LOGC3 US Army Armor School Questions and Answers | Sustainment Terms and Principles, Sustainment Units and Capabilities, Sustainment relationships and managers, Unit movement planning, data, documentation, Capabilities of Motor Transport units

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A/DACG, In-transit visibility and container, Theater Distribution, Movement Control Team Operations, Tactical Sustainment (Brigade and Below), Tactical Sustainment (Brigade and Below), Principles of t... he Sustainment Warfighting Function, Petroleum and water operations, Food Service Operations, Aerial Delivery and Field Service capabilities, Battalion/Company mortuary affairs operations, Supply Support Activity (SSA) and warehouse, GCSS-Army army training, Implemented the CMDP, Maintenance Operations at the company level, Recovery Operations and BDAR, Maintenance and Support operations functions, Field Maintenance Site Selection, Conventional Ammunition Site Selection, Explosive Safety and Quantity Distance, Functions of Medical Support, Types and uses of ambulances, Aerial Evacuation, Evacuation Process, US Army Armor School - LOGC3: Questions and Answers Sustainment Terms and Principles Which sustainment commands are force pooled assets? What is Class V of supply? Which of the following areas of the Army Health System (AHS) includes the sub-function of hospitalization? What level of Army command can become an intermediate tactical headquarters (HQ) under the land component command? What service is responsible for opening and setting the theater? Which of the following is a consideration when sustaining forces in an offensive role? Which of the following is a task of human resources (HR)? What are the Army’s two levels of maintenance? What term describes the worldwide sector that facilitates research and development, as well as design of new military systems and equipment? What service provides worldwide cargo and passenger airlift? What service is responsible for port opening and operations? Which unit plans, integrates, and assesses the need for sustainment to Army Special Operations Forces (ARSOF)? Which of the following is a task of behavioral health and neuropsychiatric treatment? Which of the following is a function of Army transportation? Sustainment Units and Capabilities Combat sustainment support battalion (CSSBs) provide support on an __________ basis, and if directed, on a __________ support basis to various organizations. How is the battalion echelon of support often referred? The brigade support medical company (BSMC) has __________ cots for holding patients up to __________ hours. What is one platoon in the BSB distribution company? In addition to commanding the forward support company (FSC), what role does the FSC commander typically play at battalion level? What are some capabilities of the sustainment brigade headquarters (HQ)? What is the sustainment brigade designed to provide? What assistance can the combat sustainment support battalion (CSSB) provide to units within its area? While forward support companies (FSCs) are organic to the BSB, to what unit are they attached? What are some capabilities of the sustainment brigade? Based on the organization of the BSB, how many hours of self-sustained combat operations does the BSB ensure the brigade combat team (BCT) can conduct? Sustainment relationships and managers What is a commander’s role? Who serves as the Theater Sustainment Command (TSC) spokesperson? Which is a force health protection role that the Theater Sustainment Command (TSC) surgeon fills? Which branch of the G-3 assistant chief of staff (ACOS) is responsible for force accounting? Which of the following characteristics describes tactical control (TACON)? Which person in the brigade support battalion (BSB) headquarters company serves as quartering party noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)? What person provides vehicles and personnel for delivery of fuel to maneuver units? Which of the following characteristics describes operational control (OPCON)? Who advises the Theater Sustainment Command (TSC) commander on the impact of indigenous religious groups in the TSC area of operation (AO)? What person provides leadership for personnel that performs field maintenance for the organic wheeled vehicles? Unit movement planning, data, documentation What is the third step in the load planning cycle? Which of the 11 columns in the table in Chapter Three of TB 55-46-1 identifies a specific equipment model with a line item number (LIN)? Which of the 11 steps in assembling the unit deployment movement plan is to identify bulk cargo that needs to be moved and then develop packing lists? Which of the 11 columns in the table in Chapter Three of TB 55-46-1 contains the line item number (LIN) description? What is the first step in the load planning cycle? What is one way to determine the weight of military cargo? When is the unit's UMD required to be updated? Which of the 11 steps in assembling the unit deployment movement plan is to develop vehicle load plans for unit equipment? Which of the 11 columns in the table in Chapter Three of TB 55-46-1 indicates the number of pieces? Which of the 11 columns in the table in Chapter Three of TB 55-46-1 contains the table of organizational equipment (TOE) line item number (LIN)? Which of the 11 steps in assembling the unit deployment movement plan is to identify blocking, bracing, packing, crating, and tie-down (BBPCT) requirements? What is the most important thing to remember when planning cargo loads? Which of the 11 columns in the table in Chapter Three of TB 55-46-1 contains the line item number (LIN) description? What is the second step in the load planning cycle? Which of the 11 steps in assembling the unit deployment movement plan consists of identifying what needs to be moved? Which of the 11 columns in the table in Chapter Three of TB 55-46-1 indicates if whether a vehicle is roadable or non-roadable? Capabilities of Motor Transport units What class(es) of supply can a quartermaster supply company assigned to the CSSB deliver to units? What is one of the operational platoons in the forward support company (FSC)? The M977 heavy expanded mobility tactical truck (HEMTT) cargo has a crane near the rear of the truck. How much can it lift? What hand and arm signal includes these steps: start by raising both arms extended in front of the body, fingers and thumbs extended and joined, palms facing up then bend at the elbow bringing the palms toward the face? Which of the following is a capability of the M1088 5-ton medium tactical vehicle (MTV)? How many M1095 medium tactical vehicle (MTV) drop side trailers does the light/medium truck company have assigned? What hand and arm signal includes these steps: raise the right arm laterally with the elbow locked, fingers and thumb extended and joined, palm facing up then raise the arm until the hand is higher than the head? How many main categories of cargo trucks exist in the Army? What hand and arm signal includes these steps: start by raising the upper left arm horizontally and parallel to the ground, fingers and thumb extended and joined while keeping the upper arm horizontal, and bending it at the elbow? How many different types of the family of medium tactical vehicles (FMTV) does the Army use? How many transportation sections does an infantry brigade combat team (IBCT) have assigned to its brigade support battalion (BSB)? What hand and arm signal includes