NASM Exam Prep Questions & Answers.

NASM Exam: Study Guide Answered. Which of the following describes a split routine in a resistance training program? a. It allows for the use of two exercises for antagonistic muscles within one set. b. It allows ...

NASM Exam: Study Guide Answered. Which of the following describes a split routine in a resistance training program? a. It allows for the use of two exercises for antagonistic muscles within one set. b. It allows for the use of multiple sets for each exercise. c. It is a way of training that splits the day into two separate workouts. d. It is a way of training that works different body parts on different days. Which of the following should a trainer share with a client regarding carbohydrate intake and weight gain? a. Limit complex carbohydrate intake to prevent weight gain. b. Excess intake of any nutrient will cause weight gain. c. Increase fat intake to offset a decrease in carbohydrates. Incorrect d. Increase intake of high glycemic foods. When manually monitoring a client's heart rate, the trainer counts 17 beats in 6 seconds. Which of the following is the client's pulse rate? a. 85 b. 104 c. 117 d. 170 To avoid muscle strains, joint pain, and emotional fatigue, which of the following concepts should be implemented? a. Periodization b. Mechanical specificity c. Neuromuscular specificity d. Vertical loading Which of the following is the correct repetition range for the stabilization level of the OPT Model? a. 12-20 b. 1-10 c. 1-12 d. 20-25 During the overhead squat assessment, the trainer notices the client's feet turn out. Which of the following stretches should the trainer employ to lengthen the overactive muscles? a. Kneeling hip flexor b. Standing calf c. Standing adductor d. Standing quadriceps A client's shoulders elevate during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles may be underactive? a. Levator scapulae b. Latissimus dorsi c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Mid and lower trapezius Which of the following occurs at the shoulder while it is moving in the frontal plane? a. Flexion b. Abduction c. Extension d. External rotation What is a negative side effect associated with the chronic use of a high protein, low carbohydrate diet? a. A high protein diet is typically associated with higher intake of unsaturated fat and fiber which are risk factors for heart disease. b. A high protein diet will require less water consumption for metabolism than is needed by carbohydrates or fat. c. A high protein diet will increase glycogen stores which can lead to decreases in performance. d. A high protein diet will cause the kidneys to work harder to eliminate the increased urea produced. The client is ready to progress from Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance to Phase 2. Which of the following best describes the exercise order for the resistance training (body parts) portion of her workout? a. Stabilization superset with strength b. Strength superset with power c. Power superset with strength d. Strength superset with stabilization If a client demonstrates shoulder elevation while performing a cable row exercise, which of the following muscles is considered overactive? a. Rhomboids b. Latissimus dorsi c. Upper trapezius d. Erector spinae The principle that states the body will adapt to the demands that are placed upon it is called the principle of a. periodization. b. efficiency. c. overload. d. specificity. When performing a _____, the resistance must be placed in such a way to resist elbow extension. a. standing triceps extension b. biceps curl c. standing cable chest press d. dumbbell chest press When talking to a client, conversational techniques that express the purported meaning of what was just heard are referred to as a. reflections. b. affirmations. c. compliments. d. judgments. hich of the following is a connective tissue? a. Blood Vessel b. Tendon c. Hypothalamus d. Myocardium Which of the following is contraindicated when training a client who is pregnant? a. Fitness assessments should be performed using seated or standing exercises. b. Stabilization Endurance Training should be done during the second and third trimesters c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester. d. Plyometric training should be done in the first trimester. Which of the following muscles would be underactive when the arms fall forward during an overhead squat? a. Levator scapulae b. Rhomboids c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Upper trapezius Which of the following terms refers to the elevation of the body's metabolism after exercise? a. RER b. EPOC c. HRR d. RPE Which of the following contributes to rapid weight loss when consuming a low carbohydrate diet? a. Increase in waste excretion b. Loss of body fat c. Increase in metabolism d. Loss of water A client cannot perform a full prone iso-ab (plank) exercise, which of the following would be an appropriate regression? a. Perform prone iso-ab with knees on floor. b. Perform prone iso-ab with feet on stability ball. c. Perform a back extension. d. Perform a stability ball crunch. Dehydration affects the body by increasing a. blood volume. b. performance. c. heart rate. d. sweat rate. All of the following make up the five kinetic chain checkpoints EXCEPT the a. foot-ankle complex. b. lumbo-pelvic hip complex. c. shoulder complex. d. hand-wrist complex If a client's knee moves inward while performing the Single-leg Squat test, this is an indication that which of the following muscles is overactive? a. Adductor longus b. Vastus medialis oblique c. Gluteus maximus d. Piriformis A synergist taking over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover is known as what? a. Autogenic inhibition b. Synergistic dominance c. Anthokinetic dysfunction d. Altered reciprocal inhibition Which of the following should a trainer consider when designing a resistance training program for seniors? a. Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8 to 10 exercises. b. Phase 1 of the OPT model should be used for 4 weeks before moving to Phases 2 through 5. c. Phase 5 of the OPT model is contraindicated for senior clients due to increased safety considerations. d. Training frequencies should start at 4 to 5 times per week. Which of the following information is considered objective? Select one: a. Occupation b. Lifestyle behavior c. Recreational activity d. Movement assessment Which of the following vitamins and minerals are known to have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements? Select one: a. Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc b. Vitamin B, vitamin C, folic acid, and biotin c. Beta-Carotene, vitamin E, vitamin K, and niacin d. Iodine, magnesium, copper, and fluoride Which of the following statements indicates that your client has successfully implemented a SMART goal? Select one: a. "I want to lose weight and trim down." b. "I want to build muscle and bulk up." c. "I want the ability to climb the stairs without getting winded." d. "I want to run a 5k in 45 days." "From our discussion, I understand that your primary goal is to lose 10 pounds in the next 2 months. Is that correct?" This statement is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. Nondirective question b. Close-ended question c. Invitational question d. Probing question In the Maximal Strength Training (MST) phase, what should be the primary emphasis in the client's program? Select one: a. Powerful movements b. Joint stabilization c. Increasing hypertrophy d. Increasing load How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost? Select one: a. 6 to 12 ounces b. 16 to 24 ounces c. 24 to 32 ounces d. 32 to 48 ounces When a client performs reactive exercises in the stabilization level of training, they should hold the landing position for how many seconds before repeating the movement? Select one: a. 1 to 2 seconds b. 3 to 5 seconds c. 6 to 7 seconds d. 8 to 10 seconds Personal trainers have a maximum of how many seconds to make a good first impression? Select one: a. 10 seconds b. 15 seconds c. 20 seconds d. 30 seconds Which of the following is part of the marketing mix? Select one: a. Prominence b. Public c. Place d. Professionalism During which part of the digestion process are protein strands broken down? Select one: a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestines d. Esophagus Which of the following is a power level balance exercise? Select one: a. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization b. Single-leg throw and catch c. Single-leg internal and external rotation d. Single-leg squat touchdown Which of the following is an expected systolic blood pressure for a healthy client? Select one: a. 80 mm Hg b. 95 mm Hg c. 120 mm Hg d. 135 mm Hg A client's maximum heart rate must be established prior to administering the 3-Minute Step Test. This is achieved by: Select one: a. using the formula: 208 - (0.7 x age) b. subtracting age from 208 c. using the formula: 0.7 x (208 ge) d. using the formula: 220 x (0.7 x age) Which of the five principles of goal setting focuses on establishing goals that are challenging but not extreme? Select one: a. Attainable b. Realistic c. Specific d. Timely Which of the following is an example of an appropriate spotting technique? Select one: a. Spot at the client's elbows when performing a barbell exercise. b. The spotter should grab the handles on a machine-based exercise. c. When spotting a barbell squat, the spotter should stand in front of the client. d. The spotter should spot at the wrists when clients are performing a dumbbell exercise. Which of the following is an appropriate number of exercises per body part per session for a client who has the goal of muscular hypertrophy? Select one: a. 1 to 2 b. 2 to 4 c. 4 to 6 d. 6 to 10 Which of the following is a component of the sliding filament theory? Select one: a. The result of two Z lines moving together b. The sarcomere lengthening c. The actin filament attaches to myosin head d. The muscle fiber triggers the release of calcium What is the FIRST step a fitness professional should take when coming across an emergency situation that will require CPR? Select one: a. Activate the EMS system b. Check the scene for hazards c. Open the airway d. Check for circulation Under which of the following conditions is it appropriate for an adult client to follow an 800-1000 calorie diet? Select one: a. Under the supervision of a Certified Personal Trainer b. Under the supervision of a medical professional c. Under the supervision of a nutritionist d. Under the supervision of a Performance Enhancement Specialist Which of the following statements is true concerning client goal setting? Select one: a. Clients who are certain about what they want to accomplish are less likely to successfully make life changes. b. A long-term goal keeps the client motivated for a longer period of time. c. Setting achievable goals at the lower end of a client's ability will build more confidence when accomplished. d. Goals should be consistent with a client's own ideals and ambitions. A client who has an increased functional capacity to adapt to a stressor is in which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. Resistance development b. Alarm reaction c. Exhaustion d. Periodization Based on the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans, which of the following is the recommended weekly cumulative amount of time for moderate intensity aerobic activity? Select one: a. 75 minutes b. 90 minutes c. 120 minutes d. 150 minutes Which of the following is the system activated at the onset of any activity, regardless of intensity? Select one: a. EPOC b. ATP-PC c. Oxidative d. Glycolysis Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep maximum bench press estimation test? Select one: a. Your client fails after 8-12 repetitions. b. Your client fails after 1 repetition. c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions. d. Your client fails right before their arms straighten. During an overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates an excessive anterior pelvic tilt. Which of the following muscles is considered shortened? Select one: a. Bicep femoris b. Piriformis c. Transverse abdominus d. Latissimus dorsi Feedback regarding personal history such as sport, lifestyle, and past medical history would be best described as Select one: a. objective information. b. subjective information. c. movement assessment. d. fitness assessment. Based on squat assessment findings, if a client exhibits knees moving inward, which phase of flexibility training is recommended? Select one: a. Abductor static stretch b. Adductor static stretch c. Piriformis foam roller d. Psoas foam roller A client has mastered the single leg squat on the floor. Which of the following is a proprioceptive and challenging progression? Select one: a. Single-leg squat on an Airex pad b. Two-leg squat on floor c. Two-leg squat on Dyna disc d. Single-leg squat on a Dyna disc Which of the following is the third step in the Stages of Change model? Select one: a. Action b. Precontemplation c. Contemplation d. Preparation When assessing an overhead squat, an indication of relative flexibility due to tightness in the lateral gastrocnemius is Select one: a. the knees moving inward. b. external rotation of the feet. c. excessive forward lean. d. low back arches. The ability to react and change body position with maximum rate of force production in all planes of motion and from all body positions during functional activities is Select one: a. power. b. speed. c. quickness. d. agility. Which of the following muscles is part of the core local stabilization system? Select one: a. Transverse abdominis b. External oblique c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectineus Which of the following muscles is lengthened in Lower Crossed Syndrome? Select one: a. Psoas minor b. Rectus femoris c. Erector Spinae d. Transversus abdominis Which of the following is an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese? Select one: a. 20 to 30% of their maximum heart rate b. 30 to 40% of their maximum heart rate c. 60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate d. 85 to 95% of their maximum heart rate Which of the following is an example of a strength level resistance training exercise for legs? Select one: a. Multiplanar step-up to balance b. Single-leg squat c. Single-leg dead lift d. Multiplanar dumbbell step-up A client shows signs of obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension. The combination of these three symptoms are correlated with which of the following disorders? Select one: a. Metabolic Syndrome b. Restrictive Lung Disease c. Peripheral Edema Condition d. Coronary Heart Disease Which of the following core-training exercises is best for a new client? Select one: a. Ball Crunch b. Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw c. Reverse Crunch d. Prone Iso-ab Which one of the following exercises is classified as a balance strength exercise? Select one: a. Single-leg squat touchdown b. Single-leg lift and chop c. Single-leg balance and reach d. Single-leg hop with stabilization The Golgi tendon organ is an essential component of static stretching because Select one: a. it increases muscle spindle activity. b. it results in reciprocal inhibition. c. it allows muscle fibers to contract. d. it allows lengthening of the muscle. Which of the following muscles is the prime mover when a client performs a row? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Posterior deltoid c. Pectoralis major d. Pectoralis minor A high-protein diet consisting of more than 30% of total caloric intake from protein is most likely associated with Select one: a. increased pulse rate. b. overworked kidneys. c. high cholesterol. d. low energy levels. Which of the following is the recommended rest interval when performing a circuit for phase 5 resistance training? Select one: a. 0 to 30 seconds b. 31 to 60 seconds c. 1 to 2 minutes d. 3 to 5 minutes Which of the following is a primary focus of stabilization training? Select one: a. Increased lean body mass b. Enhanced control of posture c. Improved peak force d. Improved prime mover strength How many times the heart beats per minute and how much blood is being pumped with each beat is known as: Select one: a. Stroke Volume b. Heart Rate c. Cardiac Output d. Expiration Which of the following dynamic flexibility distortion patterns will create abnormal stress throughout the kinetic chain? Select one: a. Eversion of the foot b. Neutrality of the umbo-pelvic-hip complex c. Patella tracking parallel with the foot d. Neutrality of the scapulae Which of the following is most useful for assessing an athlete's lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control? Select one: a. Shark skill test b. Davies test c. Rockport walk test d. Overhead squat assessment An active kneeling hip flexor stretch is an example of Select one: a. autogenic inhibition. b. reciprocal inhibition. c. altered reciprocal inhibition. d. synergistic dominance. Although quality and brand recognition are important, individuals ultimately purchase personal training services based on the desire to produce a meaningful outcome. Therefore, all buying decisions are based on Select one: a. price. b. knowledge. c. pressure. d. emotion. When assessing your clients resting heart rate, what location provides the most accurate measurement? Select one: a. Femoral Artery b. Subclavian