, after looking for our perfect pet for several months. b. Robin, as she’s called, was a perfect match and we filled out our application and upon approval, were permitted to bring her home. c. Her physical exam and lab work all confirmed she was healthy. d. Next week, she starts the dog obedience class that we enrolled her in with a discount coupon from the shelter. 53. You are a high school math teacher and one of your students, Marcus, emailed asking to come see you after the latest exam. His email said he was disappointed and surprised with his grade and wanted to inquire about extra credit work to recoup points he lost on the exam. You decided to look over the details of his performance in your course to find any potential causes for his poor marks and to offer him informed tips to improve for the next exam. Thankfully, you keep detailed records to tracks each student’s grades. You have four pieces of information to evaluate before he comes in to meet with you: a graph of his scores on the four exams he’s taken so far, a graph of the number of absences he’s had each week thus far in the course, a graph of the percentage of homework assignments he’s completed each week, and an email from his basketball coach. From: William Cooper, Boys Varsity Basketball Coach To: All academic teachers Re: Marco Marco will be competing in the Northeast Regional Basketball tournament next week and will be absent from classes Tuesday through Friday. The student athletes will be responsible for obtaining their assignments and making arrangements to complete any missed material. If you have any questions, please don’t hesitate to reach out to me. While I understand that this is not ideal so close to final exams, but this is the first time our Ravens have made it so far in the tournament and we are excited to see how well they will perform. Thanks, Coach William Cooper Which of the given information sources provides a possible explanation for a Marco’s recent poor exam grade? a. The email from his basketball coach about the tournament b. The graph of his exam marks c. The graph of his class absences each week d. The graph of the percentage of homework assignments completed Mathematics 1. Which of the following numbers has the greatest value? a. 1.4378 b. 1.07548 c. 1.43592 d. 0.89409 2. The value of 6 x 12 is the same as: a. 2 x 4 x 4 x 2 b. 7 x 4 x 3 c. 6 x 6 x 3 d. 3 x 3 x 4 x 2 3. This chart indicates how many sales of CDs, vinyl records, and MP3 downloads occurred over the last year. Approximately what percentage of the total sales was from CDs? a. 55% b. 25% c. 40% d. 5% 4. After a 20% sale discount, Frank purchased a new refrigerator for $850. How much did he save from the original price? a. $170 b. $212.50 c. $105.75 d. $200 5. Which of the following is largest? a. 0.45 b. 0.096 c. 0.3 d. 0.313 6. What is the value of b in this equation? 5b – 4 = 2b + 17 a. 13 b. 24 c. 7 d. 21 7. A school has 15 teachers and 20 teaching assistants. They have 200 students. What is the ratio of faculty to students? a. 3:20 b. 4:17 c. 3:2 d. 7:40 8. Express the solution to the following problem in decimal form: a. 0.042 b. 84% c. 0.84 d. 0.42 9. A student gets an 85% on a test with 20 questions. How many answers did the student solve correctly? a. 15 b. 16 c. 17 d. 18 10. If Sarah reads at an average rate of 21 pages in four nights, how long will it take her to read 140 pages? a. 6 nights b. 26 nights c. 8 nights d. 27 nights 11. Alan currently weighs 200 pounds, but he wants to lose weight to get down to 175 pounds. What is this difference in kilograms? (1 pound is approximately equal to 0.45 kilograms.) a. 9 kg b. 11.25 kg c. 78.75 kg d. 90 kg 12. Johnny earns $2334.50 from his job each month. He pays $1437 for monthly expenses. Johnny is planning a vacation in 3 months’ time that he estimates will cost $1750 total. How much will Johnny have left over from three months’ of saving once he pays for his vacation? a. $948.50 b. $584.50 c. $852.50 d. $942.50 13. What is rounded to the nearest integer? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 14. Solve the following: a. 512 b. 36 c. 60.5 d. 22 4 x 7 + (25 – 21)² 15. The total perimeter of a rectangle is 36 cm. If the length of each side is 12 cm, what is the width? a. 3 cm b. 12 cm c. 6 cm d. 8 cm 16. Dwayne has received the following scores on his math tests: 78, 92, 83, 97. What score must Dwayne get on his next math test to have an overall average of 90? a. 89 b. 98 c. 95 d. 100 17. What is the overall median of Dwayne’s current scores: 78, 92, 83, 97? a. 19 b. 85 c. 83 d. 87.5 18. Solve the following: a. 30 b. 21 c. 15 d. 13 19. In Jim’s school, there are 3 girls for every 2 boys. There are 650 students in total. Using this information, how many students are girls? a. 260 b. 130 c. 65 d. 390 20. What is the solution to 4 x 7 + (25 – 21)² ? a. 512 b. 36 c. 60.5 d. 22 21. Kimberley earns $10 an hour babysitting, and after 10 p.m., she earns $12 an hour, with the amount paid being rounded to the nearest hour accordingly. On her last job, she worked from 5:30 p.m. to 11 p.m. In total, how much did Kimberley earn on her last job? a. $45 b. $57 c. $62 d. $42 22. Solve this equation: b. 3 c. d. 23. Arrange the following numbers from least to greatest value: 0.85, a. b. c. d. 24. Keith’s bakery had 252 customers go through its doors last week. This week, that number increased to 378. Express this increase as a percentage. a. 26% b. 50% c. 35% d. 12% 25. If , then a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 26. Simplify the following fraction: a. b. c. d. 27. The following graph compares the various test scores of the top three students in each of these teacher’s classes. Based on the graph, which teacher’s students had the lowest range of test scores? a. Mr. Lennon b. Mr. O’Shea c. Mr. Taylor d. Ms. Daley 28. Bernard can make $80 per day. If he needs to make $300 and only works full days, how many days will this take? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 29. Using the following diagram, calculate the total circumference, rounding to the nearest decimal place: a. 25.0 cm b. 15.7 cm c. 78.5 cm d. 31.4 cm 30. Which measure for the center of a small sample set would be most affected by outliers? a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. None of the above 31. A line that travels from the bottom-left of a graph to the upper-right of the graph indicates what kind of relationship between a predictor and a dependent variable? a. Positive b. Negative c. Exponential d. Logarithmic 32. How many kilometers is 4382 feet? a. 1.336 kilometers b. 14,376 kilometers c. 1.437 kilometers d. 13,336 kilometers 33. Which of the following is the best description of the relationship between Y and X? a. The data has normal distribution. b. X and Y have a negative relationship. c. No relationship d. X and Y have a positive relationship. 34. What is the slope of this line? a. 2 b. c. d. 35. What is the perimeter of the figure below? Note that the solid outer line is the perimeter. a. 48.565 in b. 36.565 in c. 39.78 in d. 39.565 in 36. Which of the following equations best represents the problem below? The width of a rectangle is 2 centimeters less than the length. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 44 centimeters, then what are the dimensions of the rectangle? a. b. c. d. Science 1. Which statement about white blood cells is true? a. B cells are responsible for antibody production. b. White blood cells are made in the white/yellow cartilage before they enter the bloodstream. c. Platelets, a special class of white blood cell, function to clot blood and stop bleeding. d. The majority of white blood cells only activate during the age of puberty, which explains why children and the elderly are particularly susceptible to disease. 2. Which locations in the digestive system are sites of chemical digestion? I. Mouth II. Stomach III. Small Intestine a. II only b. III only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III 3. Which of the following are functions of the urinary system? I. Synthesizing calcitriol and secreting erythropoietin II. Regulating the concentrations of sodium, potassium, chloride, calcium, and other ions III. Reabsorbing or secreting hydrogen ions and bicarbonate IV. Detecting reductions in blood volume and pressure a. I, II, and III b. II and III c. II, III, and IV d. All of the above 4. Which of the following structures is unique to eukaryotic cells? a. Cell walls b. Nuclei c. Cell membranes d. Organelles 5. Which is the cellular organelle used for digestion to recycle materials? a. The Golgi apparatus b. The lysosome c. The centrioles d. The mitochondria 6. A rock has a mass of 14.3 grams (g) and a volume of 5.4 cm3, what is its density? a. 8.90 g/cm3 b. 0.38 g/cm3 c. 77.22 g/cm3 d. 2.65 g/cm3 7. Why do arteries have valves? a. They have valves to maintain high blood pressure so that capillaries diffuse nutrients properly. b. Their valves are designed to prevent backflow due to their low blood pressure. c. They have valves due to a leftover trait from evolution that, like the appendix, are useless. d. They do not have valves, but veins do. 8. If the pressure in the pulmonary artery is increased above normal, which chamber of the heart will be affected first? a. The right atrium b. The left atrium c. The right ventricle d. The left ventricle 9. What is the purpose of sodium bicarbonate when released into the lumen of the small intestine? a. It works to chemically digest fats in the chyme. b. It decreases the pH of the chyme so as to prevent harm to the intestine. c. It works to chemically digest proteins in the chyme. d. It increases the pH of the chyme so as to prevent harm to the intestine. 10. Which of the following describes a reflex arc? a. The storage and recall of memory b. The maintenance of visual and auditory acuity c. The autoregulation of heart rate and blood pressure d. A stimulus and response controlled by the spinal cord 11. Describe the synthesis of the lagging strand of DNA. a. DNA polymerases synthesize DNA continuously after initially attaching to a primase. b. DNA polymerases synthesize DNA discontinuously in pieces called Okazaki fragments after initially attaching to primases. c. DNA polymerases synthesize DNA discontinuously in pieces called Okazaki fragments after initially attaching to RNA primers. d. DNA polymerases synthesize DNA discontinuously in pieces called Okazaki fragments which are joined together in the end by a DNA helicase. 12. Using anatomical terms, what is the relationship of the sternum relative to the deltoid? a. Medial b. Lateral c. Superficial d. Posterior 13. Ligaments connect what? a. Muscle to muscle b. Bone to bone c. Bone to muscle d. Muscle to tendon 14. Identify the correct sequence of the 3 primary body planes as numbered 1, 2, and 3 in the above image. a. Plane 1 is coronal, plane 2 is sagittal, and plane 3 is transverse. b. Plane 1 is sagittal, plane 2 is coronal, and plane 3 is medial. c. Plane 1 is coronal, plane 2 is sagittal, and plane 3 is medial. d. Plane 1 is sagittal, plane 2 is coronal, and plane 3 is transverse. 15. Which of the following is NOT a major function of the respiratory system in humans? a. It provides a large surface area for gas exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. b. It helps regulate the blood’s pH. c. It helps cushion the heart against jarring motions. d. It is responsible for vocalization. 16. Which of the following is NOT a function of the forebrain? a. To regulate blood pressure and heart rate b. To perceive and interpret emotional responses like fear and anger c. To perceive and interpret visual input from the eyes d. To integrate voluntary movement 17. What is the major difference between somatic and germline mutations? a. Somatic mutations usually benefit the individual while germline mutations usually harm them. b. Since germline mutations only affect one cell, they are less noticeable than the rapidly dividing somatic cells. c. Somatic mutations are not expressed for several generations, but germline mutations are expressed immediately. d. Germline mutations are usually inherited while somatic mutations will affect only the individual. 