these steps: start by raising the upper right arm horizontally and parallel to the ground, fingers and thumb extended and joined while keeping the upper arm horizontal, and bending at the elbow? Which of the following is a characteristic of a sustainment brigade under normal circumstances? What hand and arm signal includes these steps: extend the arm to the side and bend it upward at the elbow then extend the index finger from the fist and rotate the hand slowly? What is the rating of the two armored duty winches that the M1089 wrecker is equipped with? What hand and arm signal includes these steps: extend both arms horizontally bending at the elbow bringing both hands in front of the body at chest level, fingers and thumbs extended and joined, palms facing down then lower both hands down to waist level? Rail Planning Which requirement involves the movement control team (MCT) personnel to inspect all railcars for serviceability before Units begin loading, and provide technical advice to units? Which of the following techniques are used when securing vehicles to chain-equipped flatcars? Which railcar component contains the wheel axles, wheel bearings, side bearings, brakes, and suspension for the railcar? Who is responsible for supervising and coordinating the rail operation? What element pertains to yard layout? Loading is conducted under the technical supervision of which officer Which of the following is a specific unit responsibility in CONUS rail planning? Which of the following is an OCONUS rail planning requirement? Who is responsible for performing a joint inspection with the installation transportation officer (ITO) after equipment is loaded and secured on the railcars? What are sidings use for? Because the railroads are privately owned, rail operation must meet whose requirements? Where is the major part of a flatcar? What is a wye interchange? Prior to loading, what specific vehicle preparation requirement must be performed? What is the preferred type of railcar for unit moves? Why are chain-equipped flatcars the preferred flatcars? Sidings, spur, and switch are all what type of tracks? Air load Planning Deliveries for which plane began in December of 1956? What form would you use to request an airlift or airdrop? Which aircraft can handle up to 128 combat troops, 92 paratroopers, or a combination of passengers and their cargo? What is different about requesting an immediate airdrop over a preplanned airdrop? You have six pallets you need to send to a different area of the theater. What is the maximum weight of each pallet allowed so that the C-130 Hercules can carry them all? Which aircraft has the ability to "kneel"? Which of the following describes intra-theater airlift? How many troops can the C-17 Globemaster III carry? Which of the following is a disadvantage to an airlift? Which of the following is a characteristic of the C-5 Galaxy? A/DACG This area is used to assemble, inspect, hold, and service aircraft loads. Control of the load is transferred from the individual unit to the A/DACG at this point. Which area of APOE operations is it? At the loading ramp area, what is the deploying unit troop commander responsible for? What is the primary purpose of a marshaling area? A series of local joint conferences are required during which phase for close coordination and to ensure a clear understanding of responsibilities? At the alert holding area, which group takes control? Which of the following support the air movement in the decision to deploy Air Mobility Command (AMC) is the U.S. Air Force (USAF) component of command of the U.S. Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM). What does AMC provide? What is the primary purpose for the unit marshaling area? What is an APOD? What takes place at the alert holding area in the APOD? Arriving units need to ensure they receive and retain shoring and dunnage for redeployment. In which area is this done? Who assumes control of all passengers listed for movement on the flight? Which of the following is the Navy component command of U.S. Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)? Which of the following is true about A/DACG? What is the primary role for the installation UMC? Which of the following is true about the A/DACG? At the alert holding area, which group takes control? Which agency has the mission to provide global land, sea and air transportation to deploy and sustain forces? This area has the joint responsibility of the contingency response element and the DACG, and is the location for the JI of deploy unit equipment and cargo. Which area of the APOE operations is it? In deployment, the A/DACG hands over control to the CRE. Which APOE operations area is it? In-transit visibility and container Which technology system provides information to other database and has several locations? What is the mission of the ITV? Which of the following is one of the most commonly used containers? Why is it important to get the container returned promptly? What does an owner code number include? Who is the first person to contact if containers are needed? Which technology system has a suite of tools for facilitating total asset visibility source data capture and transfer? Which technology system provides operators a means to remotely identify, categorize, and locate material automatically within relatively short distances? After how many years from the date of manufacture must a new container be inspected? Which agency is responsible for the worldwide Department of Defense (DoD) and other U.S. government procurements? What happens if the data plate is removed from a container? What inspections must be done for container serviceability like any other piece of equipment? Which technology system's overall goal is to have the capability to provide users with timely and accurate information on the location, movement, status, and identity of units, personnel, equipment, materiel, and supplies? What is the function of the tag docking station?. Which technology system is divided into two categories of date storage and retrieval systems, passive and active? Theater Distribution Which principle includes elements of control, visibility, and capacity? What is the responsibility of the distribution management center? With which of the following are Army theater logistics planners and leaders most likely to have contact? What is TD management? Which organization is a theater consolidated shipping point, also known as a container cross dock operation? Which of the following are components of the distribution pipeline? What is at the core of responsiveness? What is TD? Which of the following is included in TD management? Who provides the Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, other federal agencies, and combined and allied forces with the full spectrum of logistics, acquisition, and technical services? Who provides logistical support to conflicts, natural disasters, emergencies, mobilizations, and other contingency operations around the world? Which principle is defined as bypassing one or more nodes in the distribution system to minimize handling and increase speed of delivery? What do all of the principles of TD rely upon? TD management applies the principle of sustainment. Which of the following is a sustainment principle? What organization provides joint expeditionary capabilities? Materiel management is executed by which of the following? Which component represents the distribution functions normally