Artery c. Radial Artery d. Brachial Artery A slow and controlled dumbbell chest press performed on a stability ball is an example of what type of specificity? Select one: a. Mechanical b. Balance c. Metabolic d. Neuromuscular To ensure proper front-side mechanics during sprinting, the ankle must be in a position of Select one: a. plantarflexion. b. eversion. c. dorsiflexion. d. inversion. When performing a _____, the resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction. Select one: a. standing triceps extension b. biceps curl c. standing cable row d. dumbbell chest press Davis's law states which of the following? Select one: a. A chronically shortened muscle will demonstrate poor neuromuscular efficiency. b. Soft tissue models along the lines of stress. c. A tight agonist muscle will decrease neural drive to its functional antagonist. d. The body will seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns. After completing the Three-Minute Step Test, a 20 year-old male scored in Heart Rate Zone 2. What is the correct heart rate range for when he does cardio training? Select one: a. 86% to 95% of HR max b. 76% to 85% of HR max c. 65% to 75% of HR max d. 55% to 60% of HR max In the Stabilization Endurance phase, exercises should be performed with which of the following types of intensity? Select one: a. High b. Low c. Maximal d. Moderate Which of the following muscles is the synergist when a client is performing a Chest Press? Select one: a. Anterior deltoid b. Rotator cuff c. Pectoralis major d. Levator scapulae Which of the following is the proper lower extremity position when performing a ball squat? Select one: a. Knee over second toe b. Adduction of the hip c. Pronation of the foot d. Internal rotation of the hip A series of exercises that is performed one after the other, with minimal rest, is referred to as what type of training system? Select one: a. Multiple set system b. Pyramid system c. Superset system d. Circuit training system Which of the following is a category of subjective information? Select one: a. Body composition b. Cardiorespiratory assessment c. Medical background d. Performance assessment Which of the following is the importance of active listening when engaging with a client? Select one: a. Providing the client with the right information b. Requiring the client to pay attention c. Convincing the client to do something d. Seeking a client's perspective Which of the following groups or sub-groups represents the fitness professional's PRIMARY responsibility? Select one: a. Fitness professional b. Public c. Employer d. Professional colleagues Which of the following ratings of perceived exertion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for a client wanting to improve their aerobic base? Select one: a. 9 to 11 b. 12 to 13 c. 14 to 16 d. 17 to 19 It is lawful for a Certified Personal Trainer who possesses no additional certifications or licensure to do which of the following? Select one: a. Massage a client b. Apply ultrasound to a client c. Design a nutrition plan for a client d. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client Which of the following should an endurance athlete consume 2-4 hours before exercising to ensure adequate stores of muscle glucose? Select one: a. Baked potato b. Oatmeal cookie c. Avocado d. Spinach Which of the following macronutrients should be consumed in the highest percentage for a healthy diet? Select one: a. Carbohydrate b. Fat c. Protein d. Water What percent of predicted heart rate maximum is used in zone two of cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. 56% to 65% b. 66% to 75% c. 76% to 85% d. 86% to 95% Which of the following muscles is underactive if a client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Psoas c. Latissimus dorsi d. Gluteus maximus Which of the following types of strength allows the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion? Select one: a. Postural b. Structural c. Functional d. Neuromuscular To maintain certification with NASM, the Certified Personal Trainer must earn Select one: a. 1 CEU within 2 years. b. 2 CEUs within 2 years. c. 3 CEUs within 3 years. d. 3 CEUs within 4 years. In which of the following situations should a certified trainer refer a client to a medical practitioner? Select one: a. When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed osteoporosis. b. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed diabetes. c. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed hypertension. d. When the trainer becomes aware of an undiagnosed allergy. Which of the following is a measuring site of the Durnin-Womersley formula? Select one: a. Calf b. Mid-axillary line c. Subscapular d. Thigh When a client practices self-myofascial release, which of the following physiological changes is the goal? Select one: a. An increase in joint receptor activity results in an inhibition of muscles around a joint. b. A decrease in neurotransmitter activity results in the contraction of a muscle. c. A decrease in muscle spindle cell activity results in the contraction of a muscle. d. An increase in Golgi tendon organ activity results in relaxation of a muscle. Which of the following should a trainer determine during the first step in the Ten Steps to Success? Select one: a. Weekly session needs b. Desired annual income c. Number of clients needed d. Closing percentage According to the NASM code of ethics, a certified trainer shall maintain accurate financial, contract appointments, and tax records including original receipts for a minimum of Select one: a. six months. b. twelve months. c. two years. d. four years. What is one of the methods for estimating a client's target heart rate? Select one: a. Height related maximum heart rate b. Davie's formula c. Karvonen Formula d. Prescriptive Heart Rate Formula