18. A child complains of heavy breathing even when relaxing. They are an otherwise healthy child with no history of respiratory problems. What might be the issue? a. Asthma b. Blood clot c. Hyperventilation d. Exercising too hard 19. Find the lowest coefficients that will balance the following combustion equation. C2H10+ O2à H2O+ CO2 a. 1:5:5:2 b. 4:10:20:8 c. 2:9:10:4 d. 2:5:10:4 20. What is the purpose of a catalyst? a. To increase a reaction’s rate by increasing the activation energy b. To increase a reaction’s rate by increasing the temperature c. To increase a reaction’s rate by decreasing the activation energy d. To increase a reaction’s rate by decreasing the temperature 21. Most catalysts found in biological systems are which of the following? a. Special lipids called cofactors. b. Special proteins called enzymes. c. Special lipids called enzymes. d. Special proteins called cofactors. 22. Which statement is true about the pH of a solution? a. A solution cannot have a pH less than 1. b. The more hydroxide ions in the solution, the higher the pH. c. If an acid has a pH of greater than 2, it is considered a weak base. d. A solution with a pH of 2 has ten times the amount of hydrogen ions than a solution with a power of 1. 23. Salts like sodium iodide (NaI) and potassium chloride (KCl) use what type of bond? a. Ionic bonds b. Disulfide bridges c. Covalent bonds d. London dispersion forces 24. Which of the following is unique to covalent bonds? a. Most covalent bonds are formed between the elements H, F, N, and O. b. Covalent bonds are dependent on forming dipoles. c. Bonding electrons are shared between two or more atoms. d. Molecules with covalent bonds tend to have a crystalline solid structure. 25. Which of the following describes a typical gas? a. Indefinite shape and indefinite volume b. Indefinite shape and definite volume c. Definite shape and definite volume d. Definite shape and indefinite volume 26. Which of the following areas of the body has the highest density of sweat glands? a. Upper back b. Arms c. Soles of feet/palms d. Head 27. A patient’s body is not properly filtering blood. Which of the following body parts is most likely malfunctioning? a. Medulla B. Heart C. Nephrons D. Renal cortex 28. A pediatrician notes that an infant’s cartilage is disappearing and being replaced by bone. What process has the doctor observed? a. Mineralization b. Ossification c. Osteoporosis d. Calcification 29. The epidermis is composed of what type of cells? a. Osteoclasts b. Connective c. Dendritic d. Epithelial 30. Which of the following is directly transcribed from DNA and represents the first step in protein building? a. siRNA b. rRNA c. mRNA d. tRNA 31. What information does a genotype give that a phenotype does not? a. The genotype necessarily includes the proteins coded for by its alleles. b. The genotype will always show an organism’s recessive alleles. c. The genotype must include the organism’s physical characteristics. d. The genotype shows what an organism’s parents looked like. 32. Which statement is supported by the Punnett square above, if “T” = Tall and “t” = short? a. Both parents are homozygous tall. b. 100% of the offspring will be tall because both parents are tall. c. There is a 25% chance that an offspring will be short. d. The short allele will soon die out. 33. Which of the following is a chief difference between evaporation and boiling? a. Liquids boil only at the surface while they evaporate equally throughout the liquid. b. Evaporating substances change from gas to liquid while boiling substances change from liquid to gas. c. Evaporation happens in nature while boiling is a manmade phenomenon. d. Evaporation can happen below a liquid’s boiling point. 34. Which of the following CANNOT be found in a human cell’s genes? a. Sequences of amino acids to be transcribed into mRNA b. Lethal recessive traits like sickle cell anemia c. Mutated DNA d. DNA that codes for proteins the cell doesn’t use 35. Which of the following is a special property of water? a. Water easily flows through phospholipid bilayers. b. A water molecule’s oxygen atom allows fish to breathe. c. Water is highly cohesive which explains its high melting point. d. Water can self-hydrolyze and decompose into hydrogen and oxygen. 36. What is an isotope? For any given element, it is an atom with which of the following? a. a different atomic number. b. a different number of protons. c. a different number of electrons. d. a different mass number. 37. What is the electrical charge of the nucleus? a. A nucleus always has a positive charge. b. A stable nucleus has a positive charge, but a radioactive nucleus may have no charge and instead be neutral. c. A nucleus always has no charge and is instead neutral. d. A stable nucleus has no charge and is instead neutral, but a radioactive nucleus may have a charge. 38. A student believes that there is an inverse relationship between sugar consumption and test scores. To test this hypothesis, he recruits several people to eat sugar, wait one hour, and take a short aptitude test afterwards. The student will compile the participants' sugar intake levels and test scores. How should the student conduct the experiment? a. One round of testing, where each participant consumes a different level of sugar. b. Two rounds of testing: The first, where each participant consumes a different level of sugar, and the second, where each participant consumes the same level as they did in Round 1. c. Two rounds of testing: The first, where each participant consumes the same level of sugar as each other, and the second, where each participant consumes the same level of sugar as each other but at higher levels than in Round 1. d. One round of testing, where each participant consumes the same level of sugar. 39. Which of the following creates sperm? a. Prostate gland b. Seminal vesicles c. Scrotum d. Seminiferous tubules 40. A researcher is exploring factors that contribute to the GPA of college students. While the sample is small, the researcher is trying to determine what the data shows. What can be reasoned from the table below? a. No college students consistently maintain a calendar of events. b. There is an inverse correlation between maintaining a calendar and GPA, and there is a positive correlation between taking notes and GPA. c. There is a positive correlation between maintaining a calendar and GPA, and there is no correlation between taking notes and GPA. d. There is no correlation between maintaining a calendar and GPA, and there is a positive correlation between taking notes and GPA. 41. Four different groups of the same species of peas are grown and exposed to differing levels of sunlight, water, and fertilizer as documented in the table below. The data in the water and fertilizer columns indicates how many times the peas are watered or fertilized per week, respectively. Group 2 is the only group that withered. What is a reasonable explanation for this occurrence? a. Insects gnawed away the stem of the plant. b. The roots rotted due to poor drainage. c. The soil type had nutrition deficiencies. d. This species of peas does not thrive in full sunlight. 42. Which of the following functions corresponds to the parasympathetic nervous system? a. It stimulates the fight-or-flight response. b. It increases heart rate. c. It stimulates digestion. d. It increases bronchiole dilation. 43. According to the periodic table, which of the following elements is the least reactive? a. Fluorine b. Silicon c. Neon d. Gallium 44. The Human Genome Project is a worldwide research project launched in 1990 to map the entire human genome. Although the Project was faced with the monumental challenge of analyzing tons and tons of data, its objective was completed in 2003 and ahead of its deadline by two years. Which of the following inventions likely had the greatest impact on this project? a. The sonogram b. X-ray diffraction c. The microprocessor d. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) 45. Which of the following inventions likely had the greatest improvement on the ability to combat nutrition deficiencies in developing countries? a. Food products fortified with dietary vitamins and minerals b. Integrated statistical models of fish populations c. Advances so that microscopes can use thicker tissue samples d. Refrigerated train cars for transportation of food 46. Which of the following is the gland that helps regulate calcium levels? a. Osteotoid gland b. Pineal gland c. Parathyroid glands d. Thymus gland 47. Anya was paid by Company X to analyze dwindling honeybee populations of the Southwest. After measuring hive populations over several months, she noticed no patterns in the geographic distributions of the deaths after comparisons with local maps of interest. This supported her hypothesis, so she took samples of the honey and the bees from the hives and performed dozens of dissections to confirm her suspicions. Which of the following is the most likely hypothesis upon which this research was performed? a. Honeybees are being killed off and their hives destroyed by other extremely aggressive species of bees from the South. b. Honeybees are contracting parasites in large droves. c. Honeybees are so sensitive to certain pesticides that they die on contact. d. Honeybees die in larger numbers around cell phone towers. 48. Explain the Law of Conservation of Mass as it applies to this reaction: 2H2 + O2 à 2H2O. a. Electrons are lost. b. The hydrogen loses mass. c. New oxygen atoms are formed. d. There is no decrease or increase of matter 49. Which of the following is the best unit to measure the amount of blood in the human body? a. Ounces b. Liters c. Milliliters d. Pounds 50. Which of the following systems does not include a transportation system throughout the body? a. Cardiovascular system b. Endocrine system c. Immune system d. Nervous system 51. Which of the following correctly identifies a difference between the primary and secondary immune response? a. In the secondary response, macrophages migrate to the lymph nodes to present the foreign microorganism to helped T lymphocytes. b. The humeral immunity that characterizes the primary response is coordinated by T lymphocytes. c. The primary response is quicker and more powerful than the secondary response. d. Suppressor T cells activate in the secondary response to prevent an overactive immune response. 52. Eosinophils are best described as which of the following? a. A type of granulocyte that secretes histamine, which stimulates the inflammatory response. b. The most abundant type of white blood cell and they secrete substances that are toxic to pathogens. c. A type of granulocyte found under mucous membranes and defends against multicellular parasites. d. A type of circulating granulocyte that is aggressive and has high phagocytic activity. 53. Which of the following correctly matches a category of protein with a physiologic example? a. Keratin is a structural protein b. Antigens are hormonal proteins c. Channel proteins are marker proteins d. Actin is a transport protein English and Language Usage 1. Which of the following sentences has an error in capitalization? a. The East Coast has experienced very unpredictable weather this year. b. My Uncle owns a home in Florida, where he lives in the winter. c. I am taking English Composition II on campus this fall. d. There are several nice beaches we can visit on our trip to the Jersey Shore this summer. 