performed by the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), United States Army Materiel Command (USAMC), and the Services? Which is the single manager for defense transportation? SDDC Movement Control Team Operations What is the component of the route synchronization plan that addresses reporting locations, procedures, and requirements? The MCT chief is often the same as which officer? What is the mission of the MCT operations? Which of the following are tracking shipment reports? Assigning convoy clearance numbers, issuing trip tickets, and road network intel are all included in which MCT task? What are the two actions required for the coordination of the use of main supply routes (MSRs)? Which of the following are steps involved in creating and assigning a transportation movement release (TMR)? Which component in the route synchronization plan includes identifying convoy planning factors? What is the first step to begin the route synchronization plan? What is the eighth and final component of the route synchronization plan that includes the distribution network design, convoy request forms, and addresses oversize and overweight requirements? Why were MCTs standardized under the modular army concept? What are the main uses for the journal that maintains a record of key information regarding an inbound or outbound shipments What is the next component in the route synchronization plan after we identify the procedures to be followed? What type of information is included in the daily installation situation report? Once we identify the mission and organizations that control routes, what is the third step in the route synchronization plan that pertains to how the plan will be implemented? Tactical Sustainment (Brigade and Below) What type of enablers are information on road nets, truck availability, rail nets, bridges, ports, cargo handlers, petroleum pipelines, and material handling equipment (MHE)? Which of the following is included in sustainment elements? Who is the coordinating staff officer for sustainment operations? What is an offensive task? What is achieved by concentrating overwhelming combat power against separate parts of a force rather than defeating the entire force at once? This brigade plans, prepares, executes, and assesses operations to provide close support, shaping, and decisive fires for the division. What brigade is it? What element encompasses all issues pertaining to the provision of clinical services for the treatment of Soldiers from the point of injury to successive roles of care? What type of enabler is subsistence items, bulk petroleum, and barrier materials often available in country? This person is the personal staff officer who serves as a confidential advisor to the commander on the spiritual fitness, ethical, and moral health of the command. Who is the principal assistant to the battalion commander, the second in command, and must be ready to assume command immediately if the commander becomes a casualty? Which of the following are modular sustainment organizations? What is the reason for civil support tasks? What is achieved by concentrating overwhelming combat power separate parts of a force rather than defeating the entire force at once? Support which units render to each other against an enemy because of their assigned tasks…….? Who is responsible for providing the commander with personal, professional, and technical….? Which support brigade conducts reconnaissance and surveillance to answer the division commanders….? Caring for the wounded and nurturing the living are included under which sustainment element? The ability to move rapidly from one part of the battlefield to another….? Which combat team is a full spectrum combat force that can be used in all operational……? What is one category of sustainment elements? What type of enabler is subsistence items, bulk petroleum, and barrier materials….? Tactical Sustainment (Brigade and Below) What type of enablers are information on road nets, truck availability, rail nets, bridges, ports, cargo handlers, petroleum pipelines, and material handling equipment (MHE)? Which of the following is included in sustainment elements? Who is the coordinating staff officer for sustainment operations? What is an offensive task? What is achieved by concentrating overwhelming combat power against separate parts of a force rather than defeating the entire force at once? This brigade plans, prepares, executes, and assesses operations to provide close support, shaping, and decisive fires for the division. What brigade is it? What element encompasses all issues pertaining to the provision of clinical services for the treatment of Soldiers from the point of injury to successive roles of care? What type of enabler is subsistence items, bulk petroleum, and barrier materials often available in country? This person is the personal staff officer who serves as a confidential advisor to the commander on the spiritual fitness, ethical, and moral health of the command. Who is the principal assistant to the battalion commander, the second in command, and must be ready to assume command immediately if the commander becomes a casualty? Which of the following are modular sustainment organizations? What is the reason for civil support tasks? What is achieved by concentrating overwhelming combat power separate parts of a force rather than defeating the entire force at once? Which support brigade conducts reconnaissance and surveillance to answer the division commander’s information requirements, enabling him/her to focus joint elements of combat power? Who is responsible for providing the commander with personal, professional, and technical advice on enlisted Soldier matters and the noncommissioned officer (NCO) corps as a whole? What is the synchronized or simultaneous application of several arms such as infantry, armor, artillery, engineers, air defense, and aviation to achieve an effect on the enemy that is greater than if each arm was used against the enemy separately or in se…..? Support which units render to each other against an enemy because of their assigned tasks, their position relative to each other and to the enemy, and their inherent capabilities is what kind of support? Principles of the Sustainment Warfighting Function Creating an evacuation plan that can quickly transition from ground evacuation to air evacuation embodies which principle of the health service support element? Which principle of the health service support element is demonstrated by moving the patient through progressive, phased out roles of care, extending from the point of injury or wounding to the appropriate support base? What principle of the personnel services element involves providing uniform and compatible guidance and support to forces across all levels of operations? What principle of the personnel services element impacts the decisions made by our commanders as well as Soldiers and their families? Which of the following are Army sustainment responsibilities under United States Code (USC) Title 10? When we ensure personnel services are effectively aligned with military action in time, space, and purpose to produce maximum relative readiness and operational capabilities at a decisive place and time, we are demonstrating what principle of the personne…? Which term includes the ability to transition from one level of violence to another smoothly? When we ensure our commanders, as decision makers, have access to relevant personnel