2. Julia Robinson, an avid photographer in her spare time, was able to capture stunning shots of the local wildlife on her last business trip to Australia. Which of the following is an adjective in the preceding sentence? a. Time b. Capture c. Avid d. Photographer 3. Which of the following sentences uses correct punctuation? a. Carole is not currently working; her focus is on her children at the moment. b. Carole is not currently working and her focus is on her children at the moment. c. Carole is not currently working, her focus is on her children at the moment. d. Carole is not currently working her focus is on her children at the moment. 4. Which of these examples is a compound sentence? a. Alex and Shane spent the morning coloring and later took a walk down to the park. b. After coloring all morning, Alex and Shane spent the afternoon at the park. c. Alex and Shane spent the morning coloring, and then they took a walk down to the park. d. After coloring all morning and spending part of the day at the park, Alex and Shane took a nap. 5. Which of these examples shows incorrect use of subject-verb agreement? a. Neither of the cars are parked on the street. b. Both of my kids are going to camp this summer. c. Any of your friends are welcome to join us on the trip in November. d. Each of the clothing options is appropriate for the job interview. 6. When it gets warm in the spring, and like to go fishing at Cobbs Creek. Which of the following word pairs should be used in the blanks above? a. me, him b. he, I c. him, I d. he, me 7. Which example shows correct comma usage for dates? a. The due date for the final paper in the course is Monday, May 16, 2016. b. The due date for the final paper in the course is Monday, May 16 2016. c. The due date for the final project in the course is Monday, May, 16, 2016. d. The due date for the final project in the course is Monday May 16, 2016. 8. Which of the following uses correct spelling? a. Leslie knew that training for the Philadelphia Marathon would take dicsipline and perserverance, but she was up to the challenge. b. Leslie knew that training for the Philadelphia Marathon would take discipline and perseverence, but she was up to the challenge. c. Leslie knew that training for the Philadelphia Marathon would take disiplin and perservearance, but she was up to the challenge. d. Leslie knew that training for the Philadelphia Marathon would take discipline and perseverance, but she was up to the challenge. 9. At last night’s company function, in honor of Mr. Robertson’s retirement, several employees spoke kindly about his career achievements. In the preceding sentence, what part of speech is the word function? a. Adjective b. Adverb c. Verb d. Noun 10. Which of the examples uses the correct plural form? a. Tomatos b. Analysis c. Cacti d. Criterion 11. Which of the following examples uses correct punctuation? a. The moderator asked the candidates, “Is each of you prepared to discuss your position on global warming?”. b. The moderator asked the candidates, “Is each of you prepared to discuss your position on global warming?” c. The moderator asked the candidates, ‘Is each of you prepared to discuss your position on global warming?’ d. The moderator asked the candidates, “Is each of you prepared to discuss your position on global warming”? 12. Based on the words transfer, transact, translation, transport, what is the meaning of the prefix trans? a. Separation b. All, everywhere c. Forward d. Across, beyond, over 13. In which of the following sentences does the word part function as an adjective? a. The part Brian was asked to play required many hours of research. b. She parts ways with the woodsman at the end of the book. c. The entire team played a part in the success of the project. d. Ronaldo is part Irish on his mother’s side of the family. 14. All of Shannon’s family and friends helped her to celebrate her 50th birthday at Café Sorrento. Which of the following is the complete subject of the preceding sentence? a. Family and friends b. All c. All of Shannon’s family and friends d. Shannon’s family and friends 15. Which of the following sentences uses second person point of view? a. I don’t want to make plans for the weekend before I see my work schedule. b. She had to miss the last three yoga classes due to illness. c. Pluto is no longer considered a planet because it is not gravitationally dominant. d. Be sure to turn off all of the lights before locking up for the night. 16. As the tour group approached the bottom of Chichen Itza, the prodigious Mayan pyramid, they became nervous about climbing its distant peak. Based on the context of the sentence, which of the following words shows the correct meaning of the word prodigious? a. Very large b. Famous c. Very old d. Fancy 17. Which of the following sentences correctly uses a hyphen? a. Last-year, many of the players felt unsure of the coach’s methods. b. Some of the furniture she selected seemed a bit over - the - top for the space. c. Henry is a beagle-mix and is ready for adoption this weekend. d. Geena works to maintain a good relationship with her ex-husband to the benefit of their children. 18. Which of the following examples correctly uses quotation marks? a. “Where the Red Fern Grows” was one of my favorite novels as a child. b. Though he is famous for his roles in films like “The Great Gatsby” and “Titanic,” Leonardo DiCaprio has never won an Oscar. c. Sylvia Plath’s poem, “Daddy” will be the subject of this week’s group discussion. d. “The New York Times” reported that many fans are disappointed in some of the trades made by the Yankees this off-season. 19. Which of the following sentences shows correct word usage? a. It’s often been said that work is better then rest. b. Its often been said that work is better then rest. c. It’s often been said that work is better than rest. d. Its often been said that work is better than rest. 20. Glorify, fortify, gentrify, acidify Based on the preceding words, what is the correct meaning of the suffix –fy? a. Marked by, given to b. Doer, believer c. Make, cause, cause to have d. Process, state, rank 21. Which of the following uses correct spelling? a. Jed was disatisfied with the acommodations at his hotel, so he requested another room. b. Jed was dissatisfied with the accommodations at his hotel, so he requested another room. c. Jed was dissatisfied with the accomodations at his hotel, so he requested another room. d. Jed was disatisfied with the accommodations at his hotel, so he requested another room. 22. Which of the following is an imperative sentence? a. Pennsylvania’s state flag includes two draft horses and an eagle. b. Go down to the basement and check the hot water heater for signs of a leak. c. You must be so excited to have a new baby on the way! d. How many countries speak Spanish? 23. After a long day at work, Tracy had dinner with her family, and then took a walk to the park. What are the transitional words in the preceding sentence? a. After, then b. At, with, to c. Had, took d. A, the 24. Which of the following examples is a compound sentence? a. Shawn and Jerome played soccer in the backyard for two hours. b. Marissa last saw Elena and talked to her this morning. c. The baby was sick, so I decided to stay home from work. d. Denise, Kurt, and Eric went for a run after dinner. 25. Robert needed to find at least four sources for his final project, so he searched several library databases for reliable academic research. Which words function as nouns in the preceding sentence? a. Robert, sources, project, databases, research b. Robert, sources, final, project, databases, academic, research c. Robert, sources, project, he, library, databases, research d. Sources, project, databases, research 26. Which of the following sentences uses correct subject-verb agreement? a. There is two constellations that can be seen from the back of the house. b. At least four of the sheep needs to be sheared before the end of summer. c. Lots of people were auditioning for the singing competition on Saturday. d. Everyone in the group have completed the assignment on time. 27. Philadelphia is home to some excellent walking tours where visitors can learn more about the culture and rich history of the city of brotherly love. What are the adjectives in the preceding sentence? a. Philadelphia, tours, visitors, culture, history, city, love b. Excellent, walking, rich, brotherly c. Is, can, learn d. To, about, of 28. The realtor showed and a house on Wednesday afternoon. Which of the following pronoun pairs should be used in the blanks above? a. She, I b. She, me c. Me, her d. Her, me 29. Which of the following examples uses correct punctuation? a. Recommended supplies for the hunting trip include the following: rain gear, large backpack, hiking boots, flashlight, and non-perishable foods. b. I left the store, because I forgot my wallet. c. As soon as the team checked into the hotel; they met in the lobby for a group photo. d. None of the furniture came in on time: so they weren’t able to move in to the new apartment. 30. Which of the following sentences shows correct word usage? a. Your going to have to put you’re jacket over their. b. You’re going to have to put your jacket over there. c. Your going to have to put you’re jacket over they’re. d. You’re going to have to put you’re jacket over their. 31. A student wants to rewrite the following sentence: Entrepreneurs use their ideas to make money. He wants to use the word money as a verb, but he isn’t sure which word ending to use. What is the appropriate suffix to add to money to complete the following sentence? Entrepreneurs their ideas. a. –ize b. –ical c. –en d. –ful 32. A teacher notices that, when students are talking to each other between classes, they are using their own unique vocabulary words and expressions to talk about their daily lives. When the teacher hears these non-standard words that are specific to one age or cultural group, what type of language is she listening to? a. Slang b. Jargon c. Dialect d. Vernacular 33. A teacher wants to counsel a student about using the word ain’t in a research paper for a high school English class. What advice should the teacher give? a. Ain’t is not in the dictionary, so it isn’t a word. b. Because the student isn’t in college yet, ain’t is an appropriate expression for a high school writer. c. Ain’t is incorrect English and should not be part of a serious student’s vocabulary because it sounds uneducated. d. Ain’t is a colloquial expression, and while it may be appropriate in a conversational setting, it is not standard in academic writing. Reading Questions 1-6 are based upon the following passage: This excerpt is an adaptation of Jonathan Swift’s Gulliver’s Travels into Several Remote Nations of the World. My gentleness and good behaviour had gained so far on the emperor and his court, and indeed upon the army and people in general, that I began to conceive hopes of getting my liberty in a short time. I took all possible methods to cultivate this favourable disposition. The natives came, by degrees, to be less apprehensive of any danger from me. I would sometimes lie down, and let five or six of them dance on my hand; and at last the boys and girls would venture to come and play at hide- and-seek in my hair. I had now made a good progress in understanding and speaking the language. The emperor had a mind one day to entertain me with several of the country shows, wherein they exceed all nations I have known, both for dexterity and magnificence. I was diverted with none so much as that of the rope-dancers, performed upon a slender white thread, extended about two feet, and twelve inches from the ground. Upon which I shall desire liberty, with the reader’s patience, to enlarge a little. This diversion is only practised by those persons who are candidates for great employments, and high favour at court. They are trained in this art from their youth, and are not always of noble birth, or liberal education. When a great office is vacant, either by death or disgrace (which often happens,) five or six of those candidates petition the emperor to entertain his majesty and the court with a dance on the rope; and whoever jumps the highest, without falling, succeeds in the office. Very often the chief ministers themselves are commanded to show their skill, and to convince the emperor that they have not lost their faculty. Flimnap, the treasurer, is allowed to cut a caper on the straight rope, at least an inch higher than any other lord in the whole empire. I have seen him do the summerset several times together, upon a trencher fixed on a rope which is no thicker than a common packthread in England. My friend Reldresal, principal secretary for private affairs, is, in my opinion, if I am not partial, the second after the treasurer; the rest of the great officers are much upon a par. 1. Which of the following statements best summarize the central purpose of this text? a. Gulliver details his fondness for the archaic yet interesting practices of his captors. b. Gulliver conjectures about the intentions of the aristocratic sector of society. c. Gulliver becomes acquainted with the people and practices of his new surroundings. d. Gulliver’s differences cause him to become penitent around new acquaintances. 2. What is the word principal referring to in the following text? My friend Reldresal, principal secretary for private affairs, is, in my opinion, if I am not partial, the second after the treasurer; the rest of the great officers are much upon a par. a. Primary or chief b. An acolyte c. An individual who provides nurturing d. One in a subordinate position 3. What can the reader infer from this passage? I would sometimes lie down, and let five or six of them dance on my hand; and at last the boys and girls would venture to come and play at hide-and-seek in my hair. a. The children tortured Gulliver. b. Gulliver traveled because he wanted to meet new people. c. Gulliver is considerably larger than the children who are playing around him. d. Gulliver has a genuine love and enthusiasm for people of all sizes. 4. What is the significance of the word mind in the following passage? The emperor had a mind one day to entertain me with several of the country shows, wherein they exceed all nations I have known, both for dexterity and magnificence. a. The ability to think b. A collective vote c. A definitive decision d. A mythological question 5. David Foster Wallace's Infinite Jest is the holy grail of modern literature. It will stand the test of time in its relevance. Every single person who starts reading Infinite Jest cannot physically put down the book until completing it. Which of the following is the main point of the passage? a. David Foster Wallace's Infinite Jest is the holy grail of modern literature. b. Infinite Jest is a page-turner. c. David Foster Wallace wrote Infinite Jest. d. Infinite Jest is a modern classic for good reason, and everybody should read it. 6. The assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria is often ascribed as the cause of World War I. However, the assassination merely lit the fuse in a combustible situation since many of the world powers were in complicated and convoluted military alliances. For example, England, France, and Russia entered into a mutual defense treaty seven years prior to World War I. Even without Franz Ferdinand's assassination . Which of the following most logically completes the passage? a. A war between the world powers was extremely likely. b. World War I never would have happened. c. England, France, and Russia would have started the war. d. Austria would have started the war. e. The world powers would still be in complicated and convoluted military alliances. 7. When students use inference, what are they able to do? a. Make logical assumptions based on contextual clues b. Independently navigate various types of text c. Summarize a text’s main idea d. Paraphrase a text’s main idea 8. Read the following passage to answer the question below: He is a kind and generous man who wants nothing more than the best for his community, thought Michael as the board members discussed the nominees for head of council. Lana June, however, was far more critical. He is just saying those things to get elected, she thought. What is the author’s point of view? a. First person b. Third person limited c. Third person omniscient d. Objective Questions 9-10 are based upon the following image. 9. Which is the decomposer in the food chain above? a. Sun b. Grass c. Frog d. Fungi 10. Which is the herbivore in the food chain above? a. Grass b. Grasshopper c. Frog d. Fungi 11. When students study character development, setting, and plot, what are they studying? a. Word analysis b. Points of view c. Literary analysis of a text d. Fluency Questions 12 – 17 are based upon the following passage: This excerpt is adaptation of Robert Louis Stevenson’s The Strange Case of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde. “Did you ever come across a protégé of his—one Hyde?” He asked. “Hyde?” repeated Lanyon. “No. Never heard of him. Since my time.” That was the amount of information that the lawyer carried back with him to the great, dark bed on which he tossed to and fro until the small hours of the morning began to grow large. It was a night of little ease to his toiling mind, toiling in mere darkness and besieged by questions. Six o’clock struck on the bells of the church that was so conveniently near to Mr. Utterson's dwelling, and still he was digging at the problem. Hitherto it had touched him on the intellectual side alone; but; but now his imagination also was engaged, or rather enslaved; and as he lay and tossed in the gross darkness of the night in the curtained room, Mr. Enfield’s tale went by before his mind in a scroll of lighted pictures. He would be aware of the great field of lamps in a nocturnal city; then of the figure of a man walking swiftly; then of a child running from the doctor’s; and then these met, and that human Juggernaut trod the child down and passed on regardless of her screams. Or else he would see a room in a rich house, where his friend lay asleep, dreaming and smiling at his dreams; and then the door of that room would be opened, the curtains of the bed plucked apart, the sleeper recalled, and, lo! There would stand by his side a figure to whom power was given, and even at that dead hour he must rise and do its bidding. The figure in these two phrases haunted the lawyer all night; and if at anytime he dozed over, it was but to see it glide more stealthily through sleeping houses, or move the more swiftly, and still the more smoothly, even to dizziness, through wider labyrinths of lamplighted city, and at every street corner crush a child and leave her screaming. And still the figure had no face by which he might know it; even in his dreams it had no face, or one that baffled him and melted before his eyes; and thus there it was that there sprung up and grew apace in the lawyer's mind a singularly strong, almost an inordinate, curiosity to behold the features of the real Mr. Hyde. If he could but once set eyes on him, he thought the mystery would lighten and perhaps roll altogether away, as was the habit of mysterious things when well examined. He might see a reason for his friend’s strange preference or bondage, and even for the startling clauses of the will. And at least it would be a face worth seeing: the face of a man who was without bowels of mercy: a face which had but to show itself to raise up, in the mind of the unimpressionable Enfield, a spirit of enduring hatred. From that time forward, Mr. Utterson began to haunt the door in the by street of shops. In the morning before office hours, at noon when business was plenty of time scarce, at night under the face of the full city moon, by all lights and at all hours of solitude or concourse, the lawyer was to be found on his chosen post. “If he be Mr. Hyde,” he had thought, “I should be Mr. Seek.” 12. What is the purpose of the use of repetition in the following passage? It was a night of little ease to his toiling mind, toiling in mere darkness and besieged by questions. a. It serves as a demonstration of the mental state of Mr. Lanyon. b. It is reminiscent of the church bells that are mentioned in the story. c. It mimics Mr. Utterson’s ambivalence. d. It emphasizes Mr. Utterson’s anguish in failing to identify Hyde’s whereabouts. 13. What is the setting of the story in this passage? a. In the city b. On the countryside c. In a jail d. In a mental health facility 14. What can one infer about the meaning of the word “Juggernaut” from the author’s use of it in the passage? a. It is an apparition that appears at daybreak. b. It scares children. c. It is associated with space travel. d. Mr. Utterson finds it soothing. 15. What is the definition of the word haunt in the following passage? From that time forward, Mr. Utterson began to haunt the door in the by street of shops. In the morning before office hours, at noon when business was plenty of time scarce, at night under the face of the full city moon, by all lights and at all hours of solitude or concourse, the lawyer was to be found on his chosen post. a. To levitate b. To constantly visit c. To terrorize d. To daunt 16. The phrase labyrinths of lamp lighted city contains an example of what? a. Hyperbole b. Simile c. Juxtaposition d. Alliteration 17. What can one reasonably conclude from the final comment of this passage? “If he be Mr. Hyde,” he had thought, “I should be Mr. Seek.” a. The speaker is considering a name change. b. The speaker is experiencing an identity crisis. c. The speaker has mistakenly been looking for the wrong person. d. The speaker intends to continue to look for Hyde. 18. Which option best exemplifies an author’s use of alliteration and personification? a. Her mood hung about her like a weary cape, very dull from wear. b. It shuddered, swayed, shook, and screamed its way into dust under hot flames. c. The house was a starch sentry, warning visitors away. d. At its shoreline, visitors swore they heard the siren call of the cliffs above. 19. Read the following poem. Which option best describes the use of the spider? The spider as an artist Has never been employed Though his surpassing merit Is freely certified By every broom and Bridget Throughout a Christian land. Neglected son of genius, I take thee by the hand—Emily Dickinson, “Cobwebs” a. Idiom b. Haiku c. ABBA rhyming convention d. Simile 20. Which best describes the plot in fiction? a. What happens in the story or the storyline b. Character development c. The time and place of the story d. The events in the story that are true 21. Which organizational style is used in the following passage? There are several reasons why the new student café has not been as successful as expected. One factor is that prices are higher than originally advertised, so many students cannot afford to buy food and beverages there. Also, the café closes rather early; as a result, students go out in town to other late-night gathering places rather than meeting friends at the café on campus. a. Cause and effect order b. Compare and contrast order c. Spatial order d. Time order 22. A student is starting a research assignment on Japanese-American internment camps during World War II, but she is unsure of how to gather relevant resources. Which of the following would be the most helpful advice for the student? a. Conduct a broad internet search to get a wide view of the subject. b. Consult an American history textbook. c. Find websites about Japanese culture such as fashion and politics. d. Locate texts in the library related to World War II in America and look for references to internment camps in the index. 