services information and analysis that supports current and future operations we are demonstrating what principle of the personnel services element? Which principle of the logistics element is the ability to foresee operational requirements and initiate necessary actions that most appropriately satisfy a response without waiting for operations orders (OPORDs) or fragmentary orders (FRAGOs)? Placement of combat medics alongside of combat forces is an example of which principle of the health service support element? Which of the following describes the economy principle of logistics? Early in Operation Iraqi Freedom units were forced to up-armor their vehicles using scrap metal and sandbags. What principle of logistics does this exemplify? Which of the following describes continuity within the principles of the health service support element? What principle of the personnel services element is described by the careful and responsible management of resources entrusted to the government? What term is described by the uninterrupted provision of sustainment across all levels of war? Which of the following includes factors of the operational environment (OE)? Which of the following is a principle of the logistics element? What term describes ensuring personnel services are effectively aligned with military actions…..? Which of the following is a sustainment command under a theater army? Petroleum and water operations What are the three elements to keep a fire burning? What identifies steps that can be eliminated, combined, or changed to make the operation more efficient? It can also indicate unnecessary delays in handling and transporting of water. Petroleum supply units include terminals, pipelines and rail car tank facilities. What else is in a petroleum supply unit? When water is delivered to the unit location, a squad member will return which pocket size, collapsible, empty container and exchange it for a full one? The testing for this quality in water is extremely difficult. The number of these organisms is usually very low, even in a badly polluted water supply, and the test used to find them is difficult. What is quality is it? Who has primary responsibility for the use and distribution of water supplies? What is included in both the layout and operations of Potable Water Storage/Distribution System (PWS/DS)? How many Soldiers are needed to operate Potable Water Storage/Distribution System (PWS/DS) efficiently? What type of equipment is the optimum method of internal water distribution depending upon the quantity required, the size of the unit, and the availability of a prime mover? The Army is taking care of property while also caring about the rights of others. This is a description of what practice? Total dissolved solids (TDS), chlorides, and sulfates and other ions are examples of what type of water What needs to be considered when selecting a site for Potable Water Storage/Distribution System (PWS/DS)? What may be substituted for calculated estimates when computing petroleum consumption? Who is responsible for building an environmental ethic in his or her Soldiers and lead by example to enforce compliance with laws? How do you commute the total water daily requirement for the force? What should cover in detail all possible fire problems and firefighting resources, to include fire departments and engineer firefighting teams? What represents the quantity of fuel required for the operation of a given fuel consumer under assumed average operating conditions for a given standard performance? Food Service Operations What temperature must cold food be maintained at or below while holding and serving? What must a dining facility manager (DFM) keep in mind when ordering subsistence supply? At whose direction are inventories conducted at the theater and supply support activity (SSA)? What is the primary heat source for the kitchen and sanitation equipment found within all AFFSs? Which ration utilizes branded commercial products and provide a quality standard meal for a large number of units across the operational environment (OE)? What are the responsibilities of the field sanitation team? What type of ration is served during CBRN threats? Which of the following is a component of AFFS? What determines how long meals, read to eat (MRE) are used in CBRN threats? What is a common reason for foodborne illness? Which kitchen is designed for feeding company-sized units? What is included in the individual field feeding family of rations? The principle “Subsistence products damaged by material handling equipment (MHE) are meals lost to soldiers” has to do with what concept? What element is included in food safety standards? What is the most familiar individual operational meal utilized by Soldiers? What type of inventories are recommended to assist in maintaining asset visibility and to reduce excess stocks at these levels? Who acts as liaison between the commander and the senior food operations sergeant (SFOS) in all matters pertaining to the food service operation? What temperature must hot food be maintained at or above while holding and serving food? Aerial Delivery and Field Service capabilities Leaving aircraft vulnerable to enemy air defense systems is an example of what? Shower personnel must perform which daily task? Which of the following is a criterion used to determine a suitable place to conduct tactical field services operations? Laundry service allows soldiers to meet the Surgeon General’s standard of changing clothes for how many days? Which of the following are stages in aerial distribution? What is the most common sling load equipment? When deciding on a helicopter for a sling load operations, which of the following needs to be considered? Which type of airdrop is preferred type when all other factors are equal? Requiring moderately level, unobstructed landing zones (LZ) is a constraint of which aerial resupply operation? Shower personnel will meet the needs of supported units by providing what type of showers? Which airdrop method entails the bundle being pushed or skidded out the aircraft side doors, rather than from the rear ramp? This method is primarily used to drop supplies with the assault force itself. What is one of the five site selection criteria used to determine a suitable place to conduct tactical field services operations? What is one of the services that the quartermaster field service company provides? r Which of the following is a constraint of sling load operations? This method of airdrop requires the aircraft to fly in a "nose-up" attitude using the standard cargo delivery system or 3.5 to 4.5 degrees for the C-17 using the dual row airdrop system. What method of airdrop is it? Which of the following is an advantage to using laundry advanced system (LADS)? Which airdrop method entails the bundle being pushed or skidded out the aircraft side doors, rather than from the rear ramp? This method is primarily used to drop supplies with the assault force itself. Why does the forward support company (FSC) protect the force by improving Soldier sanitation, reducing disease, and keeping Soldiers readiness and morale high? Battalion/Company mortuary affairs operations What are some factors staff planners need to be aware of that affect mortuary affairs activities and operations? What is a definitive means of positive identification of unknown remains? What is the systematic method for a team to follow when searching for remains? What is important to