23. Which phrase best describes the purpose of nonfiction writing? a. To inform, entertain, or persuade readers b. To entertain, then to inform c. To convince readers they’re wrong about the author’s subject d. None of the above 24. When selecting a career path, it’s important to explore the various options available. Many students entering college may shy away from a major because they don’t know much about it. For example, many students won’t opt for a career as an actuary, because they aren’t exactly sure what it entails. But in doing so, they are missing out on a career that is very lucrative and in high demand. Actuaries work in the insurance field and assess risks and premiums. The average salary of an actuary is $100,000 per year. Another career option students may avoid, due to lack of knowledge of the field, is a hospitalist. This is a physician that specializes in the care of patients in a hospital, as opposed to those seen in private practices. The average salary of a hospitalist is upwards of $200,000. It pays to do some digging and find out more about these lesser-known career fields. An actuary is: a. A doctor who works in a hospital. b. The same as a hospitalist. c. An insurance agent who works in a hospital. d. A person who assesses insurance risks and premiums. Questions 25 – 30 are based on the following passages. Passage I Lethal force, or deadly force, is defined as the physical means to cause death or serious harm to another individual. The law holds that lethal force is only accepted when you or another person are in immediate and unavoidable danger of death or severe bodily harm. For example, a person could be beating a weaker person in such a way that they are suffering severe enough trauma that could result in death or serious harm. This would be an instance where lethal force would be acceptable and possibly the only way to save that person from irrevocable damage. Another example of when to use lethal force would be when someone enters your home with a deadly weapon. The intruder’s presence and possession of the weapon indicate mal-intent and the ability to inflict death or severe injury to you and your loved ones. Again, lethal force can be used in this situation. Lethal force can also be applied to prevent the harm of another individual. If a woman is being brutally assaulted and is unable to fend off an attacker, lethal force can be used to defend her as a last-ditch effort. If she is in immediate jeopardy of rape, harm, and/or death, lethal force could be the only response that could effectively deter the assailant. The key to understanding the concept of lethal force is the term last resort. Deadly force cannot be taken back; it should be used only to prevent severe harm or death. The law does distinguish whether the means of one’s self-defense is fully warranted, or if the individual goes out of control in the process. If you continually attack the assailant after they are rendered incapacitated, this would be causing unnecessary harm, and the law can bring charges against you. Likewise, if you kill an attacker unnecessarily after defending yourself, you can be charged with murder. This would move lethal force beyond necessary defense, making it no longer a last resort but rather a use of excessive force. Passage II Assault is the unlawful attempt of one person to apply apprehension on another individual by an imminent threat or by initiating offensive contact. Assaults can vary, encompassing physical strikes, threatening body language, and even provocative language. In the case of the latter, even if a hand has not been laid, it is still considered an assault because of its threatening nature. Let’s look at an example: A homeowner is angered because his neighbor blows fallen leaves into his freshly mowed lawn. Irate, the homeowner gestures a fist to his fellow neighbor and threatens to bash his head in for littering on his lawn. The homeowner’s physical motions and verbal threat heralds a physical threat against the other neighbor. These factors classify the homeowner’s reaction as an assault. If the angry neighbor hits the threatening homeowner in retaliation, that would constitute an assault as well because he physically hit the homeowner. Assault also centers on the involvement of weapons in a conflict. If someone fires a gun at another person, it could be interpreted as an assault unless the shooter acted in self-defense. If an individual drew a gun or a knife on someone with the intent to harm them, it would be considered assault. However, it’s also considered an assault if someone simply aimed a weapon, loaded or not, at another person in a threatening manner. 25. What is the purpose of the second passage? a. To inform the reader about what assault is and how it is committed. b. To inform the reader about how assault is a minor example of lethal force. c. To disprove the previous passage concerning lethal force. d. To argue that the use of assault is more common than the use of lethal force. 26. Which of the following situations, according to the passages, would not constitute an illegal use of lethal force? a. A disgruntled cashier yells obscenities at a customer. b. A thief is seen running away with stolen cash. c. A man is attacked in an alley by another man with a knife. d. A woman punches another woman in a bar. 27. Given the information in the passages, which of the following must be true about assault? a. All assault is considered expression of lethal force. b. There are various forms of assault. c. Smaller, weaker people cannot commit assault. d. Assault is justified only as a last resort. 28. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously undermine the explanation proposed by the author in Passage I, third paragraph? a. An instance of lethal force in self-defense is not absolutely absolved from blame. The law takes into account the necessary use of force at the time it is committed. b. An individual who uses necessary defense under lethal force is in direct compliance of the law under most circumstances. c. Lethal force in self-defense should be forgiven in all cases for the peace of mind of the primary victim. d. The use of lethal force is not evaluated on the intent of the user but rather the severity of the primary attack that warranted self-defense. 29. Based on the passages, what can we infer about the relationship between assault and lethal force? a. An act of lethal force always leads to a type of assault. b. An assault will result in someone using lethal force. c. An assault with deadly intent can lead to an individual using lethal force to preserve their well-being. d. If someone uses self-defense in a conflict, it is called deadly force; if actions or threats are intended, it is called assault. 30. Which of the following best describes the way the passages are structured? a. Both passages open by defining a legal concept and then continue to describe situations in order to further explain the concept. b. Both passages begin with situations, introduce accepted definitions, and then cite legal ramifications. c. The first passage presents a long definition while the second passage begins by showing an example of assault. d. Both cite specific legal doctrines, then proceed to explain the rulings. Use the following pie chart to complete question 31. 31. According to the pie charts above, how many countries left the European Union from 1998 to 2007? a. One percent b. Two percent c. Three percent d. Four percent 32. The author’s purpose, major ideas, supporting details, visual aids, and vocabulary are the five key elements of what type of text? a. Fictional texts b. Narratives c. Persuasive texts d. Informational texts 33. Bobo the clown books more shows and makes more money than Gob the magician. Despite rampant coulrophobia—an irrational fear of clowns— Bobo still books more parties and receives higher rates of compensation per show. Gob's magic shows are no worse than Bobo's clown performances. Which of the following statements, if true, best explains the apparent paradox? a. Bobo is an experienced clown. b. Despite rampant coulrophobia, statistical data shows that people generally prefer clowns to magicians for children's birthday parties. c. Bobo goes out of his way to appear non-threatening. d. Bobo works in a densely populated city, while Gob works in a rural town. 34. Autobiographies and memoirs are examples of what form of writing? a. Fiction b. Narrative c. Informational text d. Research papers This excerpt is adaptation from Charles Dickens’ speech in Birmingham in England on December 30, 1853 on behalf of the Birmingham and Midland Institute. My Good Friends,—When I first imparted to the committee of the projected Institute my particular wish that on one of the evenings of my readings here the main body of my audience should be composed of working men and their families, I was animated by two desires; first, by the wish to have the great pleasure of meeting you face to face at this Christmas time, and accompany you myself through one of my little Christmas books; and second, by the wish to have an opportunity of stating publicly in your presence, and in the presence of the committee, my earnest hope that the Institute will, from the beginning, recognise one great principle—strong in reason and justice—which I believe to be essential to the very life of such an Institution. It is, that the working man shall, from the first unto the last, have a share in the management of an Institution which is designed for his benefit, and which calls itself by his name. I have no fear here of being misunderstood—of being supposed to mean too much in this. If there ever was a time when any one class could of itself do much for its own good, and for the welfare of society—which I greatly doubt—that time is unquestionably past. It is in the fusion of different classes, without confusion; in the bringing together of employers and employed; in the creating of a better common understanding among those whose interests are identical, who depend upon each other, who are vitally essential to each other, and who never can be in unnatural antagonism without deplorable results, that one of the chief principles of a Mechanics’ Institution should consist. In this world a great deal of the bitterness among us arises from an imperfect understanding of one another. Erect in Birmingham a great Educational Institution, properly educational; educational of the feelings as well as of the reason; to which all orders of Birmingham men contribute; in which all orders of Birmingham men meet; wherein all orders of Birmingham men are faithfully represented—and you will erect a Temple of Concord here which will be a model edifice to the whole of England. Contemplating as I do the existence of the Artisans’ Committee, which not long ago considered the establishment of the Institute so sensibly, and supported it so heartily, I earnestly entreat the gentlemen—earnest I know in the good work, and who are now among us,—by all means to avoid the great shortcoming of similar institutions; and in asking the working man for his confidence, to set him the great example and give him theirs in return. You will judge for yourselves if I promise too much for the working man, when I say that he will stand by such an enterprise with the utmost of his patience, his perseverance, sense, and support; that I am sure he will need no charitable aid or condescending patronage; but will readily and cheerfully pay for the advantages which it confers; that he will prepare himself in individual cases where he feels that the adverse circumstances around him have rendered it necessary; in a word, that he will feel his responsibility like an honest man, and will most honestly and manfully discharge it. I now proceed to the pleasant task to which I assure you I have looked forward for a long time. 35. Which word is most closely synonymous with the word patronage as it appears in the following statement? . . . that I am sure he will need no charitable aid or condescending patronage a. Auspices b. Aberration c . Acerbic d. Adulation 36. Which term is most closely aligned with the definition of the term working man as it is defined in the following passage? You will judge for yourselves if I promise too much for the working man, when I say that he will stand by such an enterprise with the utmost of his patience, his perseverance, sense, and support . . . a. Plebeian b. Viscount c. Entrepreneur d. Bourgeois 37. Which of the following statements most closely correlates with the definition of the term working man as it is defined in Question 36? a. A working man is not someone who works for institutions or corporations, but someone who is well versed in the workings of the soul. b. A working man is someone who is probably not involved in social activities because the physical demand for work is too high. c. A working man is someone who works for wages among the middle class. d. The working man has historically taken to the field, to the factory, and now to the screen. 38. Based upon the contextual evidence provided in the passage above, what is the meaning of the term enterprise in the third paragraph? a. Company b. Courage c. Game d. Cause 39. The speaker addresses his audience as My Good Friends—what kind of credibility does this salutation give to the speaker? a. The speaker is an employer addressing his employees, so the salutation is a way for the boss to bridge the gap between himself and his employees. b. The speaker’s salutation is one from an entertainer to his audience and uses the friendly language to connect to his audience before a serious speech. c. The salutation gives the serious speech that follows a somber tone, as it is used ironically. d. The speech is one from a politician to the public, so the salutation is used to grab the audience’s attention. 40. According to the aforementioned passage, what is the speaker’s second desire for his time in front of the audience? a. To read a Christmas story b. For the working man to have a say in his institution which is designed for his benefit c. To have an opportunity to stand in their presence d. For the life of the institution to be essential to the audience as a whole 41. In the table above, how many Heather Gray T-shirts were ordered in a size small in the month of January? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four 42. According to the table above, how many more shirts were ordered in size medium than size small in the month of January? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four 43. Which effective writing area engages and connects with the audience, igniting emotion? a. Ethos b. Logos c. Pathos d. Kairos 44. First-hand accounts of an event, subject matter, time period, or an individual are referred to as what type of source? a. Primary sources b. Secondary sources c. Direct sources d. Indirect sources 45. Conservative Politician: Social welfare programs are destroying our country. These programs are not only adding to the annual deficit, which increases the national debt, but they also discourage hard work. Our country must continue producing leaders who bootstrap their way to the top. None of our country's citizens truly need assistance from the government; rather, the assistance just makes things easier. Liberal Politician: Our great country is founded on the principle of hope. The country is built on the backs of immigrants who came here with nothing, except for the hope of a better life. Our country is too wealthy not to provide basic necessities for the less fortunate. Recent immigrants, single mothers, historically disenfranchised, disabled persons, and the elderly all require an ample safety net. What is the main point of dispute between the politicians? a. Spending on social welfare programs increases the national debt. b. Certain classes of people rely on social welfare programs to meet their basic needs. c. Certain classes of people would be irreparably harmed if the country failed to provide a social welfare program. d. All of the country's leaders have bootstrapped their way to the top. e. Immigrants founded the country. 46. In 1889, Jerome K. Jerome wrote a humorous account of a boating holiday. Originally intended as a chapter in a serious travel guide, the work became a prime example of a comic novel. Read the passage below, noting the word/words in italics. Answer the question that follows. I felt rather hurt about this at first; it seemed somehow to be a sort of slight. Why hadn’t I got housemaid’s knee? Why this invidious reservation? After a while, however, less grasping feelings prevailed. I reflected that I had every other known malady in the pharmacology, and I grew less selfish, and determined to do without housemaid’s knee. Gout, in its most malignant stage, it would appear, had seized me without my being aware of it; and zymosis I had evidently been suffering with from boyhood. There were no more diseases after zymosis, so I concluded there was nothing else the matter with me.— Jerome K. Jerome, Three Men in a Boat Which definition best fits the word zymosis? a. Discontent b. An infectious disease c. Poverty d. Bad luck 47. Which option best defines a fable? a. A melancholy poem lamenting its subject’s death b. An oral tradition influenced by culture c. A story with events that occur in threes and in sevens d. A short story with animals, fantastic creatures, or other forces within nature 48. Which phrase best completes the definition of a memoir? a. A historical account of a person’s life written by one who has intimate knowledge of the person’s life b. A historical account of a person’s life written by the person himself or herself c. A fictional account about a famous person d. A nonfictional account about a famous person without factual reference This excerpt is adaptation from The Life-Story of Insects, by Geo H. Carpenter. Insects as a whole are preeminently creatures of the land and the air. This is shown not only by the possession of wings by a vast majority of the class, but by the mode of breathing to which reference has already been made, a system of branching air-tubes carrying atmospheric air with its combustion- supporting oxygen to all the insect's tissues. The air gains access to these tubes through a number of paired air-holes or spiracles, arranged segmentally in series. It is of great interest to find that, nevertheless, a number of insects spend much of their time under water. This is true of not a few in the perfect winged state, as for example aquatic beetles and water-bugs ('boatmen' and 'scorpions') which have some way of protecting their spiracles when submerged, and, possessing usually the power of flight, can pass on occasion from pond or stream to upper air. But it is advisable in connection with our present subject to dwell especially on some insects that remain continually under water till they are ready to undergo their final moult and attain the winged state, which they pass entirely in the air. The preparatory instars of such insects are aquatic; the adult instar is aerial. All may-flies, dragon-flies, and caddis-flies, many beetles and two-winged flies, and a few moths thus divide their life-story between the water and the air. For the present we confine attention to the Stone-flies, the May-flies, and the Dragon-flies, three well- known orders of insects respectively called by systematists the Plecoptera, the Ephemeroptera and the Odonata. In the case of many insects that have aquatic larvae, the latter are provided with some arrangement for enabling them to reach atmospheric air through the surface-film of the water. But the larva of a stone-fly, a dragon-fly, or a may-fly is adapted more completely than these for aquatic life; it can, by means of gills of some kind, breathe the air dissolved in water. 49. Which statement best details the central idea in this passage? a. It introduces certain insects that transition from water to air. b. It delves into entomology, especially where gills are concerned. c. It defines what constitutes as insects’ breathing. d. It invites readers to have a hand in the preservation of insects. 50. Which definition most closely relates to the usage of the word moult in the passage? a. An adventure of sorts, especially underwater b. Mating act between two insects c. The act of shedding part or all of the outer shell d. Death of an organism that ends in a revival of life 51. What is the purpose of the first paragraph in relation to the second paragraph? a. The first paragraph serves as a cause and the second paragraph serves as an effect. b. The first paragraph serves as a contrast to the second. c. The first paragraph is a description for the argument in the second paragraph. d. The first and second paragraphs are merely presented in a sequence. 52. What does the following sentence most nearly mean? The preparatory instars of such insects are aquatic; the adult instar is aerial. a. The volume of water is necessary to prep the insect for transition rather than the volume of the air. b. The abdomen of the insect is designed like a star in the water as well as the air. c. The stage of preparation in between molting is acted out in the water, while the last stage is in the air. d. These insects breathe first in the water through gills, yet continue to use the same organs to breathe in the air. 53. Which of the statements reflect information that one could reasonably infer based on the author’s tone? a. The author’s tone is persuasive and attempts to call the audience to action. b. The author’s tone is passionate due to excitement over the subject and personal narrative. c. The author’s tone is informative and exhibits interest in the subject of the study. d. The author’s tone is somber, depicting some anger at the state of insect larvae. Mathematics 1. Which of the following is the result of simplifying the expression: b. c. d. 2. What is the product of two irrational numbers? a. Irrational b. Rational c. Irrational or rational d. Complex and imaginary 3. The graph shows the position of a car over a 10-second time interval. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the graph for the interval 1 to 3 seconds? a. The car remains in the same position. b. The car is traveling at a speed of 5m/s. c. The car is traveling up a hill. d. The car is traveling at 5mph. 4. How is the number -4 classified? a. Real, rational, integer, whole, natural b. Real, rational, integer, natural c. Real, rational, integer d. Real, irrational 5. a. b. c. d. 6. Five of six numbers have a sum of 25. The average of all six numbers is 6. What is the sixth number? a. 8 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12 7. 4.67 miles is equivalent to how many kilometers to three significant digits? a. 7.514 km b. 7.51 km c. 2.90 km d. 2.902 km 8. If , then n is between: a. 5 and 7 b. 7 and 9 c. 9 and 11 d. 3 and 5 9. A closet is filled with red, blue, and green shirts. If of the shirts are green and are red, what fraction of the shirts are blue? a. b. c. d. 10. Shawna buys gallons of paint. If she uses of it on the first day, how much does she have left? a. gallons b. gallons c. gallons d. gallons 11. How will be written as a percent? a. 40% b. 125% c. 90% d. 80% 12. What are all the factors of 12? a. 12, 24, 36 b. 1, 2, 4, 6, 12 c. 12, 24, 36, 48 d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12 13. At the beginning of the day, Xavier has 20 apples. At lunch, he meets his sister Emma and gives her half of his apples. After lunch, he stops by his neighbor Jim’s house and gives him 6 of his apples. He then uses ¾ of his remaining apples to make an apple pie for dessert at dinner. At the end of the day, how many apples does Xavier have left? a. 4 b. 6 c. 2 d. 1 14. How will the number 847.89632 be written if rounded to the nearest hundredth? a. 847.90 b. 900 c. 847.89 d. 847.896 15. What is the value of the sum of and ? a. b. c. d. 16. Add and express in reduced form . a. 9/17 b. 1/3 c. 31/36 d. 3/5 17. Divide and reduce . a. 52/27 b. 51/27 c. 52/29 d. 51/29 18. Express as a reduced mixed number . a. 3 3/5 b. 3 1/15 c. 3 3/54 d. 3 1/54 19. In the problem , which operation should be completed first? a. Multiplication b. Addition c. Division d. Subtraction 20. Express as an improper fraction . a. 11/7 b. 21/8 c. 5/3 d. 59/7 21. Express as an improper fraction . a. 55/8 b. 93/8 c. 16/11 d. 19/5 22. Round to the nearest tenth: 8.067 a. 8.07 b. 8.1 c. 8.00 d. 8.11 23. When rounding 245.2678 to the nearest thousandth, which place value would be used to decide whether to round up or round down? a. Ten-thousandth b. Thousandth c. Hundredth d. Thousand 24. What is the simplified form of the expression ? a. b. c. d. 25. You measure the width of your door to be 36 inches. The true width of the door is 35.75 inches. What is the relative error in your measurement? a. 0.7% b. 0.007% c. 0.99% d. 0.1% 26. The phone bill is calculated each month using the equation . The cost of the phone bill per month is represented by and represents the gigabytes of data used that month. What is the value and interpretation of the slope of this equation? a. 75 dollars per day b. 75 gigabytes per day c. 50 dollars per day d. 50 dollars per gigabyte 27. Mom’s car drove 72 miles in 90 minutes. How fast did she drive in feet per second? a. 0.8 feet per second b. 48.9 feet per second c. 0.009 feet per second d. 70. 