remember when working with remains? Who initiates the entire mortuary planning process? Who notifies next of kin? Why must the SCMO understand the reports and documents that are required as part of this duty and the time-line for their submission? At what level does mortuary affairs begin? When does the SCMO have authority to enter housing to locate PE? Never What is particularly useful in the identification process when the remains have been damaged by fire, severely fragmented, commingled in a mass disaster, or decomposed? What are some of the processes for recovery? What is the only service with an Active Component dedicated mortuary affairs force structure and the capability to provide backup support to all services and is often tasked to operate mortuary affairs collection point (MACPs) on an area basis? How is the person eligible to receive effects (PERE) determined? Who must be instilled with the mortuary affairs motto that all remains are to be treated with the utmost “dignity, reverence, and respect”? What is important to remember when working with remains? What is the Department of Defense (DoD) policy concerning mortuary affairs? What does the SCMO do with soiled clothing or other PE? How is the person authorized to direct disposition (PADD) determined? Who is responsible for ensuring that those personnel are identified, trained, and equipped to conduct search and recovery tasks? What must be presented to the person authorized to direct disposition (PADD) as quickly as possible to avoid financial burden? Each service appoints a member to serve on the Central Joint Mortuary Affairs Board. Which service has theirs appointed by the Navy? Supply Support Activity (SSA) and warehouse Which stockage list code consists of items that may be added to the authorized stockage list (ASL) based on the ninth recurring demand within the 360-day period? Whose mission is to maintain and improve logistic readiness of the forward deployed forces? How often should a weapon and ammunition inventory be conducted? Which class of supply contains items that can be replenished by direct exchange? Which Army metric is expressed as a percentage and is the function of demand satisfaction multiplied by demand accommodation? Which stockage list code consists of items that are stocked to support a newly introduced end item? What is the most critical and basic resource of any SSA? What is the phase of logistics that includes managing, cataloging, requirements determinations, procurement, distribution, overhaul, and disposal of materiel? Which performance measure is a function of authorized stockage level depth? Which commodity does the Theater Support Command Materiel Management Center (TSCMMC) maintain theater-wide asset visibility for? Which Army supply chain metric measures the time required to satisfy a SSA requisition that must be sourced from either wholesale or the referral process? Which SSA performance standard measures the performance of an SSA to satisfy a request from a supported customer? Which inventory control mechanism is used to ensure the materiel managers are synchronized with the commander’s priorities? Which phase of logistics encompasses the entire life-cycle from identifying a requirement for a piece of equipment to the disposal of that equipment? What system allows units to request, receive, store, maintain, distribute, retrograde, and control inventory and the flow of resources between the point of entry into the theater system and the destination within the theater? In which class of supply would food and water be included? Which inventory control mechanism provides essential elements of item identification, interchangeable and substitute status, packaging, freight, and retrograde data required to perform the other supply functions? GCSS-Army army training What process within GCSS-Army calculates the quantities needed to satisfy projected consumption or to meet immediate requirements? How does the equipment situation report help to support the Army? The maintenance supervisor is responsible for overseeing equipment readiness in GCSS-Army through use of what report? The equipment records part specialist launches what transaction to display the equipment in your force element (FE)? What GCSS-Army function is used to create a dispatch notification for the selected equipment? Which report is used to provide equipment readiness data for the commander’s unit status report (CUSR)? What provides the ability to effectively list and manage purchase orders? What triggers the tracking of Army Material Status System (AMSS) readiness on reportable items? An approving authority must approve _____ equipment for dispatch? What do equipment categories determine? In the equipment situation report, what does the technical status identify? Why is it vital that maintenance manager/supervisor ensure that quality control and assurance is their number one concern for the safety of Soldier and equipment? What provides the ability to effectively monitor equipment operational status and review material for equipment undergoing repairs? When creating a work order, what is also being created? Which report will you pull to review status data for all reportable systems and associated subsystems that do not meet DA-prescribed FMC goals? In the equipment situation report, what is the Army unit name and system generated identification number referred to in GCSS-Army? Which is a methodology of analyzing data to answer specific questions? Who is responsible for responding to workflow(s) for equipment dispatch requests through the business workplace requiring approval or disapproval decision within GCSS-Army? What GCSS-Army function is used to create a dispatch notification for the selected equipment? Which of the following is a reason for needing approval to dispatch equipment? The equipment _____________ status is used to determine the mission capability of a piece of equipment. Implemented the CMDP Who is responsible for maintaining equipment record folders and will ensure the operator requesting the dispatch has in their possession a valid and current DA Form 5984-E? How much of the Army’s total budget is spent on maintenance and supply? What automated system collects operator licensing, dispatch, and equipment control data and provides management information at the unit level? Which technical manual ™ PMCS tables are used to perform scheduled services that sustain and extend the mission capability of the equipment? Which form is the only authorized record for documenting equipment operator’s qualifications? Which form in the equipment record folder ties the folder to an item of equipment and goes in the outside front pocket of each equipment record folder? Which services are performed at the service interval required by the applicable technical publication? How frequently must commanders conduct a formal inspection on brigade and lower size units? What is the method by which a commander controls the use of equipment? What program is oriented to combat readiness and sustainability? What are the primary building blocks and the starting point for Army maintenance operations? What is specified maintenance actions performed when required where equipment, components, and systems are routinely checked, adjusted, changed, analyzed, and lubed, IAW designer and engineer specifications? When using the Unit Level Logistics System (ULLS) what form is used to record faults found during the PMCS? What required maintenance service is performed when equipment, components, and systems are routinely checked, adjusted, changed, analyzed, and lubed, in accordance with (IAW) designer and engineer specifications? What program is oriented to combat readiness and sustainability? Who is often the first to detect changes to equipment condition and performance? Which symbol is used on DD Form 314 to show a scheduled 18-month service? What is used to monitor performance and is a necessary part of the CMDP? Which form in the equipment record folder is the central record for managing and controlling maintenance by showing a record of faults found during an inspection? Maintenance Operations at the company level Which of the following is a principle of Army maintenance? What support consideration includes tasks that address the consequence of natural or manmade disasters, accidents, terrorist attacks, and incidents in the U.S. and its territories? What is the total acceptable one-time cost to repair an end item or reparable component to a fully serviceable condition as prescribed in the appropriate technical manual ( TM )? Who must be trained by the supporting area test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment (TMDE) support team prior to executing their responsibilities? What are the specified maintenance actions performed when required, where equipment, components, and systems are routinely checked, adjusted, changed, analyzed, lubricated, and so forth, in accordance with (IAW) designer and engineer specifications? What maintenance operation’s purpose is to augment unit shortages, where there is a disparity between the deploying unit’s modified table of organization and equipment (MTOE) and mission essential equipment list? What is the purpose of the Army maintenance system? Who provides role one, unit level medical care, and role two, basic primary care, Army health system (AHS) support to all brigade combat team (BCT) units operating within the brigade area of operations? What are the repair levels of support for test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment (TMDE)? What is maintenance management focused on at the company level? What is a management technique used to supplement quality control procedures by motivating all personnel to produce high-quality work the first time? Who is responsible for the unit’s test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment (TMDE) readiness? Who is the primary supply and transportation hub of the brigade combat team (BCT)? What is a fault repair? What is one of the support considerations for maintenance? Who is the primary supply and transportation hub of the brigade combat team (BCT What is defined as any system or device used to evaluate the operational condition of an end item or subsystem thereof to identify and/or isolate any actual or potential malfunction? What is the foundation of the Army maintenance program and is the basis of the PMCS that are required by all equipment technical manuals (TMs) in the before, during and after operation checks? What system includes all checks and services performed by the operator/crew and the field maintenance section? What must be performed before a work order is accepted for a shop to perform field-level maintenance? Recovery Operations and BDAR What is the process used to decide the order that battle-damaged equipment will receive repairs? When thinking about BDAR capabilities it is so important to also remember what? What is the reason for having two methods of tire repair? Which of the following are types of recovery operations? If performing BDAR on equipment, when should it be recorded? Smoke, fire, and unusual odors are examples of which component of BDAR? What will trimming a small amount of fan blades opposite the broken blade reduce? Which of the following are repair capabilities in the BDAR kit? What is the most important phase of BDAR? Which of the following is an example of basic rules of assessment? What type of electrical repairs can be done with the electrical components capabilities? How many general BDAR capabilities generally exist? When should high risk expedient repairs be performed? BDAR kits allow for repair in which areas? What does the hull and metal components capability greatly reduce? What leads to premature vehicle failures? Which of the following is an example of basic rules of assessment? What is the purpose for recording BDAR repairs Which type of recovery operation is used when self-recovery fails? Which is the most important phase of BDAR? When thinking about BDAR capabilities it is important to also remember what? When performing a battle damage assessment what is the decision based upon? Why is it important to fix a defective tandem axle? Maintenance and Support operations functions Which of the following is an Ordnance Corps warrant officer CMF 94 position? What MOS performs and supervises unit field sustainment functions on power generation equipment up through 200 kilowatts? Which job performs and supervises unit maintenance and select on-board tasks, major assembly replacement on Abrams tanks to include the hull, turret, and fire control? Which of the following is a mechanical maintenance warrant officer position? What MOS performs duties in preceding skill levels and supervises junior enlisted Soldiers and provides technical guidance on field and sustainment maintenance tracked and wheeled vehicles, construction equipment, and material handling equipment (MHE)? What MOS performs or supervises field and sustainment level maintenance on radio receivers, transmitters, communications security (COMSEC) equipment, controlled cryptographic items, and associated equipment? What area of specialty is CMF 91? What MOS works as part of a team to maintain the Stryker family of vehicles and keep the vehicles and operations systems running smoothly? What MOS supervises and performs field or sustainment level maintenance on construction equipment which includes that used for earthmoving, grading, and compaction; llifting and loading; quarrying and rock crushing; asphalt and concrete mixing, and surfacing; water pumping; air compression and pneumatic tools; and powered bridging? Who implements proper crime prevention, security and safety procedures in accordance with Occupational Safety and Health Administration? What is the role of the Ordnance Corps warrant officer? What MOS supervises or performs direct support (DS)/general support (GS) level maintenance on the tube-launched, optically-tracked, wire-guided and Dragon missile systems, the Bradley Fighting Vehicle System and Javelin system? What MOS supervises and coordinates support maintenance on all missile systems? What MOS supervises or performs direct support (DS)/general support (GS) level maintenance on the Patriot missile system, associated equipment, and trainers? Which MOS performs direct support and general support maintenance and repairs on small arms and towed artillery? What are some of the specialties found among the MOS comprising of CMF 94? Who manages activities and personnel engaged in field and sustainment level maintenance and repair of small arms, field artillery, and armament systems? What MOS supervises and coordinates support maintenance on all missile systems? Field Maintenance Site Selection Which of the following is a terrain consideration for field maintenance sites? Who synchronizes and coordinates the brigade maintenance program for the brigade commander? Which maintenance organization’s role is to provide direct logistics support to the supported battalion? Which of the following characteristics describes field maintenance? What defense posture can be defines as the military measures required to reduce the effectiveness of enemy attacks to ensure the maximum capacity of its facilities is available to U.S forces? Which maintenance organization has expanded capability in armament, electronics, and ground support equipment? What defense posture typically does not have a defined perimeter or established access points? Which of the following is a site criteria consideration for desert operations? When considering ground generation for field maintenance sites, it is best practice _____ usage to maximize loads on generators. Which site criteria consideration can save time and money and have a positive effect on morale? Which of the following is a site criteria consideration for urban operations? What is a key terrain whose seizure and retention is mandatory for mission accomplishment? Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective field maintenance site? Who fulfills the role of technical expert in maintenance operations for the brigade? What defense posture is a collection of bases geographically grouped for mutual protection? Commanders must consider underground avenues of approach during what type of operation? Which base defense consideration can exist naturally or be man-made? Which level of command contains the command and control elements for the brigade combat team (BCT) maintenance organization? Which of the following characteristics describes sustainment maintenance? What is key terrain whose seizure and retention is mandatory for mission accomplishment? Conventional Ammunition Site Selection Which storage instructions may be used to store up to 500,000 pounds net explosive weight (NEW) if constructed to specific standards? Which storage compatibility group (CG) consists of ammunition containing both explosives and toxic chemical agents? Which strategic level storage facility is primarily focused on maintenance and bulk storage operations? The highest degree of safety in ammunition and explosives (AE) storage could be assured if each item were stored how? What does an “X” at an intersection indicate on a shipment compatibility chart? In structures other than earth covered magazines (ECMs) how far away from the roof must the top of stacks be? Which storage structures are buildings used for temporary storage of minimum amount of ammunition and explosives (AE) necessary for safe and efficient processing operations at an associated AE operation? How often must the integrity of seals on empty magazines be assured? Which strategic storage level facility includes ammunition stored in mature theaters that is used to replenish ammunition basic load and equipment? How many hazard classes (HCs) does the United Nations Organization (UNO) classification consists of? Whish storage structure is normally categorized as un-barricaded? When storing ammunition, how will it be stacked? Which storage compatibility group (CG) consists of detonators and similar initiating devices containing less than two independent safety features? Which strategic level storage facility is also capable of ammunition and bomb production, ammunition and missile maintenance and renovation, and demilitarization of obsolete or unserviceable ammunition? What must storage afford protection against no matter where ammunition is stored? What does a “Z” at an intersection on a storage compatibility chart indicate? What shipment inspection form are military units required to fill out before reporting to an Ammunition Support Activity (ASA)? How many hazard classes (HCs) exist in the United Nations Organization (UNO) classification system? What is the preferred structure for storing munitions for prolonged periods of time? Which strategic level storage facility is an innovative place where arms and munitions are researched and developed? Explosive Safety and Quantity Distance Which storage method has a variation known as storage in depth? Which of the following are the greatest hazards to ammunition and explosives (AE)? In which storage method are munitions stacks arranged in a checkerboard pattern and spaced according to QD requirements? Where are munitions stored at the operational level? Which storage method may be the only solution for storing large quantities in rear areas where there is insufficient real estate? How much pressure is the headwall of a 3-Bar magazine designed to withstand? Which QD is the minimum permitted distance between ammunition storage locations and is intended to provide minimal protection only to those locations? When calculating magazine storage area (MSA) QD what is the rule for rounding the net explosive weight (NEW)? In war-time, what action would you take when Fire Symbol 2 is displayed? How much fire break separation is required for refueling and vehicle parking? What are the greatest safety hazards to ammunition and explosives (AE)? How many fire divisions are used in fire prevention planning? Which QD is intended to provide minimal protection for those assigned to operate inside the ammunition storage area? Which storage area is the most mobile and responsive? Which QD can be calculated as 60 percent of inhabited building distance (IBD)? In which storage area are more risks accepted with personnel, equipment, and facilities? Who is responsible for implementing systems or measures to reduce or mitigate fire hazards? Which QD provides personnel protection and property with the highest degree of protection, from death or serious injury, from explosive hazards? Which storage area is run by a modular ordnance company assigned to a sustainment brigade? Functions of Medical Support What does the Medical Logistics Management Center’s (MLMC’s) mission include? What is one difference between medical logistics and line logistics? What do the functions of line logistics include? What is the Medical Logistics Company (MLC) mission? What response is fitting for the role of surgeon, and his or her cell of personnel? What is one capability of the blood support detachment? Which strategic support organization serves as the single point of contact to establish and integrate systems for supplying and disposing of medical supplies and equipment? When Army Service Component Command (ASSC) is in support of combatant commander what is it designated for? Who provides emergency resupply to combat lifesaver? What organizations have limited capability for internal medical logistics management and are primarily customers of the brigade medical supply office (BMSO What is the Brigade Support Medical Company’s (BSMC’s) medical supply element? How does Transportation Command (TRANSCOM) provide strategic support? What do the functions of medical logistics include? When units have a demand for medical supplies what organization will request these items? What organization monitors, coordinates, and facilitates medical logistics operations within the command? What links strategic logistics and tactical logistics on the battlefield? What does Medical Command (Deployment Support) (MEDCOM) DS)), the deployable arm of Medical Command (MEDCOM) serves as? What U.S. Army Medical Command (MEDCOM) is responsible for medical research, development, and acquisition and medical logistics management? Types and uses of ambulances In planning evacuation operations, what location must