4 feet per second 28. b. c. d. 29. Twenty is 40% of what number? a. 50 b. 8 c. 200 d. 5000 30. Which equation is not a function? a. b. c. d. 31. What is the domain for the function ? a. All real numbers b. c. d. 32. Jessica buys 10 cans of paint. Red paint costs $1 per can and blue paint costs $2 per can. In total, she spends $16. How many red cans did she buy? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 33. Which of the following is NOT a way to write 40 percent of N? a. b. c. d. 34. Four people split a bill. The first person pays for , the second person pays for , and the third person pays for . What fraction of the bill does the fourth person pay? a. b. c. d. 35. 6 is 30% of what number? a. 18 b. 20 c. 24 d. 26 36. a. 0.00523 b. 0.0523 c. 0.523 d. 523 Science 1. A scientist is trying to determine how much poison will kill a rat the fastest. Which of the following statements is an example of an appropriate hypothesis? a. Rats that are given lots of poison seem to die quickly. b. Does the amount of poison affect how quickly the rat dies? c. The more poison a rat is given, the quicker it will die. d. Poison is fatal to rats. 2. In testing how quickly a rat dies by the amount of poison it eats, which of the following is the independent variable and which is the dependent variable? a. How quickly the rat dies is the independent variable; the amount of poison is the dependent variable. b. The amount of poison is the independent variable; how quickly the rat dies is the dependent variable. c. Whether the rat eats the poison is the independent variable; how quickly the rat dies is the dependent variable. d. The cage the rat is kept in is the independent variable; the amount of poison is the dependent variable. 3. Which of the following is a representation of a natural pattern or occurrence that’s difficult or impossible to experience directly? a. A theory b. A model c. A law d. An observation 4. Which of the following is a standard or series of standards to which the results from an experiment are compared? a. A control b. A variable c. A constant d. Collected data 5. “This flower is dead; someone must have forgotten to water it.” This statement is an example of which of the following? a. A classification b. An observation c. An inference d. A collection 6. Which of the following correctly displays 8,600,000,000,000 in scientific notation (to two significant figures)? a. 8.6 x 1012 b. 8.6 x 10-12 c. 8.6 x 1011 d. 8.60 x 1012 7. The acceleration of a falling object due to gravity has been proven to be 9.8 m/s2. A scientist drops a cactus four times and measures the acceleration with an accelerometer and gets the following results: 9.79 m/s2, 9.81 m/s2, 9.80 m/s2, and 9.78 m/s2. Which of the following accurately describes the measurements? a. They’re both accurate and precise. b. They’re accurate but not precise. c. They’re precise but not accurate. d. They’re neither accurate nor precise. 8. What is the molarity of a solution made by dissolving 4.0 grams of NaCl into enough water to make 120 mL of solution? The atomic mass of Na is 23.0 g/mol and Cl is 35.5 g/mol. a. 0.34 M b. 0.57 M c. 0.034 M d. 0.057 M 9. Considering a gas in a closed system, at a constant volume, what will happen to the temperature if the pressure is increased? a. The temperature will stay the same b. The temperature will decrease c. The temperature will increase d. It cannot be determined with the information given 10. What type of chemical reaction produces a salt? a. An oxidation reaction b. A neutralization reaction c. A synthesis reaction d. A decomposition reaction 11. What types of molecules can move through a cell membrane by passive transport? a. Complex sugars b. Non-lipid soluble molecules c. Oxygen d. Molecules moving from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration 12. What is ONE feature that both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have in common? a. A plasma membrane b. A nucleus enclosed by a membrane c. Organelles d. A nucleoid 13. What is the LAST phase of mitosis? a. Prophase b. Telophase c. Anaphase d. Metaphase 14. How many daughter cells are formed from one parent cell during meiosis? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four 15. Which level of protein structure is defined by the folds and coils of the protein’s polypeptide backbone? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary 16. What is the sensory threshold? a. The smallest amount of stimulus required for an individual to feel a sensation b. The amount of stimulus required for an individual to feel pain c. The amount of stimulus required to cause an individual to move away from the stimulus d. The place where the stimulus is coming from 17. How many neurons generally make up a sensory pathway? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 18. In which part of the eye does visual processing begin? a. Cornea b. Optic nerve c. Retina d. Eyelid 19. What type of vessel carries oxygen-rich blood from the heart to other tissues of the body? a. Veins b. Intestines c. Bronchioles d. Arteries 20. The somatic nervous system is responsible for which of the following? a. Breathing b. Thought c. Movement d. Fear 21. The process of breaking large molecules into smaller molecules to provide energy is known as which of the following? a. Metabolism b. Bioenergetics c. Anabolism d. Catabolism 22. Which blood component is chiefly responsible for clotting? a. Platelets b. Red blood cells c. Antigens d. Plasma cells 23. Which is the first event to happen in a primary immune response? a. Macrophages phagocytose pathogens and present their antigens. b. Neutrophils aggregate and act as cytotoxic, nonspecific killers of pathogens. c. B lymphocytes make pathogen-specific antibodies. d. Helper T cells secrete interleukins to activate pathogen-fighting cells. 24. Where does sperm maturation take place in the male reproductive system? a. Seminal vesicles b. Prostate gland c. Epididymis d. Vas Deferens 25. Which of the following lists of joint types is in the correct order for increasing amounts of permitted motion (least mobile to most mobile)? a. Hinge, condyloid, saddle b. Saddle, hinge, condyloid c. Saddle, condyloid, hinge d. Hinge, saddle, condyloid 26. The function of synergists can best be described as which of the following? I. They assist primary movers in completing the specific movement II. They stabilize the point of origin and provide extra pull near the insertion III. They help prevent unwanted movement at a joint a. I, II b. I, III c. II, III d. All of the above 27. What makes bone resistant to shattering? a. The calcium salts deposited in the bone b. The collagen fibers c. The bone marrow and network of blood vessels d. The intricate balance of minerals and collagen fibers 28. How do organisms maintain homeostasis? a. They increase their body temperature, blood pH, and fluid balance. b. They undergo biochemical processes and absorb energy to increase entropy. c. They undergo biochemical processes to maintain the order of their external environment. d. They use free energy and matter via biochemical processes to work against entropy. 29. Which of the following correctly lists the four properties that all types of muscle tissue share? a. Contractile, excitable, elastic, extensible b. Contractile, voluntary, elastic, extensible c. Contractile, excitable, voluntary, extensible d. Contractile, excitable, elastic, voluntary 30. Which of the following about the autonomic nervous system (ANS) is true? a. It controls the reflex arc b. It contains motor (efferent) neurons c. It contains sensory (afferent) neurons d. It contains both parasympathetic nerves and sympathetic nerves 31. What is the function of the sinuses? a. To trap the many airborne pathogens b. To direct air down the trachea rather than the esophagus c. To warm, humidify, and filter air d. To sweep away pathogens and direct them toward the top of the trachea 32. Which of the following structures acts like a funnel by delivering the urine from the millions of the collecting tubules to the ureters? a. The renal pelvis b. The renal cortex c. The renal medulla d. Bowman’s capsule 33. Which of the following is the body cavity that contains the urinary bladder, urethra, and ureters? a. The thoracic cavity b. The pelvic cavity c. The abdominal cavity d. The spinal cavity 34. Which of the following best defines the term amphoteric? a. A substance that conducts electricity due to ionization when dissolved in a solvent b. A substance that can act as an acid or a base depending on the properties of the solute c. A substance that, according to the Brønsted-Lowry Acid-Base Theory, is a proton-donor d. A substance that donates its proton and forms its conjugate base in a neutralization reaction 35. Which of the following touch receptors respond to light touch and slower vibrations? a. Merkel's discs b. Pacinian corpuscles c. Meissner’s corpuscles d. Ruffini endings 36. Nociceptors detect which of the following? a. Deep pressure b. Vibration c. Pain d. Temperature 37. A cluster of capillaries that functions as the main filter of the blood entering the kidney is known as which of the following? a. The Bowman’s capsule b. The Loop of Henle c. The glomerulus d. The nephron 38. What is an alteration in the normal gene sequence called? a. DNA mutation b. Gene migration c. Polygenetic inheritance d. Incomplete dominance 39. Blood type is a trait determined by multiple alleles, and two of them are co-dominant: IA codes for A blood and IB codes for B blood. i codes for O blood and is recessive to both. If an A heterozygote individual and an O individual have a child, what is the probably that the child will have A blood? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100% 40. Which of the choices below are the reproductive cells produced by meiosis? a. Genes b. Alleles c. Chromatids d. Gametes 41. What is the process of cell division in somatic (most body) cells called? a. Mitosis b. Meiosis c. Respiration d. Cytogenesis 42. When human cells divide by meiosis, how many chromosomes do the resulting cells contain? a. 96 b. 54 c. 46 d. 23 43. What is the name for the sac-shaped structures in which carbon dioxide and oxygen exchange takes place? a. Kidneys b. Medulla oblongata c. Alveoli d. Bronchioles 44. What is the pathway of oxygenated blood from the lungs? a. Lungs to the left atrium, through the mitral valve into the left ventricle, pumped into the aorta upon contraction, then dispersed to tissues via a network of arteries and capillaries b. Lungs to the right atrium, through the mitral valve into the right ventricle, pumped into the aorta upon contraction, then dispersed to tissues via a network of arteries and veins c. Lungs to the left atrium, directly to the right aorta, then dispersed to tissues via a network of arteries and capillaries d. Lungs to the left atrium, through the septum valve, stored in the left ventricles, then dispersed to tissues via a network of arteries and capillaries 45. Which structure serves as the electrical stimulator of the cardiac muscle? a. The sinoatrial node b. The left ventricle c. The aorta d. The tricuspid valve 46. The primary function of the endocrine system is to maintain which of the following? a. Heartbeat b. Respiration c. Electrolyte and water balance d. Homeostasis 47. Which of the following organs functions both as an endocrine and exocrine gland? a. The kidney b. The spleen c. The pancreas d. The stomach 48. How many grams of solid CaCO3 are needed to make 600 mL of a 0.35 M solution? The atomic masses for the elements are as follows: Ca = 40.07 g/mol; C = 12.01 g/mol; O = 15.99 g/mol. a. 18.3 g b. 19.7 g c. 21.0 g d. 24.2 g 49. How many mL (to the appropriate number of significant figures) of a 12.0 M stock solution of HCl should be added to water to create 250 mL of a 1.50 M solution of HCl? a. 31.25 mL b. 32 mL c. 30 mL d. 31.3 mL 50. With which genotype would the recessive phenotype appear, if the dominant allele is marked with “A” and the recessive allele is marked with “a”? a. AA b. aa c. Aa d. aA 51. What is the name for the structural and functional units that create and transport urine, located in the cortex of the kidney? a. Glomerulus b. Nephrons c. Loops of Henle d. Distal tubules 52. The muscular tube that connects the outer surface to the cervix in a woman’s birth canal is referred to as which of the following? a. The uterus b. The cervix c. The vagina d. The ovaries 53. Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for regulating metabolism? a. Insulin b. Testosterone c. Adrenaline d. Thyroid hormone English and Language Usage 1. What is the structure of the following sentence? The restaurant is unconventional because it serves both Chicago style pizza and New York style pizza. a. Simple b. Compound c. Complex d. Compound-complex 2. The following sentence contains what kind of error? This summer, I’m planning to travel to Italy, take a Mediterranean cruise, going to Pompeii, and eat a lot of Italian food. a. Parallelism b. Sentence fragment c. Misplaced modifier d. Subject-verb agreement 3. The following sentence contains what kind of error? Forgetting that he was supposed to meet his girlfriend for dinner, Anita was mad when Fred showed up late. a. Parallelism b. Run-on sentence c. Misplaced modifier d. Subject-verb agreement 4. The following sentence contains what kind of error? Some workers use all their sick leave, other workers cash out their leave. a. Parallelism b. Comma splice c. Sentence fragment d. Subject-verb agreement 5. A student writes the following in an essay: Protestors filled the streets of the city. Because they were dissatisfied with the government’s leadership. Which of the following is an appropriately-punctuated correction for this sentence? a. Protestors filled the streets of the city, because they were dissatisfied with the government’s leadership. b. Protesters, filled the streets of the city, because they were dissatisfied with the government’s leadership. c. Because they were dissatisfied with the government’s leadership protestors filled the streets of the city. d. Protestors filled the streets of the city because they were dissatisfied with the government’s leadership. 6. What is the part of speech of the underlined word in the sentence? We need to come up with a fresh approach to this problem. a. Noun b. Verb c. Adverb d. Adjective 7. What is the part of speech of the underlined word in the sentence? Investigators conducted an exhaustive inquiry into the accusations of corruption. a. Noun b. Verb c. Adverb d. Adjective 8. The underlined portion of the sentence is an example of which sentence component? New students should report to the student center. a. Dependent clause b. Adverbial phrase c. Adjective clause d. Noun phrase 9. What is the noun phrase in the following sentence? Charlotte’s new German shepherd puppy is energetic. a. Puppy b. Charlotte c. German shepherd puppy d. Charlotte’s new German shepherd puppy 10. Which word choices will correctly complete the sentence? Increasing the price of bus fares has had a greater [affect / effect] on ridership [then / than] expected. a. affect; then b. affect; than c. effect; then d. effect; than 11. While studying vocabulary, a student notices that the words circumference, circumnavigate, and circumstance all begin with the prefix circum–. The student uses her knowledge of affixes to infer that all of these words share what related meaning? a. Around, surrounding b. Travel, transport c. Size, measurement d. Area, location 12. The following is an example of what type of sentence? Although I wished it were summer, I accepted the change of seasons, and I started to appreciate the fall. a. Compound b. Simple c. Complex d. Compound-Complex 13. A student reads the following sentence: A hundred years ago, automobiles were rare, but now cars are ubiquitous. However, she doesn’t know what the word ubiquitous means. Which key context clue is essential to decipher the word’s meaning? a. Ago b. Cars c. Now d. Rare Read the selection about travelling in an RV and answer Questions 14-20. 1 I have to admit that when my father bought a recreational vehicle (RV), I thought he was making a huge mistake. I didn’t really know anything about RVs, but I knew that my dad was as big a “city slicker” as there was. (14) In fact, I even thought he might have gone a little bit crazy. On trips to the beach, he preferred to swim at the pool, and whenever he went hiking, he avoided touching any plants for fear that they might be poison ivy. Why would this man, with an almost irrational fear of the outdoors, want a 40-foot camping behemoth? 2 (15) The RV was a great purchase for our family and brought us all closer together. Every morning (16) we would wake up, eat breakfast, and broke camp. We laughed at our own comical attempts to back The Beast into spaces that seemed impossibly small. (17) We rejoiced as “hackers.” When things inevitably went wrong and we couldn’t solve the problems on our own, we discovered the incredible helpfulness and friendliness of the RV community. (18) We even made some new friends in the process. 3 (19) Above all, it allowed us to share adventures. While travelling across America, which we could not have experienced in cars and hotels. Enjoying a campfire on a chilly summer evening with the mountains of Glacier National Park in the background, or waking up early in the morning to see the sun rising over the distant spires of Arches National Park are memories that will always stay with me and our entire family. (20)Those are also memories that my siblings and me have now shared with our own children. 14. Which of the following would be the best choice for this sentence? a. Leave it where it is now. b. Move the sentence so that it comes before the preceding sentence. c. Move the sentence to the end of the first paragraph. d. Omit the sentence. 15. a. NO CHANGE b. Not surprisingly, the RV c. Furthermore, the RV d. As it turns out, the RV 16. a. NO CHANGE b. we would wake up, eat breakfast, and break camp. c. would we wake up, eat breakfast, and break camp? d. we are waking up, eating breakfast, and breaking camp. 17. a. NO CHANGE b. To a nagging problem of technology, we rejoiced as “hackers.” c. We rejoiced when we figured out how to “hack” a solution to a nagging technological problem. d. To “hack” our way to a solution, we had to rejoice. 18. a. NO CHANGE b. In the process was the friends we were making. c. We are even making some new friends in the process. d. We will make new friends in the process. 19. a. NO CHANGE b. Above all, it allowed us to share adventures while traveling across America c. Above all, it allowed us to share adventures; while traveling across America d. Above all, it allowed us to share adventures—while traveling across America 20. a. NO CHANGE b. Those are also memories that me and my siblings c. Those are also memories that my siblings and I d. Those are also memories that I and my siblings Read the following section about Fred Hampton and answer Questions 21- 28. 1 Fred Hampton desired to see lasting social change for African American people through nonviolent means and community recognition. (21) In the meantime, he became an African American activist during the American Civil Rights Movement and led the Chicago chapter of the Black Panther Party. Hampton’s Education 2 Hampton was born and raised (22) in Maywood of Chicago, Illinois in 1948. Gifted academically and a natural athlete, he became a stellar baseball player in high school. (23) After graduating from Proviso East High School in 1966, he later went on to study law at Triton Junior College. While studying at Triton, Hampton joined and became a leader of the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP). As a result of his leadership, the NAACP gained more than 500 members. Hampton worked relentlessly to acquire recreational facilities in the neighborhood and improve the educational resources provided to the impoverished black community of Maywood. The Black Panthers 3 The Black Panther Party (BPP) (24) was another that formed around the same time as and was similar in function to the NAACP. Hampton was quickly attracted to the (25) Black Panther Party’s approach to the fight for equal rights for African Americans. Hampton eventually joined the chapter and relocated to downtown Chicago to be closer to its headquarters. 4 His charismatic personality, organizational abilities, sheer determination, and rhetorical skills (26) enable him to quickly rise through the chapter’s ranks. Hampton soon became the leader of the Chicago chapter of the BPP where he organized rallies, taught political education classes, and established a free medical clinic. (27) He also took part in the community police supervision project. He played an instrumental role in the BPP breakfast program for impoverished African American children. 5 Hampton’s (28) greatest acheivement as the leader of the BPP may be his fight against street gang violence in Chicago. In 1969, Hampton held a press conference where he made the gangs agree to a nonaggression pact known as the Rainbow Coalition. As a result of the pact, a multiracial alliance between blacks, Puerto Ricans, and poor youth was developed. 21. a. NO CHANGE b. Unfortunately, c. Finally, d. As a result, 22. a. NO CHANGE b. in Maywood, of Chicago, Illinois in 1948. c. in Maywood of Chicago, Illinois, in 1948. d. in Chicago, Illinois of Maywood in 1948. 23. Which of these sentences, if any, should begin a new paragraph? a. There should be no new paragraph. b. After graduating from Proviso East High School in 1966, he later went on to study law at Triton Junior College. c. While studying at Triton, Hampton joined and became a leader of the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP). d. As a result of his leadership, the NAACP gained more than 500 members. 24. Which of the following facts would be the most relevant to include here? a. NO CHANGE; best as written b. was another activist group that c. had a lot of members that d. was another school that 25. a. NO CHANGE b. Black Panther Parties approach c. Black Panther Partys’ approach d. Black Panther Parties’ approach 26. a. NO CHANGE b. are enabling him to quickly rise c. enabled him to quickly rise d. will enable him to quickly rise 27. a. NO CHANGE b. He also took part in the community police supervision project but played an instrumental role c. He also took part in the community police supervision project, he played an instrumental role d. He also took part in the community police supervision project and played an instrumental role 28. Which of these, if any, is misspelled? a. None of these are misspelled. b. greatest c. acheivement d. leader [Show More]

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