be easy to find on the map and on the ground, and also needs to have appropriate cover and concealment? The theater evacuation policy guides the selection of a patient for evacuation. Which of the following is included in the theater evacuation policy? Ground ambulance teams from the ambulance platoon are normally collocated with the brigade support medical company (BSMC)/forward support medical company (FSMC) treatment platoon for mutual support. Where are these ambulances primarily positioned? What is considered grounds for bypassing roles of care? Who performs duties as a nonmedical Soldier selected by his or her unit commander for additional training beyond basic first-aid procedures? Why is careful control of patient evacuation necessary? Which roles in the Army Health System (AHS) system could potentially require MEDEVAC support? Which of the following is a Role 1 organization? Which of the following is a treatment provided by Role 1 combat medics or treatment squads? If a Soldier has received forward resuscitative care close to the point of injury (POI) and is now moving to theater hospitalization care at a combat support hospital (CSH), what role of care is the Soldier moving from, and which role of care is the Soldi…? Medical regulating is the system designed to coordinate the movement of patients from point of injury (POI) through roles of medical care. Which of the following is a factor that influences the scheduling of patient movement? Which of the following is a treatment provided by Role 2 organizations What is one capability of a combat support hospital (CSH)? What is considered grounds for bypassing roles of care? Who is the medical advisor to the battalion commander and his staff, supervising physician (operational medicine officer) of the medical platoon treatment squad, and responsible for all medical treatment provided by the platoon? Health service support (HSS) encompasses all support and services performed, provided, and arranged for what department? Which of the following describes the role of the medical platoon sergeant? What is one of the fundamentals of the Army Health System (AHS)? Which of the following is a service provided by the medical company, air ambulance? Who performs duties as a nonmedical Soldier selected by his or her unit commander for additional training beyond basic first-aid procedures? Aerial Evacuation Medical companies provide __________and medical evacuation. Which air ambulance has 12 helicopter ambulances to evacuate critically wounded or other patients consistent with evacuation priorities and operational considerations, from points as far forward as possible, to appropriate medical treatment facility (MTF) Which treatment is provided by the combat medic or by the physician, the physician assistant, or the health care specialist in the battalion aid station? Who does the attending physician notify when it is necessary to transfer a patient in the combat zone? What is one purpose for medical regulating? Which air ambulance company has one area support medical evacuation platoon (three aircraft) that will normally locate with the company headquarters? Which role involves patients who are unable to tolerate or survive movement over long distances and gives surgical care in a hospital as close to the supported unit as the tactical situation allows? Role 1 What role of medical care includes a combat lifesaver? Which role includes provisions for evacuating patients from supported units? What is medical evacuation? Each Soldier is issued an individual first aid kit to accomplish first aid tasks. What role of care does this provide? Which air ambulance has movement of patients between aeromedical staging facilities? Soldiers who require medical treatment beyond what can be provided at unit-level or at a battalion aid station need access to a Role 2 medical treatment facility (MTF). What is the primary purpose of a Role 2 facility? Which air ambulance has eight helicopter ambulances to evacuate critically wounded or other patients consistent with evacuation priorities and operational considerations while providing en route care, from points as far forward as possible, to the appropr…? Which role involves patients who are unable to tolerate or survive movement over long distances and gives surgical care in a hospital as close to the supported unit as the tactical situation allows? Who is the nonmedical Soldier selected by his/her unit commander for additional training beyond basic first aid procedures? The patient administrator (PAD) accomplishes the medical regulating function at what level? What role of care is operated by the area support squad and medical treatment platoon of medical companies? How does the daily report from the attending physician submitted to the patient administrator (PAD) classify patients? Each Soldier is issued an individual first aid kit to accomplish first aid tasks. What role of care does this provide? What is the responsibility of the division surgeon section? What is medical regulating? Evacuation Process What role of care is the patient examined and his or her wounds and general medical condition are evaluated to determine his or her treatment and evacuation precedence, as a single patient among other patients? Which evacuation focuses on the reduced medical footprint forward and the “evacuate and replace philosophy”? Why is continuity important for AHS? What phase involves the unregulated movement of casualties using predesignated or opportune tactical or logistic aircraft and vehicle? Which of the following is a factor that affects the MEDEVAC policy? What is the most fundamental element for effectively providing AHS and ensures medical influence over the execution of MEDEVAC operations? What role of care is found in continental U.S. (CONUS)-based hospitals and other safe havens? What role of care is also referred to as unit-level medical care? During this phase of medical treatment what lifesaving interventions that must be performed immediately are undertaken? Which principle requires a thorough and comprehensive MEDEVAC plan? What refers to dedicated medical platforms staffed and equipped to provide en route medical care? At what phase of treatment are medical personnel and their causalities are no longer under effective hostile fire and medical personnel can provide more extensive patient care? Which capability has the facilities and materiel (equipment and consumable supplies) to render significant preventive and curative health care? Who provides MEDEVAC support from the point of injury (POI), company aid post, or casualty/patient collection point to the battalion aid station? What entails identifying the patients awaiting evacuation, locating the available beds, and coordinating the transportation means for movement? Which principle discusses the speed with which MEDEVAC is initiated? What is an integral component of the Military Health System that provides capabilities to organize and provide life-cycle management of the specialized medical products and services required to operate an integrated health system anywhere in the world? Which principle is designed to ensure agility as well as enhance the ability to rapidly task-organize and relocate MEDEVAC assets to meet changing battlefield requirements? What principle ensures that MEDEVAC resources can rapidly respond and that evacuation routes do not become too lengthy? [Show More]

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